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  • Question 1 - A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in bowel habit towards constipation arrives in the Emergency Department with a tender, distended abdomen. She has also been suffering with a chest infection recently and has known chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. Bowel sounds are absent. The rectum is empty on examination. Abdominal X-ray reveals distended loops of large bowel, consistent with large bowel obstruction.
      Which one of these investigations should be performed next?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin®

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Diagnostic Procedures for Bowel Obstruction in CKD Patients

      Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin® is a safe and effective diagnostic tool for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who present with bowel obstruction. This oral contrast medium provides crucial diagnostic information without posing a significant risk of renal injury. It is important to differentiate between large bowel obstruction and pseudo-obstruction, which can be achieved through imaging studies. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is not indicated in the absence of trauma. Gastroscopy is not necessary as the issue is bowel obstruction, and an ultrasound would not provide the level of detail needed. While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can provide quality images, a CT scan is more readily available and can be organized faster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents with severe vomiting to the Emergency Department. She was...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with severe vomiting to the Emergency Department. She was given a course of antibiotics a few days earlier (amoxicillin and metronidazole) for a sinus infection. You understand that she has had a few glasses of wine earlier in the day for a family gathering.
      Investigations: Urine 2+ blood, no protein
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 142 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 170 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 9.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 125 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her vomiting?

      Your Answer: Disulfiram reaction

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Disulfiram Reaction: A Potential Side-Effect of Certain Drugs

      The disulfiram reaction is a well-known side-effect of certain drugs, including metronidazole, chloral hydrate, griseofulvin, and disulfiram itself. This reaction occurs when the activity of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is blocked, leading to a significant increase in serum acetaldehyde levels following alcohol ingestion. Symptoms of the disulfiram reaction include vomiting, headache, dizziness, confusion, anxiety, and hypotension, as well as a sulfurous or garlic odor on the breath. Patients who are prescribed metronidazole or related drugs should be warned of this potential side-effect.

      While viral and bacterial gastroenteritis can also cause vomiting and diarrhea, the close relationship between alcohol and metronidazole makes the disulfiram reaction the more likely cause in this scenario. Gram-negative sepsis is unlikely given the absence of sepsis symptoms and normal white blood cell count. Understanding the disulfiram reaction is important for healthcare professionals to properly diagnose and manage this potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      63.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman, who was previously in good health, presents for review. For the past 2–3 months, she has suffered from increasing pain and stiffness, particularly in the early part of the day, affecting her shoulders and, most recently, her hips. There has also been low-grade fever and she has lost 4 kg in weight. Examination reveals normal proximal muscle strength.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 111 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 345 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Creatine kinase 31 IU/l 23–175 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Chest X-ray (CXR) Slight cardiomegaly, otherwise normal
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Shoulder and Pelvic Girdle Pain

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with shoulder and pelvic girdle pain without muscle weakness and a markedly raised ESR. Rapid improvement of symptoms with corticosteroids and a subsequent fall in ESR confirms the diagnosis. Temporal arthritis, a vasculitis associated with PMR, should also be considered in patients over 50 presenting with headache, vision loss, and jaw claudication. Myositis and dermatomyositis are less likely diagnoses due to the patient’s normal CK and lack of muscle weakness. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely given the patient’s age and the classic joint involvement pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department, having taken an overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department, having taken an overdose of paracetamol 12 h earlier. She claims that she took 30 500-mg tablets. She took the tablets along with half a litre of vodka and states that she does not normally drink alcohol. She appears to have mild alcohol intoxication.
      What is the most appropriate action to take in this case?

      Your Answer: Take bloods for paracetamol level, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests and a coagulation screen and assess the need for treatment with acetylcysteine once the results are available using the risk line on the paracetamol treatment chart

      Correct Answer: Commence treatment with acetylcysteine immediately, and take bloods for paracetamol level, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests and a coagulation screen

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Paracetamol Overdose

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to liver necrosis due to the accumulation of a by-product of paracetamol metabolism. The primary pathway for paracetamol metabolism becomes saturated, and it switches to a secondary pathway, generating NAPBQI. Treatment with acetylcysteine is necessary when there is a risk of overwhelming the body’s glutathione reserves with paracetamol by-products after a significant overdose.

