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Question 1
Correct
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A 23-year-old plumber is admitted to the Surgical Ward after undergoing an appendicectomy. A medical student conducts a thorough examination and takes a detailed medical history of the patient. The student observes that the patient is exhibiting jaundice but does not display any other symptoms of liver dysfunction. The liver function tests reveal the following results: total bilirubin of 52 mmol/l, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 37 iu/l, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 32 iu/l, and alkaline phosphatase 70 u/l. What is the likely condition affecting this patient?
Your Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Jaundice: A Brief Overview
Jaundice is a common clinical finding that can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One possible cause is Gilbert’s syndrome, a congenital defect in the liver’s ability to conjugate bilirubin. This results in mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which may occasionally lead to jaundice during fasting or concurrent illness. However, Gilbert’s syndrome is typically benign and requires no treatment.
In contrast, Crigler-Najjar type I and type II are also defects in glucuronyl transferase activity, but they present with severe jaundice or death in the neonatal period. Wilson’s disease, a rare disorder of copper metabolism, can also cause jaundice, but it is unlikely to be the cause in this scenario.
Another possible cause of jaundice is Caroli’s syndrome, a congenital dilation of the intrahepatic bile duct that presents with recurrent episodes of cholangitis. It is important to differentiate between these various causes of jaundice in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, with a 25-pack-year history of smoking, presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain. He has been unable to mow his lawn since the pain began and is often woken up at night. He finds that the pain is relieved by taking antacids. He has also had to cut back on his spicy food intake.
What is the most probable reason for this man's epigastric pain?Your Answer: Oesophagitis
Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms
Gastrointestinal conditions can cause a range of symptoms, from mild discomfort to severe pain. Here are some of the most common conditions and their symptoms:
Duodenal Ulcer: These are breaks in the lining of the duodenum, which is part of the small intestine. They are more common than gastric ulcers and are often caused by an overproduction of gastric acid. Symptoms include epigastric pain that is relieved by eating or drinking milk.
Gastric Ulcer: These are less common than duodenal ulcers and tend to occur in patients with normal or low levels of gastric acid. Risk factors are similar to those of duodenal ulcers. Symptoms include epigastric pain.
Oesophagitis: This condition occurs when stomach acid flows back into the oesophagus, causing inflammation. Treatment is aimed at reducing reflux symptoms. Patients may need to be assessed for Barrett’s oesophagus.
Pancreatitis: This condition is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas and typically presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
Gallstones: These are hard deposits that form in the gallbladder and can cause right upper quadrant pain. Symptoms may be aggravated by eating fatty foods. While historically more common in females in their forties, the condition is becoming increasingly common in younger age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
(A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?Your Answer: 36
Explanation:Understanding Units of Alcohol
Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.
To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.
It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue. He reports experiencing 'abdominal complaints' for the past 6 years, without relief from any treatments. Upon examination, he appears severely pale and has glossitis. He has been having bowel movements five to six times per day. The only significant history he has is that he had to undergo surgery at the age of 4 to remove a swallowed toy. Blood tests show the following results: Hemoglobin - 98 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), Vitamin B12 - 60 pmol/l (normal range: 160-900 pmol/l), Folate - 51 μg/l (normal range: 2.0-11.0 μg/l), and Cholesterol - 2.7 mmol/l (normal range: <5.2 mmol/l). What is the appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Gluten free diet
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:Treatment Options for Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, and megaloblastic anemia. It is often caused by a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, such as decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility. Patients who have had intestinal surgery are also at an increased risk of developing SIBO.
The most effective treatment for SIBO is a course of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, or rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.
In contrast, a gluten-free diet is the treatment for coeliac disease, which presents with malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Steroids are not an appropriate treatment for SIBO or coeliac disease, as they can suppress local immunity and allow further bacterial overgrowth.
Vitamin B12 replacement is necessary for patients with SIBO who have megaloblastic anemia due to B12 malabsorption and metabolism by bacteria. There is no indication of intestinal tuberculosis in this patient, but in suspected cases, intestinal biopsy may be needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with persistent dyspepsia was being evaluated at the nearby medical center. While performing oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD), the endoscopist inserted the endoscope until it reached the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
At which vertebral level is it probable that the endoscope tip reached?Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The Diaphragm and its Openings: A Vertebral Level Guide
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing and also contains several openings for important structures to pass through. Here is a guide to the vertebral levels of the diaphragm openings:
T10 – Oesophageal Hiatus: This opening allows the oesophagus to pass through and is located at the T10 vertebral level. A helpful mnemonic is that ‘oesophagus’ contains 10 letters.
