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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have been asked to assess a patient by the nursing staff as they are currently occupied by a distressed patient and relative. The patient you've been asked to review has known schizophrenia and wishes to leave the unit. However, following consultation with the patient, you are concerned they are exhibiting features of an acute psychotic episode.
Which section of the Mental Health Act (2007) could be used to detain the patient?Your Answer: Section 3
Correct Answer: Section 5(2)
Explanation:Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act (2007)
The Mental Health Act (2007) provides a legal framework for patients with confirmed or suspected mental disorders that pose a risk to themselves or the public. The Act outlines specific guidelines for detention, treatment, and the individuals authorized to use its powers. Here are some of the key sections of the Mental Health Act:
Section 5(2): This section allows for the temporary detention of a patient already in the hospital for up to 72 hours, after which a full Mental Health Act assessment must be conducted. A doctor who is fully registered (FY2 or above) can use this section to detain a patient.
Section 3: This section is used for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, with the exact mental disorder being treated stated on the application. It can be renewed for a further six months if required, and the patient has the right to appeal.
Section 2: This section allows for compulsory admission for assessment of presumed mental disorder. The section lasts for 28 days and must be signed by two doctors, one of whom is approved under Section 12(2), usually a consultant psychiatrist, and another doctor who knows the patient in a professional capacity, usually their GP.
Section 5(4): This section can be used by psychiatric nursing staff to detain a patient for up to 6 hours while arranging review by appropriate medical personnel for further assessment and either conversion to a Section 5(2). If this time elapses, there is no legal right for the nursing staff to detain the patient. In this scenario, the nursing staff are unavailable to assess the patient.
Section 7: This section is an application for guardianship. It is used for patients in the community where an approved mental health practitioner (AMHP), usually a social worker, requests compulsory treatment requiring the patient to live in a specified location, attend specific locations for treatment, and allow access for authorized persons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward and the medical team is concerned about her mental health in addition to her urgent medical needs. The patient is refusing treatment and insisting on leaving. The team suspects that she may be mentally incapacitated and unable to make an informed decision. Under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA) can they legally detain her in England and Wales?
Your Answer: Section 5 (2)
Explanation:Section 5 (2) of the MHA allows a doctor to detain a patient for up to 72 hours for assessment. This can be used for both informal patients in mental health hospitals and general hospitals. During this time, the patient is assessed by an approved mental health professional and a doctor with Section 12 approval. The patient can refuse treatment, but it can be given in their best interests or in an emergency. Section 2 and 3 can only be used if they are the least restrictive method for treatment and allow for detention for up to 28 days and 6 months, respectively. Section 135 allows police to remove a person from their home for assessment, while Section 136 allows for the removal of an apparently mentally disordered person from a public place to a place of safety for assessment. Since the patient in this scenario is already in hospital, neither Section 135 nor Section 136 would apply.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia visits you with her caregiver on a Monday morning. She informs you that she was out of town over the weekend and misplaced her prescribed clozapine, which she takes at a dosage of 200 mg in the morning and 400 mg at night. She hasn't taken any since Friday evening and seems to be experiencing psychotic symptoms. Her caregiver mentions that this is the first time she has ever lost her medication.
What course of action should you take?Your Answer: Restart clozapine at the starting dose of 12.5 mg daily
Explanation:Managing Non-Compliance with Clozapine in Schizophrenia Patients
When a patient with schizophrenia on clozapine misses their medication for more than 48 hours, it is important to manage the situation appropriately. Restarting clozapine at the starting dose of 12.5 mg daily is recommended, even if the patient has been on a higher dose previously. However, the titration upwards can be more rapid than for a clozapine-naive patient.
Stopping the clozapine prescription completely is not advisable, as the patient needs to be on treatment for their schizophrenia, and clozapine is often the treatment of choice for those who are resistant to other anti-psychotic medications. Restarting clozapine at a higher dose than the starting dose is also not recommended.
Switching to a depo form of anti-psychotic medication may be considered if non-compliance is a recurring issue, but it should be a decision made in consultation with the patient, their family, and their healthcare team. However, switching to a depo after one incidence of non-compliance may be an overreaction, especially as it would require a change of medication.
In summary, managing non-compliance with clozapine in schizophrenia patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and consultation with their healthcare team. Restarting clozapine at the starting dose is the recommended course of action, and switching to a depo form of medication should be considered only after careful discussion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A couple has a 7-year-old son and are worried that he may have inherited the gene for Huntington's disease. The father was diagnosed with the disease when he was 33 years old, while the mother has been tested and found not to be a carrier of the gene. What is the probability that their son will develop Huntington's disease?
Your Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:The Genetics of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is needed for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother without copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.
Symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for the disease is located on chromosome 4, and there is a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation where the disease can manifest earlier in life in subsequent generations.
Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. The genetics of Huntington’s disease is crucial for individuals and families affected by the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it is found that her baby is in the breech position. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Offer immediate external cephalic version
Correct Answer: Offer external cephalic version if still breech at 36 weeks
Explanation:If the foetus is in a breech position at 36 weeks, it is recommended to undergo external cephalic version. However, before 36 weeks, the foetus may naturally move into the correct position, making the procedure unnecessary. It is not necessary to schedule a Caesarean section immediately, but if ECV is unsuccessful, a decision must be made regarding the risks of a vaginal delivery with a breech presentation or a Caesarean section.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing pain in his left upper leg over the past 4 months. After conducting a thorough examination and taking a detailed medical history, the GP decides to order a set of blood tests and an X-ray of the left femur. Upon reviewing the results, the GP notices that the X-ray report indicates an area of cotton-wool calcification. What condition is cotton-wool calcification on an X-ray typically linked to?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer: Chondrosarcoma
Explanation:Different Types of Bone Tumours and their Characteristics
Bone tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of bone tumours and their features:
Chondrosarcoma: This is a malignant tumour that arises from cartilage. It is commonly found in long bones and is characterized by popcorn or cotton wool calcification. Paget’s disease is also associated with cotton wool calcification.
Osteoid osteoma: This is a benign, isolated lesion that is usually less than 2 cm in size and has an ovoid shape.
Osteosarcoma: This is the most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by sun-ray spiculations and Codman’s triangle. Codman’s triangle is a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when the periosteum is raised away from the bone by an aggressive bone lesion.
Ewing’s sarcoma: This is the second most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by onion skin periostitis and Codman’s triangle.
Osteoclastoma: This is a well-defined, non-sclerotic area that is usually not malignant.
In summary, bone tumours can have different characteristics and features, and their classification can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Psychiatry Clinic following her third suicide attempt in the past two years. She had cut her wrist at home and was brought to the hospital after her sister found her unconscious. She was successfully resuscitated, received a blood transfusion, and was discharged after a few days in hospital. She has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder since her teenage years and works in retail. She is currently single after having had unsuccessful relationships in the past. She consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and smokes around ten cigarettes a day. She is currently taking lithium for her mental illness. She is otherwise healthy and does not suffer from any medical conditions. What will be included in her long-term risk management plan?
Your Answer: Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks
Explanation:Best Practices for Suicide Risk Management
Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks is recommended by NICE to identify the needs of the patient and potential risks. However, the use of risk assessment tools to predict future danger is not advised due to their limited predictive value. Instead, a holistic approach considering biological, psychological, and social factors is more effective in identifying patients at high risk of suicide.
Establishing a crisis plan with the patient is part of the risk management strategy advocated by NICE. This plan includes self-management strategies and guidance on accessing emergency services if necessary. Asking about suicide plans and establishing a crisis plan does not increase suicide risk.
Confidentiality is crucial in the doctor-patient relationship, but it may need to be broken if the patient poses a serious risk to themselves or others. Therefore, informing the patient that confidentiality will always be maintained is incorrect.
While psychiatric medications are commonly used to manage underlying mental illnesses, NICE advises against prescribing them specifically to reduce self-harm. A tailored approach to medication management is necessary for each patient.
Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to suicide risk management is essential for effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed 1 year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise, and additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg po daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day. On examination, his blood pressure is measured at 129/75 mmHg. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1, HbA1c 62 mmol/mol and creatinine 110 μmol/l.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?Your Answer: Commence metformin
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Cholesterol
To manage a patient with diabetes and high cholesterol, several treatment options are available. If the patient’s HbA1c is above the target level despite diet and exercise, the first-line treatment is metformin. If the patient has poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be used as a second-line option. Pioglitazone can be used cautiously in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy.
However, if the patient’s LDL cholesterol is already adequately controlled, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin. Similarly, if the patient’s blood pressure is already well-managed, there is no need to add an additional antihypertensive medication. By carefully considering the patient’s individual needs and responses to treatment, healthcare providers can help manage diabetes and high cholesterol effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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You are asked to assess a male infant born 18 hours ago, at 35 weeks gestation, due to concerns raised by the nursing staff. Upon conducting a comprehensive examination and taking note of the mother's positive group B streptococcus status, you tentatively diagnose the baby with neonatal sepsis and commence treatment. What is the most frequently observed feature associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Respiratory distress
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in behaviour, insomnia and fever. Staff in the nursing home state that over the last five days, he has appeared confused and agitated and seems to be having visual hallucinations, as he has been talking and gesturing to people who are not present in the room. He has a past medical history of Lewy body dementia. On clinical examination, he is not orientated to time, place or person. He is mildly agitated. His blood pressure is 112/60 mmHg, pulse 96 bpm and temperature 38.2 °C. Urinalysis is positive for nitrites and leukocytes.
Which of the following management plans should be considered as initial treatment for delirium?Your Answer: Treat the underlying cause, ensure effective communication and reorientation, provide reassurance for people diagnosed with delirium, provide a suitable care environment
Explanation:Managing Delirium: Strategies for Treatment and Care Environment
Delirium is a serious condition that requires prompt identification and management of underlying causes. Effective communication and reorientation, as well as reassurance for the patient, are crucial in managing delirium. Involving family, friends, and carers can also be helpful. Providing a suitable care environment, such as a well-lit and quiet room with minimal stimulation, is important. If verbal and non-verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective, short-term use of antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be necessary, but caution should be exercised, especially for patients with conditions like Parkinson’s disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. Frequent reorientation and monitoring in a dimly lit room may also be necessary in some cases. Overall, a comprehensive approach that addresses both the underlying causes and the patient’s immediate needs is essential in managing delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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