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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old homeless patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old homeless patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a prolonged illness characterized by fevers and chills, and now a rash has developed. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.5 oC, splinter hemorrhages on their nails, and a widespread purplish rash. The patient has injection sites on both forearms and has attempted to inject into their femoral vein. The following laboratory results were obtained: Hb 110 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l), WCC 13.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l), PLT 30 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l), Na+ 138 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), K+ 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), Cr 160 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l), and ESR 80 mm/hour (normal range: 1-20 mm/hour). Blood cultures have not shown any growth yet, and the urine test is positive for blood. A chest X-ray reveals cavitating lesions in both lower lobes. What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

      Your Answer: Trans-thoracic echocardiogram

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Infective Endocarditis in a Patient with Substance Abuse

      The clinical scenario presented is suggestive of infective endocarditis, likely caused by Staphylococcus aureus due to the patient’s history of injectable drug use and cavitating lesions on chest X-ray. The Duke criteria for diagnosis of endocarditis require echocardiographic evidence of endocardial involvement, which can be obtained through a trans-thoracic echocardiogram. Further blood cultures are unnecessary as sufficient cultures have already been taken. A CT thorax may provide additional information on the nature of the cavitations, but is not necessary for the underlying diagnosis. Urine cultures may be appropriate if further investigations for endocarditis are negative, but initial imaging of the heart is required. ANA testing is important in considering a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus, but given the patient’s history of substance abuse, infective endocarditis is a more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      62.9
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man with HIV disease visits the clinic after eight weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with HIV disease visits the clinic after eight weeks of starting highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He had been in good health before starting the treatment, but now he complains of feeling tired and weak. His HAART regimen includes two nucleoside analogues (zidovudine [AZT] and lamivudine [3TC]) and a protease inhibitor (nelfinavir). Additionally, he takes co-trimoxazole to prevent Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.

      The patient's haemoglobin levels were 125 g/L before starting the treatment and have dropped to 81 g/L after eight weeks. The normal range for haemoglobin is 130-180 g/L. His MCV levels were 96 fL before treatment and have increased to 101 fL after eight weeks.

      What is the most likely reason for his anaemia?

      Your Answer: Formation of anti-erythrocyte antibodies

      Correct Answer: Reduced formation of erythrocytes

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Antiretroviral Therapy on HIV Patients

      Antiretroviral therapies are commonly used to treat HIV-positive patients, but they can also cause adverse effects. One of the most frequent side effects is anaemia, which is often caused by zidovudine (AZT). This drug can suppress bone marrow function, leading to severe cases of anaemia that may require blood transfusions. In addition to anaemia, AZT can also cause myalgia, myopathy, myositis, pancytopenia, and lactic acidosis. Although rare, blue discolouration of the nails has also been reported as a side effect of AZT.

      Macrocytosis, or the presence of abnormally large red blood cells, is a common finding in patients taking AZT. This can be used as a parameter to monitor adherence to therapy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to monitor patients closely for any signs of anaemia or other complications. By doing so, they can provide appropriate treatment and support to help patients manage their HIV infection and maintain their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      82.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent oral candida infections for the past...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent oral candida infections for the past year. She has no significant medical history. HIV antibody and polymerase chain reaction tests are negative.
      Her biochemical profile shows normal results for oral glucose tolerance test, urea and electrolytes, and TSH.
      Her bone profile results are as follows:
      Corrected Calcium (Ca2+) 2.02 mmol/l 2.2 - 2.7 mmol/l
      Phosphate (PO43-) 1.60 mmol/l 1.1 - 1.45 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 1.2 pmol/l 1.5 - 7.6 pmol/l
      Vitamin D 20 nmol/l < 25 nmol/l
      What is the most likely underlying condition causing her recurrent oral candida infections?

      Your Answer: Type 1 polyglandular autoimmune syndrome

      Explanation:

      Type 1 polyglandular autoimmune syndrome is characterized by mucocutaneous candidiasis, chronic hypoparathyroidism, and autoimmune hypoadrenalism. These symptoms tend to appear in a specific order, with candidiasis first, followed by hypoparathyroidism, and then adrenal insufficiency. Other autoimmune conditions such as type 1 diabetes, pernicious anemia, hypothyroidism, and vitiligo may also be present. Treatment involves antifungals, vitamin D, calcium, and glucocorticoid replacement.

      Type 2 polyglandular syndrome involves autoimmune hypoadrenalism along with thyroid autoimmune disease or type 1 diabetes mellitus. Other conditions such as primary hypogonadism, myasthenia gravis, and coeliac disease may also be present.

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by low vitamin D, hypocalcemia, and high PTH levels. Primary hyperparathyroidism, on the other hand, presents with hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and normal or high parathyroid hormone levels.