T7 – No Openings: There are no openings of the diaphragm at this level.
T8 – Caval Opening: The caval opening is located at the T8 vertebral level and allows the inferior vena cava to pass through. A useful way to remember this is that ‘vena cava’ has 8 letters.
T11 – Oesophagus and Stomach: The oesophagus meets the cardia of the stomach at approximately this level.
T12 – Aortic Hiatus: The aortic hiatus is located at the T12 vertebral level and allows the descending aorta to pass through. A helpful mnemonic is that ‘aortic hiatus’ contains 12 letters.
Knowing the vertebral levels of the diaphragm’s openings can be useful for understanding the anatomy of the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman was found to have constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome and frequently used over-the-counter laxatives. During a colonoscopy for rectal bleeding, her colon was noted to be abnormal and a biopsy was taken. What is the most probable histological result in this scenario?
Your Answer: Macrophages containing lipofuscin in the mucosa
Explanation:Differentiating Colonic Pathologies: A Brief Overview
Melanosis Coli: A Misnomer
Prolonged laxative use can lead to melanosis coli, characterized by brown or black pigmentation of the colonic mucosa. However, the pigment is not melanin but intact lipofuscin. Macrophages ingest apoptotic cells, and lysosomes convert the debris to lipofuscin pigment. The macrophages then become loaded with lipofuscin pigment, which is best identified under electron microscopy. Hence, some authors have proposed a new name – pseudomelanosis coli. Use of anthraquinone laxatives is most commonly associated with this syndrome.
Macrophages Containing Melanin
Melanosis coli is a misnomer. The pigment is not melanin. See the correct answer for a full explanation.
Non-Caseating Granuloma
Non-caseating granulomas are characteristic of Crohn’s disease microscopic pathology, as well as transmural inflammation. However, this patient is unlikely to have Crohn’s disease, because it normally presents with diarrhoea, abdominal pain, malaise/lethargy, and weight loss.
Non-Specific Colitis
Non-specific colitis is a general term which can be found in a variety of disorders. For example, laxative abuse can cause colonic inflammation. However, melanosis coli is a more specific answer.
Crypt Abscesses
Crypt abscesses are found in ulcerative colitis, as well as mucosal and submucosal inflammation. Normally, ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain, malaise/lethargy, and weight loss. This patient’s history of constipation and a single episode of bloody diarrhoea makes ulcerative colitis unlikely.
Understanding Colonic Pathologies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He has a medical history of a heart attack and three transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). The doctor diagnoses him with chronic mesenteric ischaemia. What section of the intestine is typically affected?
Your Answer: Splenic flexure
Explanation:Understanding Mesenteric Ischaemia: Common Sites of Affection
Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be likened to angina of the intestine. It is typically seen in patients who have arteriopathy or atrial fibrillation, which predisposes them to arterial embolism. When these patients eat, the increased vascular demand of the bowel cannot be met, leading to ischaemia and abdominal pain. The most common site of mesenteric ischaemia is at the splenic flexure, which is the watershed between the superior and inferior mesenteric arterial supplies.
Acute mesenteric ischaemia occurs when a blood clot blocks the blood supply to a section of the bowel, causing acute ischaemia and severe abdominal pain. While the sigmoid colon may be affected in mesenteric ischaemia, it is not the most common site. It is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The hepatic flexure, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, and the ileocaecal segment, which is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, are not the most common sites of mesenteric ischaemia. The jejunum, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, may also be affected, but it is not the most common site.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A man with known ulcerative colitis presents to Accident and Emergency with a flare-up. He tells you that he is passing eight stools a day with blood and has severe nausea with abdominal pain at present. He normally takes oral mesalazine to control his condition. On examination, the patient is cool peripherally, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. Blood tests are done and relevant findings shown below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 32 mm/hour < 20 mm/hour
Albumin 34 g/l 35–50 g/l
Temperature 37.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
Haemoglobin 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Add azathioprine to control the flare-up and iron supplements for anaemia. Review in 7 days
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for intravenous (IV) corticosteroids, fluids and monitoring
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment Options for Severe Ulcerative Colitis Flare-Ups
Severe flare-ups of ulcerative colitis (UC) require prompt and appropriate treatment to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some treatment options that are appropriate for severe UC flare-ups:
Admit to Hospital for Intravenous (IV) Corticosteroids, Fluids, and Monitoring
For severe UC flare-ups with evidence of significant systemic upset, hospital admission is necessary. Treatment should involve nil by mouth, IV hydration, IV corticosteroids as first-line treatment, and close monitoring.
