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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements relating to the posterior cerebral artery is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the posterior cerebral artery is false?

      Your Answer: It is closely related to the 3rd cranial nerve

      Correct Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The bifurcation of the basilar artery gives rise to the posterior cerebral arteries, which are linked to the circle of Willis through the posterior communicating artery.

      These arteries provide blood supply to the occipital lobe and a portion of the temporal lobe.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with pleuritic thoracic pain and...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with pleuritic thoracic pain and fever. His medical history includes an inferior STEMI that occurred 3 weeks ago. During auscultation, a pericardial rub is detected, and his ECG shows diffuse ST segment elevation and PR segment depression. What is the complication of myocardial infarction that the patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Dressler syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms strongly suggest Dressler syndrome, which is an autoimmune-related inflammation of the pericardium that typically occurs 2-6 weeks after a heart attack. This condition is characterized by fever, pleuritic pain, and diffuse ST elevation and PR depression on an electrocardiogram. A pleural friction rub can also be heard during a physical exam.

      While another heart attack is a possibility, the absence of diffuse ST elevation and the presence of a pleural friction rub make this diagnosis less likely.

      A left ventricular aneurysm would present with persistent ST elevation but no chest pain.

      Ventricular free wall rupture typically occurs 1-2 weeks after a heart attack and would present with acute heart failure due to cardiac tamponade, which is characterized by raised jugular venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus, and diminished heart sounds.

      A ventricular septal defect usually occurs within the first week and would present with acute heart failure and a pansystolic murmur.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      347.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with a history of long-standing fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with a history of long-standing fatigue, dyspnea, and chest discomfort that has recently worsened. Despite being physically active, she has been experiencing these symptoms. She is a social drinker and does not smoke. Her family history is unremarkable except for her mother who died of 'chest disease' at the age of 50. During examination, her observations are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 135/85mmHg
      Pulse: 95 beats/min
      Respiration: 25 breaths/min

      An ECG shows no abnormalities, and cardiac enzymes are within normal ranges. She is referred for echocardiography, which reveals a right pulmonary artery pressure of 35 mmhg.

      What substance is elevated in this patient, underlying the disease process?

      Your Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      120.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You perform venepuncture on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.

    At which point...

    Incorrect

    • You perform venepuncture on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.

      At which point does this vein pass deep under muscle?

      Your Answer: At the axilla

      Correct Answer: Midway up the humerus

      Explanation:

      When the basilic vein is located halfway up the humerus, it travels beneath muscle. At the cubital fossa, the basilic vein connects with the median cubital vein, which in turn interacts with the cephalic vein. Contrary to popular belief, the basilic vein does not pass through the medial epicondyle. Meanwhile, the cephalic vein can be found in the deltopectoral groove.

      The Basilic Vein: A Major Pathway of Venous Drainage for the Arm and Hand

      The basilic vein is one of the two main pathways of venous drainage for the arm and hand, alongside the cephalic vein. It begins on the medial side of the dorsal venous network of the hand and travels up the forearm and arm. Most of its course is superficial, but it passes deep under the muscles midway up the humerus. Near the region anterior to the cubital fossa, the basilic vein joins the cephalic vein.

      At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into the basilic vein. It is often joined by the medial brachial vein before draining into the axillary vein. The basilic vein is continuous with the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. Understanding the path and function of the basilic vein is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating conditions related to venous drainage in the arm and hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      87
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and swelling in his lower limbs. To aid in diagnosis, the doctor orders a B-type natriuretic peptide test. What triggers the production of B-type natriuretic peptide in heart failure?

      Your Answer: Peripheral oedema

      Correct Answer: Increased ventricular filling pressure

      Explanation:

      When the ventricles are under strain, they release B-type natriuretic peptide. Normally, increased ventricular filling pressures would result in a larger diastolic volume and cardiac output through the Frank-Starling mechanism. However, in heart failure, this mechanism is overwhelmed and the ventricles are stretched too much for a strong contraction.

      To treat heart failure, ACE inhibitors are used to decrease the amount of BNP produced. A decrease in stroke volume is a sign of heart failure. The body compensates for heart failure by increasing activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      63.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old male is brought to the trauma unit following a car accident,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is brought to the trauma unit following a car accident, with an estimated blood loss of 1200ml. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 125 beats per minute, blood pressure of 125/100 mmHg, and he feels cold to the touch.

      Which component of his cardiovascular system has played the biggest role in maintaining his blood pressure stability?