      Hyperthyroidism may also cause mild hypercalcemia, but the patient in this case has a normal TSH level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman with excessive hair growth and obesity presents to the Endocrinology...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with excessive hair growth and obesity presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with a prolactin level of 900 mU/l (normal range: 90–520 mU/l) and absence of menstrual periods for the past four months. On examination, her BP is 130/85 mmHg, pulse is 72 bpm and regular, and BMI is 35 kg/m2. What is the most crucial next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Serum FSH and LH levels

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy testing

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with hyperprolactinemia, the first step is to rule out pregnancy as it is the most common cause. Symptoms such as obesity and hirsutism may not necessarily indicate an underlying condition. A normal prolactin level is less than 450 mU/l, but during pregnancy, it can increase up to tenfold. A prolactin level greater than 3000 mU/l may suggest a tumor, but dopamine antagonist treatment can also elevate prolactin levels to 900-3600 mU/l. In this case, since the patient’s amenorrhea is recent, pregnancy is more likely than polycystic ovarian syndrome or congenital adrenal hyperplasia. A pituitary MRI may be necessary if a tumor is suspected, but the patient’s prolactin level is not significantly elevated. The LH:FSH ratio is useful in evaluating polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it is unlikely in this case. First-line therapy for prolactinoma is dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine or cabergoline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      20
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  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old male presents with worsening exertional angina over the past year. He...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male presents with worsening exertional angina over the past year. He can now only walk about 200 meters on flat ground before experiencing chest pain that is relieved by rest. He has a history of a left eye cataract and is a non-smoker who drinks alcohol in moderation. His sister has a cataract and her son is being investigated for a kidney problem. On examination, he appears clinically euthyroid with a regular pulse of 66 bpm and blood pressure of 134/82 mmHg. There are a few small scaly purple lesions on his trunk, but otherwise, his cardiovascular and respiratory exams are normal. His investigations reveal mild renal impairment, mild hyperglycemia, and minor plaque disease in his coronary arteries. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fabry disease

      Explanation:

      Fabry Disease and Alstrom Syndrome

      Fabry disease is a genetic condition caused by a deficiency of the enzyme alpha-galactosidase A, resulting in the accumulation of a glycolipid in the endothelium. This leads to various abnormalities in the skin, eyes, kidneys, and neurological systems. The responsible gene is located on the X chromosome, making it an X-linked recessive disorder. Female carriers may exhibit mild to moderate symptoms due to variable expression caused by random X inactivation during embryogenesis. The disorder has three clinical entities, including classical presentation in male homozygotes during childhood, atypical presentation in male homozygotes during adulthood, and mild symptoms in female heterozygotes during adulthood. Diagnosis is confirmed by demonstrating deficient levels of alpha-galactosidase A in leucocytes, plasma, or cultured fibroblasts.

      Alstrom syndrome, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by obesity, sensorineural deafness, cone-rod dystrophy, and hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism. Unlike Fabry disease, it is not an X-linked disorder and affects both males and females equally. The condition is caused by mutations in the ALMS1 gene, which is responsible for encoding a protein involved in the development and function of various organs and tissues. The diagnosis of Alstrom syndrome is based on clinical features and genetic testing.

      In summary, Fabry disease and Alstrom syndrome are two genetic disorders that affect various organs and systems in the body. While Fabry disease is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males, Alstrom syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects both males and females equally. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in both conditions to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      159.2
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  • Question 6 - A 50 year old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward for detoxification...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man is admitted to the gastroenterology ward for detoxification from excessive alcohol consumption. He has a history of alcohol dependence syndrome but no other medical conditions or known diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis. During examination, he presents with a distended abdomen and evidence of shifting dullness and a succussion splash. The radiologist marks an appropriate site for an ascitic tap in the left iliac fossa after an ultrasound of his abdomen. However, before proceeding with the tap, what is the necessary step to take?

      The patient's blood results show low hemoglobin levels (83 g/l), low platelet count (56 * 109/l), and low white blood cell count (3.5 * 109/l). His electrolyte levels are also imbalanced with low sodium (128 mmol/l) and low potassium (3.2 mmol/l). His liver function tests indicate elevated bilirubin levels (35 µmol/l) and alkaline phosphatase (145 u/l), but normal alanine transaminase (24 u/l). His albumin levels are low (32 g/l), and his coagulation profile shows an elevated INR (1.8) and normal APTT (55 s) and fibrinogen levels (1.3 g/L).

      Your Answer: FFP till fibrinogen >1.5

      Correct Answer: Nothing - the parameters are adequate

      Explanation:

      Having an abnormal coagulation profile does not prohibit the use of paracentesis in patients. Most patients with ascites caused by cirrhosis experience a prolonged prothrombin time and some level of thrombocytopenia. There is no evidence to suggest the need for fresh frozen plasma prior to paracentesis, but if thrombocytopenia is severe (less than 40 * 109/l), many healthcare providers would administer pooled platelets to decrease the risk of bleeding.

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old woman is brought to the hospital after being found on the...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman is brought to the hospital after being found on the street with hypothermia. Upon admission, her blood ethanol level is measured at 2.4 g/l. Despite her body temperature being corrected, she continues to display intermittent confusion, indifference, and inattentiveness 24 hours later. She has no significant medical history. Her vital signs are stable with a pulse of 72 beats per minute, blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, and temperature of 37.0ºC. On examination, she appears disheveled and underweight with poor dental hygiene. Her eye movements are abnormal with horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze in both directions, and she has a slow, wide-based gait. She has also experienced urinary incontinence during her admission. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Related Conditions

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition caused by a lack of thiamine in the body, often due to chronic alcohol consumption or malnutrition. The classic triad of symptoms includes encephalopathy, ataxia, and oculomotor dysfunction such as nystagmus or gaze palsies. Normal pressure hydrocephalus, on the other hand, is a reversible cause of dementia that presents with cognitive decline, ataxic gait, and urinary incontinence, but without clouding of consciousness or nystagmus. Korsakoff’s psychosis is a chronic condition resulting from untreated thiamine deficiency, characterized by both anterograde and retrograde amnesia with confabulation. Alcohol withdrawal may involve some similar symptoms, but is typically marked by psychomotor agitation and sympathetic symptoms. In a patient with nystagmus and ataxia, a subdural hematoma should be ruled out, but Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a more likely diagnosis.