Avoid Topical Aminosalicylates and Analgesia
Topical aminosalicylates and analgesia are not indicated for severe UC flare-ups with systemic upset.
Inducing Remission with Topical Aminosalicylates is Inappropriate
For severe UC flare-ups, inducing remission with topical aminosalicylates is not appropriate. Admission and monitoring are necessary.
Azathioprine is Not Routinely Used for Severe Flare-Ups
Immunosuppression with azathioprine is not routinely used to induce remission in severe UC flare-ups. It should only be used in cases where steroids are ineffective or if prolonged use of steroids is required.
Medical Therapy Before Surgical Options
Surgical options should only be considered after medical therapy has been attempted for severe UC flare-ups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 47-year-old man presents to the Hepatology Clinic with mild elevations in levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and aminotransferases. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity, but denies alcohol use and past drug use. On physical examination, he is found to be obese with hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies show negative results for hepatitis and autoimmune liver disease. His aminotransferase, ALP, and autoimmune liver results are provided. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Understanding Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease and Treatment Options
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) is a condition characterized by hepatic steatosis in the absence of alcohol or drug misuse. Patients with NAFLD often have other metabolic conditions such as obesity, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Diagnosis involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology. Conservative management with weight loss and control of cardiovascular risk factors is the mainstay of treatment, as there are currently no recommended medications for NAFLD.
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive medication used in the management of autoimmune hepatitis. Before starting a patient on azathioprine, TPMT activity should be tested for, as those with low TPMT activity have an increased risk of azathioprine-induced myelosuppression. Liver transplant is indicated for patients with declining hepatic function or liver cirrhosis, which this patient does not have.
Naltrexone can be used for symptomatic relief of pruritus in patients with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), but this patient has negative antibodies for autoimmune liver disease. Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune liver disease, which this patient does not have. Overall, understanding the diagnosis and treatment options for NAFLD is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a witnessed fall. He struck his head on the pavement. He is known to the nursing staff, having been brought in on numerous occasions for the management of alcohol intoxication. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits, but he is minimally responsive to verbal commands and has slurred speech. He has an elevated serum alcohol level. A computed tomography (CT) brain is reported as normal. He is admitted for overnight observation, hydrated with intravenous dextrose and given acetaminophen for pain relief.
By day 2 of his admission, he remains confused and inappropriate. He appears at times indifferent and does not pay attention to questioning. When he does respond, his answers are tangential and he does not appear to know his own name. On morning ward rounds, you notice that he has a bilateral rectus palsy which was not present at the time of admission. A repeat CT of his brain is normal.
To which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is this presentation is most likely due?Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The Importance of B Vitamins in Neurological Health
B vitamins play a crucial role in neurological health, and deficiencies can lead to a range of symptoms and conditions. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, characterized by encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction, and gait ataxia, is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B1 and is commonly seen in chronic alcohol users and those with anorexia nervosa or hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B3 deficiency can cause neurologic symptoms, photosensitivity dermatitis, and GI upset, while vitamin B2 deficiency can lead to normochromic, normocytic anemia, pharyngitis, cheilitis, glossitis, and stomatitis. Vitamin B5 deficiency is rare but can cause paraesthesiae of the extremities and GI upset. Vitamin B12 deficiency has multi-system effects, including neurologic syndromes, haematologic syndrome, and skeletal changes. It is crucial to address any potential deficiencies in B vitamins to prevent these neurological complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which statement about kernicterus is not true?
Your Answer: Is associated with gastrointestinal haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Diagnosis requires the histological confirmation of yellow staining of brain tissue on autopsy caused by fat soluble unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Explanation:Hyperbilirubinemia and its Effects on Infants
Hyperbilirubinemia, a condition characterized by high levels of bilirubin in the blood, can have severe consequences for infants. In some cases, intracellular crystals may be observed in the intestinal mucosa of affected infants, which may be related to gastrointestinal bleeding. However, the most significant long-term effects of hyperbilirubinemia are neurological in nature. Infants who experience marked hyperbilirubinemia may develop a chronic syndrome of neurological sequelae, including athetosis, gaze disturbance, and hearing loss.
