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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man presents to you with complaints of numbness and pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to you with complaints of numbness and pain in his hands and feet since this morning. He had visited for gastroenteritis 3 weeks ago. On examination, he has a bilateral reduction in power of 3/5 in his upper and lower limbs. His speech is normal, and he has no other medical conditions. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient ischaemic attack

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, leading to demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection and presents with rapidly advancing ascending motor neuropathy. Proximal muscles are more affected than distal muscles.

      A stroke or transient ischaemic attack usually has a sudden onset and causes unilateral symptoms such as facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech.

      Raynaud’s disease causes numbness and pain in the fingers and toes, typically in response to cold weather or stress.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.3
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  • Question 2 - During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a...

    Incorrect

    • During a carotid endarterectomy, if the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped without a shunt, which vessels will not experience reduced or absent flow?

      Assuming that no shunt is inserted, which vessels will not have diminished or absent flow as a result during a carotid endarterectomy where the internal carotid artery is cross-clamped?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery gives rise to the maxillary artery.

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements relating to cerebrospinal fluid is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to cerebrospinal fluid is false?

      Your Answer: The cerebral aqueduct connects the third and fourth ventricles

      Correct Answer: The choroid plexus is only present in the lateral ventricles

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus is present in every ventricle.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department via ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department via ambulance after being discovered unconscious in a nearby park, with a heroin-filled needle found nearby.

      During the examination, the patient's heart rate is recorded at 44/min, BP at 110/60 mmHg, and respiratory rate at 10. Upon checking her pupils, they are observed to be pinpoint.

      Which three G protein-coupled receptors are affected by the drug responsible for this?

      Your Answer: GABA-A, delta and mu

      Correct Answer: Delta, mu and kappa

      Explanation:

      The three clinically relevant opioid receptors in the body are delta, mu, and kappa. These receptors are all G protein-coupled receptors and are responsible for the pharmacological actions of opioids. Based on the examination findings of bradycardia, bradypnoea, and pinpoint pupils, it is likely that the woman has experienced an opioid overdose. The answer GABA-A, delta and mu is not appropriate as the GABA-A receptor is a ligand-gated ion channel receptor for the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. Similarly, GABA-A, kappa and mu is not appropriate for the same reason. GABA-B, D-2 and kappa is also not appropriate as the GABA-B receptor is a G-protein-coupled receptor for the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA, and the D-2 receptor is a G protein-coupled receptor for dopamine.

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman is recuperating after a challenging mastectomy and axillary lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is recuperating after a challenging mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for breast cancer. She reports experiencing shoulder discomfort, and upon examination, her scapula is visibly winged. Which of the following is the most probable root cause of the loss of innervation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Winging of the scapula is usually caused by long thoracic nerve injury, which may occur during axillary dissection. Rhomboid damage is a rare cause.

      The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging

      The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.

      One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.

      Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 73-year-old female is seen by an ophthalmologist for a follow-up after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old female is seen by an ophthalmologist for a follow-up after being diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. The patient is asymptomatic and has 20/20 vision with glasses. During the examination, it is noted that the patient's intraocular pressure remains significantly elevated despite consistent use of a prostaglandin analogue. The decision is made to initiate treatment with timolol eye drops.

      What is the main mode of action of timolol eye drops?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta-blocker, is commonly used as a second-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma. It works by reducing the production of aqueous humor, which in turn lowers intraocular pressure. Mitotic agents like pilocarpine can cause pupil constriction and may be used in acute closed-angle glaucoma to increase space for aqueous drainage. However, this mechanism is not routinely used in open-angle glaucoma. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide can also reduce aqueous production but are taken orally and can cause systemic side effects. Increasing trabecular meshwork drainage is a mechanism used by drugs like pilocarpine, while increasing uveoscleral drainage is achieved by drugs like latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due to an industrial accident he had in his thirties. The WHO defines chronic pain as pain that persists for how long?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Chronic pain is defined by the WHO as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 weeks, and all other options are incorrect.

      Guidelines for Managing Chronic Pain

      Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks and can include conditions such as musculoskeletal pain, neuropathic pain, vascular insufficiency, and degenerative disorders. In 2013, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines for the management of chronic, non-cancer related pain.

      Non-pharmacological interventions are recommended by SIGN, including self-management information, exercise, manual therapy, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). Exercise has been shown to be effective in improving chronic pain, and specific support such as referral to an exercise program is recommended. Manual therapy is particularly effective for spinal pain, while TENS can also be helpful.

      Pharmacological interventions may be necessary, but if medications are not effective after 2-4 weeks, they are unlikely to be effective. For neuropathic pain, SIGN recommends gabapentin or amitriptyline as first-line treatments. NICE also recommends pregabalin or duloxetine as first-line treatments. For fibromyalgia, duloxetine or fluoxetine are recommended.

      If patients are using more than 180 mg/day morphine equivalent, experiencing significant distress, or rapidly escalating their dose without pain relief, SIGN recommends referring them to specialist pain management services.

      Overall, the management of chronic pain requires a comprehensive approach that includes both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions, as well as referral to specialist services when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - A 39-year-old male patient is presented to the neurology outpatient department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male patient is presented to the neurology outpatient department by his GP due to recurring episodes of déjà vu. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, the patient suddenly starts smacking his lips for about a minute. After the event, he experiences temporary difficulty in expressing himself fluently, which resolves on its own.

      Based on the symptoms, which area of the brain is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Temporal lobe seizures can be identified by the presence of lip smacking and postictal dysphasia. These symptoms, along with a recurrent sense of déjà vu, suggest that the seizure is localized in the temporal lobe. Seizures in other parts of the brain, such as the frontal, occipital, or parietal lobes, typically present with different symptoms. Generalized seizures affecting the entire brain result in loss of consciousness and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - At which of the following vertebral body levels does the common carotid artery...

    Incorrect

    • At which of the following vertebral body levels does the common carotid artery usually divide into the external and internal carotid arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      It ends at the top edge of the thyroid cartilage, typically situated at the fourth cervical vertebrae (C4).

      The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.

      The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.

      Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after being stabbed in...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after being stabbed in the back. The knife has penetrated his spinal column at a perpendicular angle, causing damage to the termination of his spinal cord.

      Which spinal level has been affected by the knife's penetration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      In adults, the level of L1 is where the spinal cord usually ends.

      Lumbar Puncture Procedure

      Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s terminates at L1.

      During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.

      Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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