      Overall, these conditions highlight the importance of proper nutrition and thiamine intake, particularly in those with a history of alcohol abuse or malnutrition. Early recognition and treatment can prevent irreversible damage and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female patient, who has a history of schizophrenia, presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient, who has a history of schizophrenia, presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of nausea and lethargy. Upon examination, the patient appears to be clinically euvolaemic with a Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) of 14. No focal neurological signs are observed. The patient's serum sodium concentration is found to be 114 mmol/L, and there is no history of seizure activity. What is the most suitable course of action to correct the patient's abnormal biochemistry?

      Your Answer: 3% N. saline infusion

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion

      The most likely diagnosis for a patient with low sodium levels is a syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion. This condition is often caused by psychiatric medications, particularly antipsychotics like haloperidol, quetiapine, and clozapine. However, raising serum sodium levels too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis, so caution must be exercised. Fluid restriction is the first step in treatment, with ADH antagonists like tolvaptan and demeclocyline reserved for more severe cases.

      It is important to note that the patient has not experienced any seizures, but her low sodium levels still require attention. As the patient appears to have enough fluids in her body, administering saline is not the correct initial move. Instead, the problem is due to an excess of free body water, so the first step is to restrict fluid intake. By doing so, the patient’s sodium levels can be gradually increased without risking any further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old female patient complains of dry eyes, dry mouth, an erythematous rash,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient complains of dry eyes, dry mouth, an erythematous rash, and polyarthralgia. Upon investigation, the patient's anti-nuclear antibody is strongly positive (1:1600), anti-Ro/SSA antibodies are strongly positive, rheumatoid factor is positive, and IgG is 45 g/L (<15), while IgM and IgA are normal, and the kappa/lambda ratio is normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis with secondary Sjögren's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Primary Sjögren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serology and Clinical Features of Sjögren’s Syndrome

      Sjögren’s syndrome is a condition that affects the immune system and causes dryness in the eyes and mouth. There are two types of Sjögren’s syndrome: primary and secondary. Primary Sjögren’s syndrome occurs alone and is more likely to have positive anti Ro SSA antibodies than secondary Sjögren’s. The clinical features and serology are typical of primary Sjögren’s syndrome. Hypergammaglobulinaemia is present in 80% of individuals, and the normal kappa/lambda ratio confirms the hypergammaglobulinaemia is polyclonal. Autoantibodies include rheumatoid factors, antinuclear antibodies, and multiple organ-specific antibodies. Antibodies to Ro (SS-A) and La (SS-B) are also common. ANA and anti-Ro/SSA antibodies are present in approximately 90% of individuals, as is a weakly positive rheumatoid factor.

      On the other hand, secondary Sjögren’s syndrome typically has pre-existent rheumatoid or systemic lupus erythematosus before the development of Sjögren’s symptoms. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary Sjögren’s syndrome as the treatment and management may differ. Overall, the serology and clinical features of Sjögren’s syndrome can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) comes to the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) comes to the clinic for review. She is currently taking methotrexate and has quiescent disease, but is interested in starting a family.
      On examination, there is no evidence of active joint inflammation, and her ESR is 13 mm/1st h. Liver function tests are normal.
      What is the best course of action for managing her RA?

      Your Answer: Switch methotrexate to azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Safe Medication Options for Pregnant Women with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects many women of childbearing age. During pregnancy, approximately 50-70% of women with RA experience improvement in their symptoms. However, it is important to carefully consider medication options for pregnant women with RA to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

      One option is to switch from methotrexate to azathioprine, sulfasalazine, or hydroxychloroquine, which are relatively safe to use during pregnancy. However, it is important to note that these medications are not completely risk-free.

      Stopping methotrexate without a replacement agent is not advised, as it can result in a flare of RA. Continuing methotrexate at the same dose is contraindicated during pregnancy, as it can cause congenital anomalies and is an abortifacient. Halving the dose of methotrexate would not eliminate the risks to the fetus and may result in suboptimal RA control.

      Another option is to switch from methotrexate to infliximab, which has a relatively benign safety profile during pregnancy. However, it is recommended to discontinue infliximab after 16 weeks of pregnancy, as the drug can cross the placenta into the fetus.

      Overall, it is important for pregnant women with RA to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the safest and most effective medication options for their individual situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      28
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  • Question 11 - A 51-year-old man was brought in by ambulance after experiencing a prolonged tonic-clonic...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man was brought in by ambulance after experiencing a prolonged tonic-clonic seizure for 45 minutes. He had no previous history of seizures, and this episode was witnessed by people passing by, who claimed he was jerking throughout his body and wet himself during the course of the fit. On admission, he was postictal after. His seizures stopped after administration of rectal diazepam, phenytoin infusion and intubation, and he was admitted to the intensive care unit. He remained drowsy and lethargic for the next 2 days, and attempts to wean him off the ventilator was slow.