Even if the affected infant survives the neonatal period, the effects of hyperbilirubinemia may persist. If the infant subsequently dies, the yellow staining of neural tissue may no longer be present, but microscopic evidence of cell injury, neuronal loss, and glial replacement may be observed in the basal ganglia. These findings highlight the importance of early detection and treatment of hyperbilirubinemia in infants to prevent long-term neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) with concerns about not having had a bowel movement in the past four days. The patient typically has a daily bowel movement. She denies experiencing nausea or vomiting and has been passing gas. The patient was prescribed various pain medications by a home healthcare provider for left knee pain, which she has been experiencing for the past three weeks. The patient has a history of severe degeneration in her left knee and is awaiting an elective left total knee replacement. She has a medical history of hypertension, which she manages through lifestyle changes. A rectal examination shows no signs of fecal impaction.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's constipation?Your Answer: Ispaghula husk
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Medication Management for Constipation: Understanding the Role of Different Laxatives
When managing constipation in patients, it is important to consider the underlying cause and choose the appropriate laxative. For example, in patients taking opiates like codeine phosphate, a stimulant laxative such as Senna should be co-prescribed to counteract the constipating effects of the medication. On the other hand, bulk-forming laxatives like Ispaghula husk may be more suitable for patients with low-fibre diets. It is also important to avoid medications that can worsen constipation, such as loperamide, and to be cautious with enemas, which can cause complications in certain patients. By understanding the role of different laxatives, healthcare providers can effectively manage constipation and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 16-year-old previously healthy woman presents with a 10-month history of persistent non-bloody diarrhoea and central abdominal pain. She also gives a history of unintentional weight loss. The patient is not yet menstruating. On examination, she has slight conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a macrocytic anaemia.
What is the likeliest diagnosis?Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac disease is a condition where the lining of the small intestine is abnormal and improves when gluten is removed from the diet. It is caused by an immune response to a component of gluten called α-gliadin peptide. Symptoms can occur at any age but are most common in infancy and in adults in their 40s. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, delayed puberty, and anemia. Blood tests are used to diagnose the disease, and a biopsy of the small intestine can confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves avoiding gluten in the diet. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis have different symptoms, while irritable bowel syndrome and carcinoid syndrome are unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 57-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a 2-month history of pain and difficulty swallowing when eating solid foods and now also has trouble swallowing liquids. He states that his trousers now feel looser around his waist and he no longer looks forward to his meals. His past medical history is significant for reflux disease for which he takes over-the-counter Gaviscon. He has a 20-pack-year history of smoking and drinks approximately 15 pints of beer per week. His family medical history is unremarkable.
His observations are shown below:
Temperature 36.4°C
Blood pressure 155/69 mmHg
Heart rate 66 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 13 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 99% (room air)
Physical examination is normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?Your Answer: Immediate referral to upper gastrointestinal surgeon
Explanation:Appropriate Management for a Patient with Dysphagia and ‘Alarm’ Symptoms
When a patient presents with dysphagia and ‘alarm’ symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, and swallowing difficulties, prompt referral for an urgent endoscopy is necessary. In the case of a patient with a significant smoking history, male sex, and alcohol intake, there is a high suspicion for oesophageal cancer, and an immediate referral to an upper gastrointestinal surgeon is required under the 2-week-wait rule.
Continuing treatment with over-the-counter medications like Gaviscon would be inappropriate in this case, as would histamine-2 receptor antagonist therapy. Oesophageal manometry would only be indicated if the patient had an oesophageal motility disorder. Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy can be initiated in patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease, but it would not be appropriate as a sole treatment option for a patient with clinical manifestations concerning for oesophageal carcinoma.
In summary, prompt referral for an urgent endoscopy is crucial for patients with dysphagia and ‘alarm’ symptoms, and appropriate management should be tailored to the individual patient’s clinical presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing ‘indigestion’ for the past six months. She has been using over-the-counter treatments without relief. She reports a burning-type sensation in her epigastric region which is present most of the time. Over the past four months, she has lost approximately 4 kg in weight. She denies dysphagia, melaena, nausea, or vomiting.
Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without palpable masses.
What is the next step in managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Refer urgently as a suspected gastro-oesophageal cancer to be seen in two weeks
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Suspected Gastro-Oesophageal Malignancy
Suspected gastro-oesophageal malignancy requires urgent referral, according to NICE guidelines. A patient’s age, weight loss, and dyspepsia symptoms meet the criteria for referral. An ultrasound of the abdomen may be useful to rule out biliary disease, but it would not be helpful in assessing oesophageal or stomach pathology. Treatment with proton pump inhibitors may mask malignancy signs and delay diagnosis. Helicobacter testing can be useful for dyspepsia patients, but red flag symptoms require urgent malignancy ruling out. A barium swallow is not a gold-standard test for gastro-oesophageal malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis attends the Gastroenterology Clinic for review. Over the past few months, his bowel symptoms have been generally quiescent, but he has suffered from tiredness and itching.
