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Question 1
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A 25-year-old veterinary student is being evaluated for possible Addison's disease due to symptoms of weight loss, hypotension, and fatigue. As part of the diagnostic process, the patient undergoes testing to measure cortisol levels before and after receiving synthetic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) injection (short-synacthen test). What is a true statement regarding cortisol in this scenario?
Your Answer: It has a peak hormonal concentration in the morning
Explanation:Misconceptions about Cortisol: Clarifying the Facts
Cortisol is a hormone that has been the subject of many misconceptions. Here are some clarifications to set the record straight:
1. Peak Hormonal Concentration: Cortisol has a diurnal variation and peaks in the morning upon waking up. Its lowest level is around midnight.
2. Protein or Steroid: Cortisol is a steroid hormone, not a protein.
3. Blood Glucose: Cortisol increases blood glucose levels via various pathways, contrary to the belief that it lowers blood glucose.
4. Anabolic or Catabolic: Cortisol is a catabolic hormone that causes a breakdown of larger molecules to smaller molecules.
5. Stimulated by Renin or ACTH: Cortisol is stimulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) released from the anterior pituitary, not renin.
By understanding the true nature of cortisol, we can better appreciate its role in our bodies and how it affects our health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical examination reveals CN III, CN IV and CN VI palsies, a Horner’s syndrome, and facial sensory loss in the distribution of the V1 (ophthalmic) and V2 (maxillary) divisions of the trigeminal cranial nerve.
Where is the causative abnormality located?Your Answer: Meckel’s cave
Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus
Explanation:Anatomy of Cranial Nerves and the Cavernous Sinus
The cavernous sinus is a crucial location for several cranial nerves and blood vessels. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, as well as the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) divisions of the V cranial nerve, pass through the cavernous sinus with the internal carotid artery. The V2 division of the trigeminal nerve exits via the foramen rotundum, while the rest of the cranial nerves enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.
Damage to these nerves can result in ophthalmoplegia, facial pain, and sensory loss. Involvement of sympathetic nerves around the internal carotid artery can lead to Horner’s syndrome. Tolosa Hunt syndrome is an idiopathic inflammatory process that affects the cavernous sinus and can cause a cluster of these symptoms.
Dorello’s canal carries cranial nerve VI (abducens) from the pontine cistern to the cavernous sinus. The zygomatic branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure. Meckel’s cave houses the trigeminal nerve ganglion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of light vaginal bleeding and mild discomfort during intercourse for the past two weeks. She reports feeling generally healthy. During a vaginal exam, she experiences tenderness and slight dryness. What is the next step to take in the clinic?
Your Answer: Refer to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) clinic
Correct Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound (TVUS)
Explanation:Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining of severe pain and discoloration in his right leg. He reports feeling pins and needles in the same leg, and the pain is present even when he is at rest. Upon examination, you notice that his right foot is pale, cold, and painful to the touch. You cannot feel any palpable pedal pulses. The patient has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes mellitus, and is a current smoker. What initial investigation should be performed to aid in the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI)
Correct Answer: Bedside handheld doppler
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, such as pain, pallor, pulselessness, a perishingly cold limb, paresthesia, and paralysis, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be the first-line investigation. This quick and easy test can be performed at the bedside and can help diagnose acute limb ischaemia by detecting an absent or reduced signal. Other investigations, such as ABPI, CT angiogram, and invasive angiography, may not be as readily available or appropriate for immediate use in an emergency situation. While ABPI is useful for assessing peripheral arterial perfusion in chronic peripheral arterial disease, it does not identify the site of arterial occlusion in acute limb ischaemia. CT angiogram and invasive angiography may be necessary to provide more detailed imaging and locate the arterial occlusion, but they are not the first-line investigation.
Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome is administered 300 mg of aspirin. How does aspirin work to produce an antiplatelet effect?