      His blood results on day 2 showed:

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 5.8 mmol/l
      Urea 11.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 180 µmol/l
      Serum corrected calcium 2.15 mmol/l
      Serum bilirubin 21 µmol/l
      Serum alkaline phosphatase 97 IU/l
      Serum aspartate aminotransferase 62 IU/l
      Creatine kinase (CK) 9000 IU/l
      Serum lactate 4.5 mmol/l
      C-Reactive protein (CRP) 5 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 13.6 g/dl
      White cell count 7.2 x 10^9/L
      INR 1.0

      What would be the likely arterial blood gas result for this 51-year-old man?

      Your Answer: pH 7.25 pO2 16 kPa pCO2 4.6 kPa HCO3 11 mmol/l BE -10mm/l, Cl- 101 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from rhabdomyolysis, which is evident from his acute kidney injury and significantly elevated CK levels due to status epilepticus. Rhabdomyolysis occurs when muscle cells break down, causing the release of intracellular contents such as myoglobin and potassium into the bloodstream. This can lead to electrolyte imbalances and acute kidney injury and can be caused by various factors such as crush injuries, overexertion, compartment syndrome, drugs like statins, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      In severe cases, rhabdomyolysis can result in metabolic acidosis due to increased serum lactic acid levels from the ischemic muscle fibers. The elevated serum lactate levels indicate an acidotic condition, ruling out options (b), (d), and (e). Option D is an erroneous result as it shows alkalosis despite high pCO2 and low HCO3. Option (c) depicts respiratory acidosis, leaving option (a) as the correct answer.

      Understanding Rhabdomyolysis

      Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that may be presented in an exam as a patient who has experienced a fall or prolonged epileptic seizure and is found to have an acute kidney injury upon admission. This condition is characterized by elevated creatine kinase (CK), myoglobinuria, hypocalcaemia, elevated phosphate, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. The primary cause of rhabdomyolysis is seizure, collapse/coma, ecstasy, crush injury, McArdle’s syndrome, and drugs such as statins (especially if co-prescribed with clarithromycin).

      To manage rhabdomyolysis, IV fluids are administered to maintain good urine output, and urinary alkalinization is sometimes used. It is essential to monitor the patient’s creatinine levels, as they may be disproportionately raised, and to address any hypocalcaemia that may occur due to myoglobin binding calcium. Hyperkalaemia may develop before renal failure, so it is crucial to monitor potassium levels. Overall, understanding rhabdomyolysis is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to patients who may be experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      41.7
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  • Question 12 - A 85-year-old man is being seen by his oncologist for monitoring of his...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old man is being seen by his oncologist for monitoring of his recently diagnosed chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). He is scheduled to undergo genetic testing to determine his prognosis. What factors are associated with a poor prognosis in his condition?

      Your Answer: del 17p

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of CLL. Poor prognostic factors include male sex, age over 70 years, a high lymphocyte count, prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes, a lymphocyte doubling time of less than 12 months, raised LDH, CD38 expression positive, and TP53 mutation. Patients with these factors have a median survival of 3-5 years.

      In addition to these factors, chromosomal changes can also affect the prognosis of CLL. The most common abnormality is deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q), which is seen in around 50% of patients and is associated with a good prognosis. On the other hand, deletions of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p) are seen in around 5-10% of patients and are associated with a poor prognosis.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when treating patients with CLL, as they can help guide treatment decisions and provide patients with a better understanding of their prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man has been experiencing intermittent swelling of his tongue and face...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has been experiencing intermittent swelling of his tongue and face for the past eight weeks. The episodes last for 34 hours and then resolve on their own, despite trying oral antihistamines. He was diagnosed with hypertension six months ago and started on medication by his GP. There is no other significant medical or family history. What medication is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      ACE Inhibitors and Angioedema

      ACE inhibitors are medications that can lead to the development of angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling in various parts of the body. This occurs because ACE inhibitors block the action of the ACE enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down bradykinin. When bradykinin accumulates in the body, it causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the interstitium. This is particularly noticeable in the face, where the skin has less supporting connective tissue and swelling can occur rapidly.

      Interestingly, ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema appears to be more common in African-American individuals. If a patient experiences this complication, the medication should be discontinued immediately and an alternative treatment should be sought. One option is to switch to an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, which works similarly to ACE inhibitors but does not affect bradykinin levels. By doing so, the risk of angioedema can be minimized while still achieving the desired therapeutic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.5
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman with a family history of haemochromatosis presents to her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a family history of haemochromatosis presents to her GP with fatigue. She has no significant medical history and does not drink alcohol. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Her BMI is 35 kg/m². Blood tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody and elevated ferritin and transferrin saturation levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a patient with obesity and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD). Symptoms may include fatigue, which is common in NAFLD, and a mildly raised ferritin. Haemochromatosis is unlikely as a normal transferrin saturation essentially rules out the diagnosis, despite a family history. Primary biliary cirrhosis can cause similar symptoms, but LFTs will show an obstructive pattern and anti-mitochondrial antibodies are usually positive. Autoimmune hepatitis is also less likely as the patient’s ANA is only weakly positive and other specific antibodies for autoimmune hepatitis are negative.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.6
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  • Question 15 - A tall 24-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A tall 24-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. The chest pain is sharp in nature and worsens on inspiration. He has no relevant medical or family history and is not taking any medications. He smokes 6 cigarettes per week for the past 5 years. Upon examination, he is tachycardic at 110 beats per minute and tachypnoeic. Blood pressure and temperature are within normal limits. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry on the left side, while other systems are normal. The ECG shows sinus tachycardia, and blood analysis is unremarkable. A chest radiograph reveals a left-sided pneumothorax measuring 1.7 cm at the left of the hilum. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: High flow oxygen and chest aspiration