On examination, you notice that he has jaundiced sclerae and there are some scratch marks on his abdomen consistent with the itching.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.6 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Autoantibody screen ANCA +, anti-cardiolipin +, ANA +
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 290 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 85 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
Explanation:Differentiating Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis from Other Liver Conditions
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects around 4% of patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease. It is characterized by an obstructive liver function test (LFT) picture and autoantibody results consistent with PSC. While endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has been considered the gold standard for diagnosis, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is now equally useful. Imaging typically shows a beaded appearance of biliary ducts, and liver biopsy may be useful in determining prognosis. Median survival from diagnosis to death or liver transplantation is around 10-15 years, with a disease recurrence rate of at least 30% in transplanted patients.
Cholelithiasis, on the other hand, typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and does not usually cause jaundice unless there is obstruction of the biliary system. Hepatocellular carcinoma risk is increased in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, but the clinical picture above is more in keeping with PSC. Primary biliary cholangitis would show positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies and mainly affect intrahepatic ducts, while ascending cholangitis would usually present with features of Charcot’s triad (jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a blood test of one of the admitted elderly patients. It appears that the elderly patient has had an acute rise in his plasma urea levels.
In which of the following conditions would you expect a raised plasma urea level in an elderly patient?Your Answer: Gastric ulcer
Explanation:Causes of Hyperuricaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Urea Production
Hyperuricaemia, or elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of the factors that contribute to this condition is gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in the upper part of the digestive system. When there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as in cases of gastric ulcer, the blood that is excreted undergoes digestion as it passes through the small intestine. This results in an increased production of urea, a by-product of blood digestion, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream. However, reduced renal perfusion in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding can further exacerbate the levels of urea in the blood, as excretion becomes less effective.
It is important to note that not all types of gastrointestinal bleeding are associated with hyperuricaemia. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, such as in cases of diverticular disease, does not cause a rise in urea levels. This is because blood released in the lumen of the large bowel does not undergo the same amount of digestion as it does in the small intestine. Instead, the large bowel primarily functions to reabsorb water and sodium.
Other medical conditions, such as intracranial haemorrhage and ulcerative colitis, are not directly linked to hyperuricaemia. However, significant bleeding in any part of the body can indirectly cause this condition by leading to kidney hypoperfusion and pre-renal acute kidney failure.
In summary, understanding the relationship between gastrointestinal bleeding and urea production can help in identifying the causes of hyperuricaemia. While upper gastrointestinal bleeding can lead to elevated levels of urea in the blood, lower gastrointestinal bleeding and other medical conditions may not have the same effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department with confusion. She has a history of manic illness. There is no evidence of alcohol or drug abuse. Upon examination, she displays mild jaundice and signs of chronic liver disease, such as spider naevi and palmar erythema. Additionally, there is a brownish ring discoloration at the limbus of the cornea.
Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 130 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 85 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Ferritin 100 μg/l 10–120 µg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with liver disease and neurological symptoms
Wilson’s disease, haemochromatosis, alcohol-related cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis are among the possible causes of liver disease. In the case of a patient with Kayser-Fleischer rings, the likelihood of Wilson’s disease increases, as this is a characteristic sign of copper overload due to defective incorporation of copper and caeruloplasmin. Neurological symptoms such as disinhibition, emotional lability, and chorea may also suggest Wilson’s disease, although they are not specific to it. Haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron overload, can be ruled out if the ferritin level is normal. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is less likely if the patient denies alcohol or drug abuse, but this information may not always be reliable. Viral hepatitis is a common cause of liver disease, but in this case, there are no obvious risk factors in the history. Primary sclerosing cholangitis, which is a chronic inflammatory disease of the bile ducts, does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s clinical features, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?Your Answer: Anal abscess formation
Correct Answer: Rectal involvement
Explanation:Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.
Rectal Involvement
UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.Transmural Inflammation
Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.Duodenal Involvement
UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.Symptoms and Severity
Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
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A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still in his abdomen after being stabbed in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan revealed that the tip of the knife had punctured the superior border of the greater omentum at the junction of the body and pyloric antrum of the stomach.
What is the most likely direct branch artery that has been severed by the knife?Your Answer: Coeliac trunk
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The knife likely cut the right gastro-omental artery, which is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery. This artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach within the superior border of the greater omentum and anastomoses with the left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery. The coeliac trunk, which supplies blood to the foregut, is not related to the greater omentum but to the lesser omentum. The hepatic artery proper, one of the terminal branches of the common hepatic artery, courses towards the liver in the free edge of the lesser omentum. The splenic artery, a tortuous branch of the coeliac trunk, supplies blood to the spleen and gives off the left gastro-omental artery. The short gastric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the fundus of the stomach and branches off the splenic artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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