      Your Answer: Arteries

      Correct Answer: Arterioles

      Explanation:

      The highest resistance in the cardiovascular system is found in the arterioles, which means they contribute the most to the total peripheral resistance. In cases of compensated hypovolaemic shock, such as in this relatively young patient, the body compensates by increasing heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.

      Arteriole vasoconstriction in hypovolaemic shock patients leads to an increase in total peripheral resistance, which in turn increases mean arterial blood pressure. This has a greater effect on diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowing of pulse pressure and clinical symptoms such as cold peripheries and delayed capillary refill time.

      Capillaries are microscopic channels that provide blood supply to the tissues and are the primary site for gas and nutrient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins with diameters ranging from 8-100 micrometers and join multiple capillaries exiting from a capillary bed.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.

    He has a past medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.

      He has a past medical history of stroke and myocardial infarction. During examination, there was noticeable distension of the abdomen and the stools were maroon in color. The lactate level was found to be 5 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of <2.2 mmol/L.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the small intestine or right colon. This can be caused by arterial or venous disease, with arterial disease further classified as non-occlusive or occlusive. The classic triad of symptoms associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia includes gastrointestinal emptying, abdominal pain, and underlying cardiac disease.

      The hallmark symptom of mesenteric ischaemia is severe abdominal pain, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, ileus, peritonitis, blood in the stool, and shock. Advanced ischaemia is characterized by the presence of these symptoms.

      There are several risk factors associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia, including congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation), recent myocardial infarction, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable states, and hypovolaemia. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to seek medical attention promptly if any symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      3147.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - John, a 35-year-old male, is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The...

    Correct

    • John, a 35-year-old male, is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The ambulance crew explains that the patient has homonymous hemianopia, weakness of left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia.

      He has a strong past medical and family history deep vein thromboses.

      A CT is ordered and the report suggests a stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery. Months later he is under investigations to explain the stroke at his young age. He is diagnosed with Factor V Leiden thrombophilia, which causes the blood to be in a hypercoagulable state.

      What are the potential areas of the brain that can be impacted by an emboli in this artery?

      Your Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes are mainly supplied by the middle cerebral artery, which is a continuation of the internal carotid artery. As a result, any damage to this artery can have a significant impact on a large portion of the brain. The middle cerebral artery is frequently affected by cerebrovascular events. The posterior cerebral artery, on the other hand, supplies the occipital lobe. The anterior cerebral artery supplies a portion of the frontal and parietal lobes.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following structures is in danger of direct harm after a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is in danger of direct harm after a femoral condyle fracture dislocation in an older adult?

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Correct Answer: Popliteal artery

      Explanation:

      The fracture segment can be pulled backwards by the contraction of the gastrocnemius heads, which may result in damage or compression of the popliteal artery that runs adjacent to the bone.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up and physical examination....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up and physical examination. He has a medical history of hypertension and asthma but currently has no immediate concerns. He reports feeling healthy.

      During the examination, the man appears to be in good health, with normal vital signs except for a high blood pressure reading of 160/90 mmHg. While listening to his heart, the GP detects an S4 heart sound and orders an ECG.

      Which segment of the ECG corresponds to the S4 heart sound?

      Your Answer: QRS complex

      Correct Answer: P wave

      Explanation:

      The S4 heart sound coincides with the P wave on an ECG. This is because the S4 sound is caused by the contraction of the atria against a stiff ventricle, which occurs just before the S1 sound. It is commonly heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, or hypertension. As the P wave represents atrial depolarization, it is the ECG wave that coincides with the S4 heart sound.

      It is important to note that the QRS complex, which represents ventricular depolarization, is not associated with the S4 heart sound. Similarly, the ST segment, which is the interval between ventricular depolarization and repolarization, and T waves, which indicate ventricular repolarization, are not linked to the S4 heart sound.

      Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. After conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V4-V6, leading to a diagnosis of anterolateral ST-elevation MI. What is the primary artery that provides blood to the lateral region of the left ventricle?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      When the right coronary artery is blocked, it can lead to inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and changes in leads II, III, and aVF on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is because the right coronary artery typically supplies blood to the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes, which can result in arrhythmias. The right marginal artery, which branches off from the right coronary artery near the bottom of the heart, runs along the heart’s lower edge towards the apex.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 51-year-old woman has just had a right hemiarthroplasty and is now experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman has just had a right hemiarthroplasty and is now experiencing sudden onset of shortness of breath and sharp pleuritic pain on the right side of her chest. A chest x-ray is done as part of the initial evaluation, revealing a wedge-shaped opacification. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pleural effusion

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Signs of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism is a medical condition that can be difficult to diagnose due to its varied symptoms and signs. While chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis are commonly associated with pulmonary embolism, only a small percentage of patients present with this textbook triad. The symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism can vary depending on the location and size of the embolism.