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with pneumothorax, which has been confirmed through a chest X-ray. The British Thoracic Society has provided guidelines for managing primary and secondary pneumothorax. As the patient has no known underlying lung disease and a minimal smoking history, this is considered a primary pneumothorax. According to the guidelines, the size of the pneumothorax should be measured horizontally at the hilum level. If the size is less than 2 cm and the patient is not experiencing breathlessness, they can be discharged with outpatient follow-up. However, if the size is greater than 2 cm or the patient is experiencing breathlessness, chest aspiration is recommended. If this does not resolve symptoms, admission for chest drain is advised. High flow oxygen can provide symptomatic relief and speed up the resolution of pneumothorax.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the way in which cyanide works? ...

    Correct

    • What is the way in which cyanide works?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of enzyme cytochrome oxidase c

      Explanation:

      How Different Chemical Agents Affect Cellular Respiration

      Chemical agents such as cyanide, sarin gas, and arsenic can have devastating effects on the human body by interfering with the process of cellular respiration. Cyanide inhibits the enzyme cytochrome oxidase c, which is essential for the mitochondrial electron transfer chain. This prevents the formation of ATP and leads to rapid cell death. Sarin gas, on the other hand, inhibits the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, causing a buildup of acetylcholine in the nervous system and hindering normal breathing. Arsenic inhibits the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase, which is necessary for the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, thus interfering with cellular respiration.

      Unfortunately, these chemical agents can also cause mutational damage to DNA, leading to long-term health repercussions even if the victim survives the initial insult. Arsenic and mustards are particularly known for this, and can increase the risk of skin and hematological malignancies as well as accelerate atherosclerosis. It is important to be aware of the potential dangers of exposure to these chemical agents and take necessary precautions to avoid them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 81-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of excessive...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of excessive night sweats and a significant weight loss of 10 kg. His vital signs are stable. Upon examination, he has enlarged cervical and inguinal lymph nodes on both sides.

      The following are his blood test results:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 115 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 185 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 7.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 135 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 6.2 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 85 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 4 mg/L (normal range: <5)

      Immunoglobulin levels:

      - IgG: 2.4 g/L (normal range: 6-16)
      - IgM: 32 g/L (normal range: 0.4-2.5)
      - IgA: 0.2 g/L (normal range: 0.8-3.0)

      Immunofixation shows Kappa restriction.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia

      Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is a rare condition that primarily affects older men. It is a type of lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy that is characterized by the production of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including systemic upset, hyperviscosity syndrome, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and cryoglobulinemia.

      One of the most significant features of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is the hyperviscosity syndrome, which can lead to visual disturbances and other complications. This occurs because the pentameric configuration of IgM increases serum viscosity, making it more difficult for blood to flow through the body. Other symptoms of this condition can include weight loss, lethargy, and Raynaud’s.

      To diagnose Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia, doctors will typically look for a monoclonal IgM paraprotein in the patient’s blood. A bone marrow biopsy can also be used to confirm the presence of lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma cells in the bone marrow.

      Treatment for Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia typically involves rituximab-based combination chemotherapy. This approach can help to reduce the production of the monoclonal IgM paraprotein and alleviate symptoms associated with the condition. With proper management, many patients with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia are able to live full and healthy lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.9
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  • Question 18 - A 23-year-old man visits the endocrinology clinic with complaints of low energy and...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man visits the endocrinology clinic with complaints of low energy and a low morning testosterone level. He recently moved to the UK from Albania and has been experiencing constant fatigue and a decrease in sexual desire since starting a new relationship. During the physical examination, he was observed to be tall and slim with mild gynaecomastia. What would be the most suitable investigation to perform after confirming the low morning testosterone level?

      Your Answer: LH and FSH

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with low testosterone levels, it is important to conduct LH and FSH tests as the initial investigation to distinguish between primary and secondary hypogonadism. In this particular case, the patient is experiencing symptoms such as low energy and sexual desire, which may also indicate erectile dysfunction. Additionally, the patient’s history of immigration is significant as it suggests the possibility of a missed chromosomal disorder during childhood. If LH and FSH levels are elevated, it may indicate primary hypogonadism, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which is consistent with the patient’s description. However, if LH and FSH levels are not elevated, further investigations such as an MRI of the pituitary gland, morning cortisol, and prolactin tests may be necessary to identify a secondary cause.

      Hypogonadism in men can be caused by primary factors such as diseases of the testes, childhood mumps, or secondary factors such as diseases of the hypothalamus or pituitary, Klinefelter syndrome, and Kallmann syndrome. Additionally, testosterone levels in men tend to decrease with age.

