00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male in the postoperative ICU with a central line catheter is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male in the postoperative ICU with a central line catheter is experiencing intermittent fevers. What is the probable microorganism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

      Explanation:

      Coagulase-Negative Staphylococci: Commonly Isolated Bacteria in Clinical Microbiology Laboratories

      Coagulase-negative Staphylococci are frequently encountered in clinical microbiology laboratories. These bacteria, including Staphylococcus epidermidis, are susceptible to novobiocin and have become a significant cause of infection, especially in patients who are hospitalized and have foreign bodies implanted or those who have weakened immune systems.

      The prevalence of coagulase-negative Staphylococci in clinical settings highlights the importance of identifying and treating these bacteria promptly. With the rise of antibiotic resistance, it is crucial to monitor the susceptibility patterns of these organisms to ensure effective treatment. By the characteristics and potential risks associated with coagulase-negative Staphylococci, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage infections caused by these bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the correct information about Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about Entonox?

      Your Answer: Is a mixture of 50% nitric oxide and 50% oxygen

      Correct Answer: Is an effective short term analgesic

      Explanation:

      Entonox: A Mixture of Nitrous Oxide and Oxygen

      Entonox is a gas mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that is stored in cylinders. The cylinders have a French blue body with blue and white quarters at the top. It is important to note that if the gas mixture cools below its pseudocritical temperature of −6°C, the nitrous oxide and oxygen may separate out through a process called lamination. This can result in a potentially dangerous and hypoxic gas being administered.

      Despite being a flammable mixture, Entonox is not considered explosive. It is effective in providing short-term analgesia and is safe for both infants and mothers. The onset of action occurs approximately 30 seconds after inhalation, and the duration of action after analgesia is approximately one minute.

      It is important to distinguish nitrous oxide (N2O) from nitric oxide (NO) as they are not the same. Overall, Entonox is a useful gas mixture for providing short-term pain relief, but it must be stored and administered properly to avoid any potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are requested to evaluate a 22-year-old man who had undergone an incision...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 22-year-old man who had undergone an incision and drainage procedure for pilonidal abscess. The nursing staff is worried about his unusual behavior. He has admitted to social cannabis use in the past.

      Upon arrival, you observe that he is forcefully sticking out his tongue and bending his neck to the left and right. His eyes are looking upwards, and his pupils are dilated. His blood glucose level is 5 mmol/L, and all routine observations are normal. He was given paracetamol and an anti-emetic ten minutes ago.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: N-acetyl-cysteine

      Correct Answer: Intravenous procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Oculogyric Crisis

      Oculogyric crisis is a type of acute dystonic reaction that is commonly associated with the use of neuroleptics and anti-emetic medications like metoclopramide. Unfortunately, the clinical spectrum of this condition is not well understood, which often leads to misdiagnosis as a psychogenic disorder. Symptoms of oculogyric crisis can occur suddenly or over several hours and may include restlessness, agitation, malaise, and a fixed stare. The most characteristic symptom is the upward deviation of the eyes, which may be sustained or accompanied by other eye movements like convergence or lateral deviation. Other associated symptoms may include neck flexion, mouth opening, tongue protrusion, and ocular pain. Fortunately, the symptoms of oculogyric crisis can be rapidly resolved with the use of medications like procyclidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old woman who underwent a left mastectomy...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old woman who underwent a left mastectomy yesterday to treat breast cancer. Her potassium level is low at 3.1 mmol/L (normal range is 3.5-4.9), but she is asymptomatic and currently having her lunch. She has a history of hypertension and takes a thiazide diuretic regularly. What would be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe intravenous fluids with 40 mmol of KCl per litre

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Mild Hypokalaemia

      Mild hypokalaemia can be treated with oral supplementation. If a patient is able to eat, intravenous fluids are unnecessary. It is best to advise the patient to take oral supplements for a few days. Foods such as tomatoes and bananas contain high levels of potassium and could be offered as well. However, it is important to note that the maximum concentration of potassium that can be given via a peripheral line is 40 mmol/L. It is also important to avoid loop diuretics as they can make the patient’s potassium levels even lower. As long as the patient is asymptomatic and able to eat, mild hypokalaemia can be easily treated with oral supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old girl is scheduled for an elective tonsillectomy. Your consultant has requested...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is scheduled for an elective tonsillectomy. Your consultant has requested that you prepare all the airway equipment. What size of endotracheal tube (ETT) do you anticipate she will require?