      The PIOPED study conducted in 2007 found that tachypnea, or a respiratory rate greater than 16/min, was the most common clinical sign in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, occurring in 96% of cases. Other common signs included crackles in the chest (58%), tachycardia (44%), and fever (43%). Interestingly, the Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE uses tachycardia rather than tachypnea. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the varied symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department with loss of vision on the right side.

      Which artery disease could be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic artery is the first branch of the internal carotid artery and supplies the orbit. If the internal carotid artery is affected by disease, it can lead to vision loss. However, disease of the external carotid artery, which supplies structures of the face and neck, or its branches such as the facial artery (which supplies skin and muscles of the face), lingual artery (which supplies the tongue and oral mucosa), or middle meningeal artery (which supplies the cranial dura), would not result in vision loss. Disease of the middle meningeal artery is commonly associated with extradural hematoma.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman discusses her varicose veins with her midwife. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman discusses her varicose veins with her midwife. She has noticed these veins for a couple of weeks now, and they appeared during her pregnancy. Lately, she has observed red-brown discoloration around the veins on the back of her calf. What could be the probable root cause of this?

      Your Answer: Atrophie blanche

      Correct Answer: Haemosiderin deposition

      Explanation:

      The hyperpigmentation observed in patients with varicose eczema/venous ulcers is likely caused by haemosiderin deposition. This occurs when red blood cells burst due to venous stasis, leading to the release of haemoglobin which is stored as haemosiderin. The excess haemosiderin causes a local red-brown discolouration around areas of varicose veins.

      Acanthosis nigricans is an unlikely cause as it is associated with metabolic disorders and not varicose veins. Atrophie blanche describes hypopigmentation seen in venous ulcers, while lipodermatosclerosis causes thickening of the skin in varicose veins without changing the skin color. Melanoma, a skin cancer that causes dark discolouration, is unlikely to be associated with varicose veins and is an unlikely explanation for the observed discolouration on the back of the calf.

      Understanding Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.

      To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.

      In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Sarah is a 60-year-old female who has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. After...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 60-year-old female who has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. After a 3-month trial of improving diet and increasing exercise, her blood pressure is still elevated at 160/100 mmHg. Her doctor decides to start her on enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, to treat her hypertension.

      At what location in the body is enalapril activated to its pharmacologically active compound?

      Your Answer: At site of therapeutic target tissues/cells

      Correct Answer: Under phase 1 metabolism in the liver

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors are prodrugs that require activation through phase 1 metabolism in the liver, except for captopril and lisinopril which are administered as active drugs. The hepatic esterolysis process converts ACE inhibitors into their active metabolite, allowing them to function as subtype 1B prodrugs. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors are not activated at the site of therapeutic action, and belong to subtype 1A and 2C prodrugs that are activated intracellularly or extracellularly at the therapeutic site, respectively. Answer 3 is a distractor, as ACE inhibitors do not activate ACE in the lung, but rather inhibit its activity. Answer 5 is also incorrect, as most ACE inhibitors require activation through metabolism.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man presents for a coronary angiogram due to worsening symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for a coronary angiogram due to worsening symptoms of unstable angina. The cardiologist observes multiple significant coronary stenoses, which are likely related to the patient's numerous risk factors, including hypertension, heavy smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. What is the ultimate step in the development of this pathology?

      Your Answer: Leukocyte recruitment

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      69.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with increasing dyspnea on exertion...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with increasing dyspnea on exertion and swelling in both legs. A recent outpatient echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 31%. During chest examination, an extra heart sound is detected just prior to the first.

      What is the cause of this additional heart sound?

      Your Answer: Retrograde flow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium

      Correct Answer: Atria contracting forcefully to overcome an abnormally stiff ventricle

      Explanation:

      The presence of S4, which sounds like a ‘gallop rhythm’, can be heard after S2 and in conjunction with a third heart sound. However, if the ventricles are contracting against a stiffened aorta, it would not produce a significant heart sound during this phase of the cardiac cycle. Any sound that may be heard in this scenario would occur between the first and second heart sounds during systole, and it would also cause a raised pulse pressure and be visible on chest X-ray as calcification. Delayed closure of the aortic valve could cause a split second heart sound, but it would appear around the time of S2, not before S1. On the other hand, retrograde flow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium, known as tricuspid regurgitation, would cause a systolic murmur instead of an additional isolated heart sound. This condition is often caused by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users or a history of rheumatic fever.

      Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      161.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old man presents with progressive shortness of breath, easy fatigue, and ankle...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with progressive shortness of breath, easy fatigue, and ankle swelling over the past few weeks. He has a significant smoking history of 50 pack-years. Physical examination reveals bibasilar crackles, and echocardiography shows no valvular disease and a non-dilated left ventricle with an ejection fraction of 55%. What is the most likely cause of the patient's current condition?

      Your Answer: Right-to-left intracardiac shunting

      Correct Answer: Increased left ventricular afterload

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is increased left ventricular afterload. HFpEF, which is characterized by diastolic dysfunction, often develops due to prolonged systemic hypertension, leading to increased afterload on the left ventricle.

      Glomerular hyper-filtration is not the correct answer as heart failure leads to decreased renal perfusion pressure and glomerular hypo-filtration.

      Increased left ventricular compliance is also not the correct answer as diastolic dysfunction involves a decrease in LV compliance. LV compliance may increase with eccentric hypertrophy, which occurs in response to left ventricular volume overload.

      Left ventricular thrombus formation is not typically associated with diastolic dysfunction and HFpEF. It typically results from localized stagnation of blood, which can occur with a left ventricular aneurysm or in the setting of a severely dilated left ventricle cavity with systolic dysfunction.

      Types of Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a clinical syndrome where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic needs. It can be classified in multiple ways, including by ejection fraction, time, and left/right side. Patients with heart failure may have a normal or abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), which is measured using echocardiography. Reduced LVEF is typically defined as < 35 to 40% and is termed heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HF-rEF), while preserved LVEF is termed heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). Heart failure can also be described as acute or chronic, with acute heart failure referring to an acute exacerbation of chronic heart failure. Left-sided heart failure is more common and may be due to increased left ventricular afterload or preload, while right-sided heart failure is caused by increased right ventricular afterload or preload. High-output heart failure is another type of heart failure that occurs when a normal heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. By classifying heart failure in these ways, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying causes and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It is important to note that many guidelines for the management of heart failure only cover HF-rEF patients and do not address the management of HF-pEF patients. Understanding the different types of heart failure can help healthcare professionals provide more effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      145.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral vascular disease presents with palpitations and syncope. His ECG reveals an irregularly irregular pulse of 124 beats/min. What factor in his medical history will be given the most consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Age

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct a CHA2DS2-VASc score assessment. This involves considering various factors, including age (which is weighted heaviest, with 2 points given for those aged 75 and over), hypertension (1 point), and congestive heart disease (1 point). Palpitations, however, are not included in the CHA2DS2-VASc tool.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      100.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A newborn male delivered at 38 weeks gestation presents with severe cyanosis within...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn male delivered at 38 weeks gestation presents with severe cyanosis within the first hour of life. He experiences worsening respiratory distress and is unable to feed properly. The infant is immediately transferred to the neonatal intensive care unit for supportive care. The mother did not receive any prenatal care and the baby was delivered via an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery.

      During physical examination, the neonate appears lethargic and cyanotic. His vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 60/min, oxygen saturation 82% (on 65% oxygen), heart rate 155/min, blood pressure 98/68 mmHg. Cardiac auscultation reveals a loud S2 heart sound.

      A chest x-ray shows an 'eggs on a string' appearance of the cardiac silhouette. An electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates right ventricular dominance. Further diagnostic testing with echocardiography confirms a congenital heart defect.

      What is the most likely embryological pathology underlying this neonate's congenital heart defect?

      Your Answer: Aortic narrowing near insertion of ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

      Explanation:

      Transposition of great vessels is caused by the failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral during early life, resulting in a cyanotic heart disease. The classic X-ray description and clinical findings support this diagnosis. Other cyanotic heart defects, such as tricuspid atresia and Tetralogy of Fallot, have different clinical features and X-ray findings. Non-cyanotic heart defects, such as atrial septal defect, have a defect in the interatrial septum. Aortic coarctation is characterized by a narrowing near the insertion of ductus arteriosus.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in cyanosis. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Infants born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance. To manage TGA, prostaglandins can be used to maintain the ductus arteriosus. However, surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      60.9
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of numbness in his right arm and leg. Upon examination, he displays reduced sensation and 3 out of 5 power in his right arm and leg. A head CT scan reveals ischaemia in the region of the left middle cerebral artery. Following initial treatment, he is considered unsuitable for clopidogrel and is instead given aspirin and other antiplatelet drug that functions by inhibiting phosphodiesterase.