      When men experience testosterone deficiency, they may notice a variety of changes in their bodies. These changes can include a loss of libido, erectile dysfunction, lethargy, decreased muscle mass and strength, reduced facial hair growth, and impaired glucose tolerance. It is important for men to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect they may be experiencing hypogonadism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      30.8
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old woman presents with erythematous, rough lesions on the back of her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with erythematous, rough lesions on the back of her hands. After diagnosis, it is determined that she has actinic keratoses. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Topical fluorouracil cream

      Explanation:

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 36-year-old male electrician is referred to the medical assessment unit by his...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male electrician is referred to the medical assessment unit by his GP due to reduced oxygen saturations. He has had mild asthma since childhood but no other medical history of note. His medications are a salbutamol inhaler when required and co-codamol for long standing back pain. On examination he is found to have an early diastolic murmur but no other abnormalities are detected. He goes on to have a chest x-ray which demonstrates apical interstitial shadowing. He undergoes pulmonary function tests which are as follows:

      FEV1 1.9L (Predicted 2.1-3.1)
      FVC 2.2 (Predicted 3.0-4.4)
      TLC 4.5 (Predicted 5.0-7.5)
      Transfer factor (DLCO) Low

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      This question contains misleading information to test the candidate’s ability to identify the correct diagnosis. Although the patient’s profession as a plumber and history of asthma may suggest other conditions, the CXR and pulmonary function tests indicate apical lung fibrosis. This narrows down the potential diagnoses to ankylosing spondylitis, sarcoidosis, or extrinsic allergic alveolitis. However, the presence of back pain and an early diastolic murmur point towards ankylosing spondylitis as the most probable diagnosis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while the patient may experience night pain that improves upon getting up.

      Clinical examination of patients with ankylosing spondylitis may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. The Schober’s test, which involves drawing a line 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples and measuring the distance between them when the patient bends forward, may also be used to assess the condition. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (which is more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      57.8
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  • Question 21 - A 19-year-old male student is presenting with weight loss and diarrhoea. These symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male student is presenting with weight loss and diarrhoea. These symptoms have been ongoing for about a year and he has been steadily losing weight. He is accompanied by his parents who are deeply worried about their son. After conducting investigations, the following results were obtained:

      Your Answer: Lactulose abuse

      Correct Answer: Senna abuse

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects of Different Laxatives

      Laxatives are commonly used to treat constipation, but their abuse can lead to harmful effects on the colon. Senna, an anthraquinone laxative, can cause cellular apoptosis in the large intestine, resulting in melanosis coli. Sodium docusate and lactulose are stool softeners that do not lead to colonic pigmentation. Methylcellulose is a bulk-forming laxative that requires adequate fluid intake to be effective. Colchicine, a medication used for gout, is not commonly used as a laxative and does not cause melanosis coli. It is important to understand the effects of different laxatives and use them appropriately to avoid harmful consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medical Unit following a fire...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medical Unit following a fire at his property. He has a history of COPD, dementia, hypertension and type II diabetes. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day. He has evidence of smoke inhalation, with minimal oedema in the oropharynx and no evidence of airway obstruction. He reports to you that he has a headache and mild nausea.

      Upon examination, he has a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute, with oxygen saturations of 92% on room air, a heart rate of 100 bpm, a temperature of 37.2 °C and blood pressure of 110/55 mmHg. His chest has bilaterally reduced air entry, and a chest X-ray reveals hyperexpanded lungs, with no evidence of consolidation. A routine electrocardiogram shows ST depression in the anterior leads.

      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) fluids

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Explanation:

      Management of Carbon Monoxide Poisoning in a Patient with Smoke Inhalation

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is a potential complication of smoke inhalation and can lead to non-specific symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, altered consciousness, and cardiovascular symptoms like angina or cardiac ischaemia. In such cases, an arterial blood gas is necessary to measure the carboxyhaemoglobin level. Heart rate oximetry is not reliable in measuring oxygen levels in CO poisoning, and high-flow oxygen is the treatment of choice.

      Intravenous (IV) fluids may be required to maintain adequate fluid status, especially if there is evidence of burns due to smoke inhalation in the oropharynx. However, sending blood for troponin T levels is also important as CO poisoning can result in cardiac ischaemia.

      IV antibiotics are not necessary unless there is evidence of infection. Completing blood tests and a urine culture may be appropriate to ensure that an initial infection has not put the patient at greater risk.

      In a patient with a history of COPD, low peripheral oxygen saturations may be present, but an arterial blood gas is still necessary to check carboxyhaemoglobin levels and guide target oxygen saturations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      93.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital after experiencing sudden shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital after experiencing sudden shortness of breath at 2 am. He reported a gradual increase in difficulty breathing over the past few months and found that sleeping in a chair helped alleviate his symptoms. The following are his oxygen saturation levels and pressure readings at various anatomical sites:

      - Superior vena cava: 76% saturation, no pressure reading
      - Inferior vena cava: 72% saturation, no pressure reading
      - Right atrium (mean): 74% saturation, 9 mmHg pressure
      - Right ventricle: 75% saturation, 60/8 mmHg pressure
      - Pulmonary artery: 74% saturation, 58/26 mmHg pressure
      - Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 30 mmHg
      - Left ventricle: 98% saturation, 150/25 mmHg pressure
      - Aorta: 97% saturation, 150/44 mmHg pressure

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic incompetence

      Explanation:

      Elevated Left Ventricular End-Diastolic Pressure and Wide Pulse Pressure in the Aorta

      There is a significant difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures in the aorta, which is known as a wide pulse pressure. This is often accompanied by a very high left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP). When the LVEDP exceeds 20 mmHg, it is indicative of irreversible left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to note that all left heart valve diseases can ultimately lead to elevated right heart pressures.