      Your Answer: 5.5 cuffed ETT

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Correct Endotracheal Tube Size for an 8-Year-Old Child

      When it comes to intubating an 8-year-old child, choosing the correct endotracheal tube (ETT) size is crucial. Cuffed ETTs are now considered safe for use in children, but not in neonates. To calculate the appropriate size of a cuffed ETT, use the formula (Child’s age/4) + 3.5. For an 8-year-old child, the correct size of a cuffed ETT would be 5.5 mm. If an uncuffed tube is preferred, use the formula (Child’s age/4) + 4 to calculate the tube size, which would be 6.0 mm for an 8-year-old child. It is important to note that using a cuffed tube offers more protection from aspiration. Avoid using a 4.5 mm cuffed ETT, as it is too small for an 8-year-old child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a prolonged recovery in the cardiac intensive care unit. To aid in her management, a pulmonary artery catheter is inserted.
      What is one of the calculated measurements provided by the pulmonary artery catheter?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Measuring Cardiac Output and Pressures with a Pulmonary Artery Catheter

      A pulmonary artery catheter can provide direct and derived measurements for assessing cardiac function. Direct measurements include right atrial pressure, right ventricular pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary artery wedge pressure, core temperature, and mixed venous saturation. The catheter can also be used to calculate cardiac output using the method of thermodilution. This involves a proximal port with a heater and a distal thermistor that senses changes in temperature.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is a direct measurement that can be obtained with the catheter, reflecting left atrial filling. However, it may not always accurately reflect the pressure in the left atrium due to various factors. Right ventricular pressure is another direct measurement that can be obtained.

      Central venous saturation is a direct measure in some machines with a built-in saturation measurement probe, while in others, samples can be taken via the distal port and measured using a gas machine. Overall, a pulmonary artery catheter can provide valuable information for monitoring cardiac output and pressures in critically ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are on call for the pediatric ward at night and are urgently...

    Correct

    • You are on call for the pediatric ward at night and are urgently called to a child who is choking on a piece of hot dog visible in their oropharynx. The child is in extremis with saturations of 87% and there is no effective cough.

      What is the most appropriate immediate management for this pediatric patient?

      Your Answer: Back blows

      Explanation:

      Resuscitation Council (UK) Recommendations for Choking Emergencies

      When faced with a choking emergency, the Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a specific course of action. If the patient is able to cough effectively, encourage them to do so. If not, but they are conscious, try five back blows followed by five abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoeuvre) and repeat if necessary. However, if the patient becomes unconscious, begin CPR immediately. It is important to note that a finger sweep is no longer recommended as it can push the obstruction further into the airway. Additionally, high flow oxygen is necessary for breathing, but nasopharyngeal airways will not help in this situation. Removal with forceps is also not recommended as it can be hazardous. If the Heimlich manoeuvre fails, a cricothyroidotomy should be considered. While this procedure is recommended in the US and UK, it is not encouraged in some countries like Australia due to the risk of internal injury from over-vigorous use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope...

    Incorrect

    • To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope be inserted?

      Your Answer: Posterior to the epiglottis

      Correct Answer: Into the vallecula

      Explanation:

      Macintosh Laryngoscope: A Tool for Visualizing the Vocal Cords

      The Macintosh laryngoscope is a medical instrument designed to aid in the visualization of the vocal cords. Its curved blade is specifically shaped to fit into the oral and oropharyngeal cavity. To use it, the blade is inserted through the right side of the mouth and gradually advanced, pushing the tongue to the left and out of view. The blade has a small bulbous tip that is intended to sit in the vallecula, a small depression between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.

      By lifting the laryngoscope up and forwards, the larynx is elevated, allowing for a clear view of the vocal cords. This tool is commonly used in medical settings, such as during intubation procedures or when examining the airway. Its design allows for a safe and effective way to visualize the vocal cords, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old cyclist, who was in a car accident, needs to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old cyclist, who was in a car accident, needs to have a central venous line (CVL) inserted. Which of the following statements is the most precise?

      Your Answer: A CVL cannot be used for parenteral feeding

      Correct Answer: CVL placement is required for the administration of adrenaline infusion

      Explanation:

      Central Venous Lines: Placement, Uses, and Complications

      Central venous lines (CVLs) are commonly used in medical settings for various purposes, including the administration of inotropes such as adrenaline, parenteral nutrition, blood products, fluids, and measurement of central venous pressures. However, the use of CVLs is not without risks and complications, which include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax.

      When it comes to the placement of CVLs, the site of choice is the subclavian vein, although the complication risk is higher. Femoral lines are more susceptible to infection due to the flora within the groin area. Consideration of the age of all lines should be made on daily review within the Intensive Care Unit/High Dependency Unit environment, as routine replacement of a CVL every fortnight is uncommon.

      Lastly, a check radiograph for placement is recommended on insertion of both subclavian and internal jugular lines to confirm correct placement within the superior vena cava and to exclude a procedural pneumothorax. However, this does not need to be repeated on removal, as there are no needles or incisions involved in the removal of the line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
      Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload

      When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.

      However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.

      Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.

      It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      108.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthetics & ITU (4/10) 40%
Passmed