      What is the name of the additional antiplatelet medication that this patient is likely to have been prescribed alongside aspirin?

      Your Answer: Heparin

      Correct Answer: Dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole is a medication that inhibits phosphodiesterase non-specifically and reduces the uptake of adenosine by cells. The symptoms and CT scan results of this patient suggest that they have experienced a stroke on the left side due to ischemia. According to the NICE 2010 guidelines, after confirming that the stroke is not hemorrhagic and providing initial treatment, patients are advised to take either clopidogrel or a combination of aspirin and dipyridamole, which acts as a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Heparins function by activating antithrombin III.

      Ticagrelor and prasugrel act as antagonists of the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Dipyridamole

      Dipyridamole is a medication that is commonly used in combination with aspirin to prevent the formation of blood clots after a stroke or transient ischemic attack. The drug works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which leads to an increase in the levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in platelets. This, in turn, reduces the levels of intracellular calcium, which is necessary for platelet activation and aggregation.

      Apart from its antiplatelet effects, dipyridamole also reduces the cellular uptake of adenosine, a molecule that plays a crucial role in regulating blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. By inhibiting the uptake of adenosine, dipyridamole can increase its levels in the bloodstream, leading to vasodilation and improved blood flow.

      Another mechanism of action of dipyridamole is the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, an enzyme that is involved in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet activator. By blocking this enzyme, dipyridamole can further reduce platelet activation and aggregation, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots.

      In summary, dipyridamole exerts its antiplatelet effects through multiple mechanisms, including the inhibition of phosphodiesterase, the reduction of intracellular calcium levels, the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, and the modulation of adenosine uptake. These actions make it a valuable medication for preventing thrombotic events in patients with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the past few weeks. He reports experiencing heavy night sweats, fatigue, and shortness of breath. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of intravenous drug use for many years and has been using methadone exclusively for the last 2 months. During the physical examination, the GP observes splinter haemorrhages. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of infective endocarditis and has a past of using intravenous drugs. Infective endocarditis can be caused by various factors, but in developed countries, S. aureus is the most prevalent cause. This is especially true for individuals who use intravenous drugs, as in this case.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      55.1
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  • Question 23 - Sarah is a 52-year-old patient with hypertension. Her blood pressure remains high despite...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 52-year-old patient with hypertension. Her blood pressure remains high despite taking ramipril therefore add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic is being considered.

      What is a contraindication to starting this therapy?

      Your Answer: Afro-Caribbean family origin

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      81.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started 3 weeks ago and is localised to the back of the head. He rates it 8/10 on a pain scale and reports that it has gradually become worse. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.

      Unfortunately, the patient passes away after suffering a brainstem stroke.

      During the autopsy, a vertebral artery dissection is discovered at the point of entry into the cranial cavity.

      Where is this location?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity.

      Other foramina and their corresponding arteries include the stylomastoid foramen for the posterior auricular artery (stylomastoid branch), the foramen ovale for the accessory meningeal artery, and the foramen spinosum for the middle meningeal artery.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      106.1
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  • Question 25 - You are shadowing a cardiologist during a clinic session and the first patient...

    Correct

    • You are shadowing a cardiologist during a clinic session and the first patient is an 80-year-old man who has come for his annual check-up. He reports experiencing swollen ankles, increased shortness of breath, and difficulty sleeping flat. He has a history of heart failure but has been stable for the past 10 years. He believes that his condition has worsened since starting a new medication, but he cannot recall the name of the drug. Unfortunately, the electronic medical records are down, and you cannot access his medication history. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hydralazine

      Explanation:

      Hydralazine is unique among these drugs as it has been known to cause fluid retention by elevating the plasma concentration of renin. Conversely, the other drugs listed are recognized for their ability to reduce fluid overload and promote fluid elimination.

      Hydralazine: An Antihypertensive with Limited Use

      Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that is not commonly used nowadays. It is still prescribed for severe hypertension and hypertension in pregnancy. The drug works by increasing cGMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. However, there are certain contraindications to its use, such as systemic lupus erythematosus and ischaemic heart disease/cerebrovascular disease.