      In summary, a wide pulse pressure in the aorta and elevated LVEDP are concerning signs of left ventricular dysfunction. It is crucial to monitor and manage these conditions to prevent further damage to the heart. Additionally, left heart valve diseases should be closely monitored as they can also contribute to elevated right heart pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department with confusion, irritability, disturbed sleep, and recurrent falls. He has not had contact with medical services since being diagnosed with liver cirrhosis several years ago. What is the most crucial investigation to rule out a cause of his encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol levels

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Management for Acute Liver Injury

      Possible causes of a patient’s deterioration of health include drug over-dosage, infection, subdural hematoma, and alcohol binge. In this case, paracetamol levels should be checked initially to exclude paracetamol-induced acute liver injury. Management includes identifying and removing the cause, using activated charcoal in those presented < 4 hours after oral dosage of paracetamol, and starting N-acetylcysteine if the patient presents < 10-12 hours since overdose with no vomiting and high plasma levels of paracetamol. EEG is useful in monitoring hepatic encephalopathy and predicting outcomes of acute liver disease. CT of the head should also be performed to exclude a subdural hematoma. Serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are used to evaluate prognosis in patients with paracetamol-induced fulminant hepatic failure, while serum ammonia levels are typically elevated in acute liver injury and correlate with the development of encephalopathy. The possibility of paracetamol overdose must be excluded before testing for other causes and complications of acute liver disease. Diagnostic Tests and Management for Acute Liver Injury

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance with a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance with a sudden onset of bilateral weakness that has been progressing for the past 5 hours. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia and is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, and atorvastatin. He is a non-smoker.

      Upon examination, the patient displays bilateral flaccid weakness in the lower limbs with a power of 0/5 in all muscle groups. The patient is also areflexic and has lost pain and temperature sensation from the level of the umbilicus to the feet. However, proprioception and vibration sense remain intact.

      Over the next few weeks, the patient's weakness becomes spastic in nature, with the lower limbs developing hyperreflexia and upgoing plantar reflexes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms is anterior spinal artery occlusion. This is likely due to the patient’s risk factors for atherosclerosis, such as hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. An infarct in this artery can result in bilateral weakness below the level of the lesion, which in this case appears to be at the T10 level. Additionally, the patient may experience a loss of pain and temperature sensation. This type of injury affects the spinothalamic and corticospinal tracts, leading to an initial flaccid paralysis that may progress to spastic paraparesis over time.

      Basilar artery occlusion is an incorrect diagnosis, as it causes a condition known as ‘locked-in syndrome’ that results in complete paralysis of voluntary muscles except for those that control eye movement. Posterior spinal artery occlusion is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it causes a dorsal cord syndrome that primarily affects proprioception and vibration.

      Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedreich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man has come to the Outpatient Clinic with complaints of memory...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has come to the Outpatient Clinic with complaints of memory difficulties over the past few years. He has been unable to maintain a steady job due to this issue. He experiences extreme fatigue at work, often falling asleep at his desk. Additionally, he suffers from frequent headaches that last for 1-4 hours, occurring on most days of the week. These headaches are bi-frontal and throbbing in nature. He has also experienced sudden falls to the ground on a few occasions. When questioned further, he reports trouble sleeping at night and occasionally waking up unable to move. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Narcolepsy: Modafinil, Paroxetine, Sodium Valproate, Amitriptyline, and Carbamazepine

      Narcolepsy is a condition that typically presents in the teens or 20s and is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations. While not all of these symptoms need to be present for a diagnosis, a multiple sleep latency test can confirm the condition. Narcolepsy is often associated with HLA DR2 and DQB1*0602. Modafinil is a useful treatment option for excessive sleepiness in narcolepsy patients. Paroxetine, sodium valproate, amitriptyline, and carbamazepine are not typically used in the treatment of narcolepsy, as they are more commonly used for depression, epilepsy, bipolar disorder, and partial seizures, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his girlfriend after collapsing...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his girlfriend after collapsing at a party at 3:00am. It is now 5:00am. During the examination, he is unresponsive to verbal stimuli and has dry mucous membranes. He has flushed skin and feels very warm to the touch. There is mildly increased muscle tone, myoclonic jerks, and hyperreflexia globally but worse in the lower limbs. Pupils are dilated but respond to light equally and bilaterally. He is disorientated and agitated, thrashing about in the bed and occasionally lashing out at people.

      His vital signs are heart rate 126/min, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, temperature = 40.3ºC, and sats 97% on 10l of oxygen. His laboratory results show Na+ 136 mmol/l, K+ 3.9 mmol/l, urea 2.3 mmol/l, creatinine 77 µmol/l, glucose 4.6 mmol/l, and creatinine kinase 12,000 U/l. His bilirubin is 25 µmol/l, ALP 185 u/l, ALT 125 u/l, γGT 144 u/l, and albumin 40 g/l.

      A CT scan of his head shows no abnormalities, and a lumbar puncture reveals an opening pressure of 15 cm CSF, clear appearance, glucose 3.5 mmol/l, protein 0.3 g/l, and white cells 4 / mm³. He has a past medical history of schizoaffective disorder and is taking Olanzapine 15 mg and Sertraline 150mg regularly. His girlfriend tells you that he took an unknown white powder while at the party.