Your Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2
Explanation:The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of painful reduction in vision in her left eye. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced color vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light swings from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in her left eye.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Optic Neuritis in Multiple Sclerosis Patients
Optic neuritis is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) and can cause vision loss or pain. While the condition may improve on its own, treatment with steroids is often recommended. Intravenous methylprednisolone is the preferred route of administration for this medication, although it can cause side effects such as mood changes and weight gain.
Glatiramer acetate and interferon beta are first-line treatments for MS, but are not typically used for isolated episodes of optic neuritis. Natalizumab is a second-line treatment option for MS, but may not be appropriate for all patients.
It is important to note that oral prednisolone alone is not recommended for optic neuritis in MS patients due to an increased risk of recurrence. Overall, treatment options for optic neuritis in MS patients should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman complains of pain under her left thumb for the past 2 weeks. She denies any history of injury. She is left-handed and works as a writer.
During the physical examination, there is no apparent swelling or abnormality. However, there is tenderness over the ulnar styloid process. When the patient's thumb is grasped and the hand is radially deviated, she experiences sharp pain in the proximal radius.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that causes pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, specifically over the radial styloid process. It is more common in women aged 30-50 years old and is caused by inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. To diagnose this condition, a Finkelstein’s test can be performed, which involves pulling the patient’s thumb in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction to reproduce pain over the radial styloid process. Other conditions that can cause wrist or hand pain include carpal tunnel syndrome, osteoarthritis of the base of the thumb, and scaphoid fracture, but these conditions have different diagnostic tests and symptoms.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit. She presented with multiple seizures to the Emergency Department and is 8 months pregnant. She is intubated and ventilated; her blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 108 g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 30 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 134 U/l 10–40 IU/l
Urine analysis protein ++
Which of the following fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: The treatment of choice is delivery of the fetus
Explanation:Eclampsia: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Eclampsia is a serious complication of pregnancy that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can lead to seizures and coma if left untreated. The definitive treatment for eclampsia is delivery of the fetus, which should be undertaken as soon as the mother is stabilized.
Seizures should be treated with magnesium sulfate infusions, while phenytoin and diazepam are second-line treatment agents. Pregnant women should be monitored for signs of pre-eclampsia, which can progress to eclampsia if left untreated.
While it is important to rule out other intracranial pathology with CT imaging of the brain, it is not indicated in the treatment of eclampsia. Hydralazine or labetalol infusion is the treatment of choice for hypertension in the setting of pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
Following an eclamptic episode, around 50% of patients may experience a transient neurological deficit. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old school teacher who enjoys running long distances comes to the clinic complaining of cramp-like pain in the forefoot that has been bothering them for the past week. During the examination, tenderness was noted over the dorsal distal portion of the second metatarsal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lisfranc injury
Correct Answer: March fracture
Explanation:Common Foot Injuries and Their Causes
March fracture, Lisfranc injury, Hallux Rigidus, Jones fracture, and proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture are all common foot injuries that can cause significant pain and discomfort. A March fracture is a stress fracture of one of the metatarsal bones caused by repetitive stress, often seen in soldiers and hikers. Lisfranc injury occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus due to excessive kinetic energy, such as in a traffic collision. Hallux Rigidus is degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, resulting in stiffness and pain. Jones fracture is a fracture in the fifth metatarsal of the foot, while proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion.
Based on the onset of symptoms and tenderness over the distal portion of the second metatarsal, a March fracture is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention for any foot injury to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
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An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level of 130. He is currently asymptomatic and his heart failure and depression are well managed. He has mild pitting pedal oedema and is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram. What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days
Explanation:Managing Hyponatraemia: Treatment Options and Considerations
Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.
In cases where medication may be contributing to hyponatraemia, such as with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is important to weigh the benefits and risks of discontinuing the medication. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, and patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.
Other treatment options, such as increasing salt intake or administering oral magnesium supplementation, may not be appropriate for all cases of hyponatraemia. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and underlying conditions, such as heart failure, before deciding on a course of treatment.
Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires a careful and individualized approach to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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