      Despite its potential benefits, hydralazine can cause adverse effects such as tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, fluid retention, headache, and drug-induced lupus. Therefore, it is not the first choice for treating hypertension in most cases. Overall, hydralazine is an older medication that has limited use due to its potential side effects and newer, more effective antihypertensive options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of the following types of beta-blocker is the most lipid soluble?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following types of beta-blocker is the most lipid soluble?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Sleep disturbance is a common side-effect associated with lipid-soluble substances.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit after being hospitalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit after being hospitalized three weeks ago for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He reports chest pain again and is concerned it may be another infarction. The pain is described as sharp and worsens with breathing. The cardiology resident notes a fever and hears a rubbing sound and pansystolic murmur on auscultation, which were previously present. A 12-lead ECG shows no new ischemic changes. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and heavy smoking since his teenage years. What is the most likely cause of his current condition?

      Your Answer: Myocardial necrosis

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune-mediated

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s syndrome is an autoimmune-mediated pericarditis that occurs 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI). This patient, who has been admitted to the coronary care unit following an MI, is experiencing chest pain that is pleuritic in nature, along with fever and a friction rub sound upon examination. Given the timing of the symptoms at three weeks post-MI, Dressler’s syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. This condition results from an autoimmune-mediated inflammatory reaction to antigens following an MI, leading to inflammation of the pericardial sac and pericardial effusion. If left untreated, it can increase the risk of ventricular rupture. Treatment typically involves high-dose aspirin and corticosteroids if necessary.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which one of the following is not a branch of the subclavian artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a branch of the subclavian artery?

      Your Answer: Internal thoracic artery

      Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The branches of the subclavian artery can be remembered using the mnemonic VIT C & D, which stands for Vertebral artery, Internal thoracic, Thyrocervical trunk, Costalcervical trunk, and Dorsal scapular. It is important to note that the Superior thyroid artery is actually a branch of the external carotid artery.

      The Subclavian Artery: Origin, Path, and Branches

      The subclavian artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. It has two branches, the left and right subclavian arteries, which arise from different sources. The left subclavian artery originates directly from the arch of the aorta, while the right subclavian artery arises from the brachiocephalic artery (trunk) when it bifurcates into the subclavian and the right common carotid artery.

      From its origin, the subclavian artery travels laterally, passing between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, deep to scalenus anterior and anterior to scalenus medius. As it crosses the lateral border of the first rib, it becomes the axillary artery and is superficial within the subclavian triangle.

      The subclavian artery has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. These branches include the vertebral artery, which supplies blood to the brain and spinal cord, the internal thoracic artery, which supplies blood to the chest wall and breast tissue, the thyrocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the thyroid gland and neck muscles, the costocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the neck and upper back muscles, and the dorsal scapular artery, which supplies blood to the muscles of the shoulder blade.

      In summary, the subclavian artery is an important blood vessel that plays a crucial role in supplying blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. Its branches provide blood to various parts of the body, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      50.8
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  • Question 29 - A 57-year-old Asian man arrived at the emergency department with complaints of chest...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old Asian man arrived at the emergency department with complaints of chest pain. After initial investigations, he was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. The patient was prescribed dual antiplatelet therapy, consisting of aspirin and ticagrelor, along with subcutaneous fondaparinux. However, a few days after starting the treatment, he reported experiencing shortness of breath. What is the mechanism of action of the drug responsible for this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors

      Explanation:

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      119.2
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old woman who was discharged from the hospital 3 days ago presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman who was discharged from the hospital 3 days ago presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest tightness and severe shortness of breath. While being evaluated, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive and experiences cardiac arrest. Despite receiving appropriate life-saving measures, there is no return of spontaneous circulation and the patient is declared dead. Upon autopsy, a slit-like tear is discovered in the anterior wall of the left ventricle.

      What factors may have contributed to the cardiac finding observed in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Left Ventricular Free Wall Rupture Post-MI

      Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the weakened myocardial wall may be unable to contain high left ventricular (LV) pressures, leading to mechanical complications such as left ventricular free wall rupture. This occurs 3-14 days post-MI and is characterized by macrophages and granulation tissue at the margins. Patients are also at high risk of papillary muscle rupture and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm. The patient’s autopsy finding of a slit-like tear in the anterior LV wall is consistent with this complication.

      Coronary atherosclerosis is the most likely cause of the patient’s MI, as it is a common underlying condition. Prolonged alcohol consumption and recent viral infection can lead to dilated cardiomyopathy, while recurrent bacterial pharyngitis can cause inflammatory damage to both the myocardium and valvular endocardium. Repeated blood transfusion is not a known risk factor for left ventricular free wall rupture.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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