      What is the most appropriate treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop sertraline and give IV lorazepam and consider cyproheptadine

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with MDMA intoxication, resulting in serotonin syndrome and rhabdomyolysis. Treatment for serotonin syndrome involves discontinuing any serotonergic agents, using benzodiazepines to manage agitation, and considering the use of serotonin antagonists like cyproheptadine if there is severe autonomic disturbance. MDMA use in combination with drugs that increase serotonin transport, such as SSRIs like sertraline, can lead to serotonin syndrome.

      Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include agitation, reduced consciousness, skin flushing, hyperthermia, hyperreflexia, myoclonus (particularly in the lower limbs), tachycardia, hypertension, or labile blood pressure. Most cases of serotonin syndrome occur within six hours of a change in medication or dose, such as in this case after taking MDMA.

      Option B, which involves treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome, may be appropriate if the patient had presented with similar symptoms. However, NMS typically develops over one to three days and is characterized by extreme muscle rigidity, making it less likely in this case. Additionally, the patient is on a lower potency antipsychotic (Olanzapine) and has had a stable dose for a long period of time, further reducing the likelihood of NMS.

      Heroin overdose and meningitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and presentation. Dilated pupils rule out heroin overdose, and a normal lumbar puncture rules out meningitis. Option E, which involves providing no active management, is inappropriate given the patient’s severe symptoms of autonomic instability, hyperthermia, and significant rhabdomyolysis with renal impairment. Active management beyond supportive treatment is recommended for this patient if the diagnosis is NMS or serotonin syndrome.

      Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning

      Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.

      When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be administered to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. By being aware of the potential dangers, individuals can make informed decisions about their drug use and take steps to protect their health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.

      She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)

      White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)

      Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)

      Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)

      Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)

      Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)

      Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)

      Arterial blood gases on air:

      pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)

      pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)

      ECG Sinus tachycardia

      Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +++

      Protein ++

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a review of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic for a review of her Crohns disease management. She was diagnosed at the age of 24 years and has had 6 flares of her disease, two of which have required hospital admission. She was hesitant to start immunosuppressive medication to control her disease but has now agreed to try it. The treatment options are discussed with her and she decides to start monotherapy with azathioprine. She has no significant medical history and no known allergies. What is the next most appropriate test to consider before beginning treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity

      Explanation:

      Pre-treatment considerations for azathioprine therapy

      Azathioprine is a prodrug of mercaptopurine used in the treatment of various autoimmune diseases. Before starting azathioprine therapy, it is important to consider certain factors to minimize the risk of adverse effects. One such factor is the patient’s thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity. TPMT is the enzyme responsible for metabolizing azathioprine, and low levels or absence of this enzyme can increase the risk of myelosuppression. Therefore, measuring TPMT levels before starting azathioprine therapy is crucial.

      While liver function tests are recommended during azathioprine treatment, a liver ultrasound is not necessary before starting therapy. Similarly, a bone profile and thyroid function tests are not required before commencing azathioprine therapy. Unlike other immunosuppressive therapies, azathioprine does not cause lung fibrosis, so a pretreatment chest X-ray is also not necessary.

      In summary, before starting azathioprine therapy, it is important to measure TPMT levels to minimize the risk of myelosuppression. However, liver ultrasound, bone profile, thyroid function tests, and chest X-ray are not necessary pre-treatment considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with three days of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with three days of fever, leg pain and rash. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, peripheral vascular disease and hypertension. He is on regular medications including clopidogrel, amlodipine, metformin, gliclazide and insulin. He is independent and a retired carpenter.

      What is the initial pharmacological management that should be considered for this patient based on his clinical presentation and laboratory results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tazocin and Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      The most common type of necrotizing fasciitis is type 1, which is polymicrobial. Therefore, to adequately treat this condition, we need an antibiotic combination that covers gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria. Tazocin and clindamycin are the correct choice for this patient as he presents with an erythematous rash, fever, a tense thigh, shock, and organ dysfunction. Clindamycin also has the added benefit of potentially inhibiting toxin production in severe streptococcal infections. It is important to note that the polymicrobial type of necrotizing fasciitis is more common in diabetic patients.

      Benzylpenicillin and Flucloxacillin are not appropriate for this patient as they only cover gram-positive bacteria and do not provide adequate coverage for gram-negative and anaerobic infections.

      Flucloxacillin alone is also not sufficient as it only targets gram-positive bacteria.

      Intravenous immunoglobulin is not a replacement for antibiotic treatment and is only used as an adjunct in severe skin and soft tissue infections.

      Vancomycin and metronidazole are not the best choice for this patient as they do not provide sufficient coverage for gram-negative bacteria.

      Necrotising Fasciitis: A Life-Threatening Emergency

      Necrotising fasciitis is a severe medical emergency that can be challenging to identify in its early stages. It is categorised based on the causative organism, with type 1 being the most common, caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression.

      The perineum is the most commonly affected site, and the condition presents with acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often appears as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of proportion to physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender, with hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene, and fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.

      Urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics are the primary management options for necrotising fasciitis. The average mortality rate is 20%, making it a life-threatening condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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