      Immediate treatment with acetylcysteine is crucial, and blood tests for paracetamol level, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and a coagulation screen should be taken. Acetylcysteine is most effective when administered within 8 hours of overdose. In cases of delayed presentation, treatment with acetylcysteine should be started immediately, while awaiting blood test results.

      Activated charcoal is only effective within an hour of ingestion, and its administration after this point has limited benefit. Therefore, it is not recommended in this case.

      Observing the patient until there is no evidence of alcohol intoxication and then reassessing the situation is not a sufficient approach for a significant paracetamol overdose. This approach risks irreversible liver damage and possibly death. The risk line on the paracetamol treatment chart should be used to assess the need for treatment with acetylcysteine once blood test results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding - the mother noticed that the child had been difficult to settle in the day, on changing the child's nappy she noted a substance which looked like redcurrant jelly in the nappy contents. A diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is suspected.
      With regard to Meckel’s diverticulum, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: It may contain ectopic tissue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Abnormality of the Gastrointestinal Tract

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a common congenital abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract that affects around 2-4% of the population. It is an anatomical remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct, which connects the primitive midgut to the yolk sac during fetal development. Meckel’s diverticulum can contain various types of tissue, including gastric mucosa, liver tissue, carcinoid, or lymphoid tissue. It is usually located around 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is commonly found adjacent to the vermiform appendix.

      Symptoms of Meckel’s diverticulum can closely mimic appendicitis, and it can be a cause of bowel obstruction, perforation, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Bleeding is the most common cause of clinical presentations, and the presence of gastric mucosa is important as it can ulcerate and cause bleeding. If a normal-looking appendix is found during laparoscopy, it is important to exclude Meckel’s diverticulum as a potential cause of the patient’s symptoms. The mortality rate in untreated cases is estimated to be 2.5-15%.

      Advances in imaging have made it easier to detect Meckel’s diverticulum. It can be picked up on barium imaging, computed tomography enterography, and radionuclide technetium scanning (Meckel’s scan). Selective mesenteric arteriography may also be useful in patients with negative imaging results.

      In conclusion, understanding Meckel’s diverticulum is important for clinicians as it is a common congenital abnormality that can cause significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is mainly accountable for producing which...

    Correct

    • The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is mainly accountable for producing which hormones?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      The Adrenal Cortex and its Layers

      The adrenal cortex is composed of two layers: the cortical and medullary layers. The zona glomerulosa, found in the cortical layer, is responsible for the secretion of aldosterone. Meanwhile, the zona fasciculata, also in the cortical layer, mainly secretes glucocorticoids, while the zona reticularis secretes adrenal androgens. However, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens.

      In summary, the adrenal cortex is divided into two layers, each with its own specific functions. The zona glomerulosa secretes aldosterone, while the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis secrete glucocorticoids and adrenal androgens, respectively. Despite their specific functions, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A general practice is auditing the prescribing of antibiotics in patients diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A general practice is auditing the prescribing of antibiotics in patients diagnosed with acute otitis media.
      Regarding use of patients’ records in clinical audit in general practice, which one of the following statements is true for pediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Patient information must be anonymised for clinical audit within the general practice

      Correct Answer: A generic flyer posted to all the patients under the general practice is sufficient notification that their records may be used in a clinical audit

      Explanation:

      Understanding Confidentiality and Anonymity in Clinical Audits

      Clinical audits are an important part of ensuring quality healthcare, but it is crucial to maintain patient confidentiality and anonymity. The NHS Code of Practice on Confidentiality outlines the guidelines for using patient information in clinical audits.

      Patients must be made aware of how their information will be used within the practice, and generic flyers can be used for this purpose. However, patients must also be informed that they have the right to refuse their information being used. Once patients have been informed, consent does not need to be sought from each individual patient.

      Patient information must be anonymised once it is to be used outside of the GP practice, including for research being undertaken by a medical school or a healthcare trust. The six Caldicott principles should be considered when deciding whether to breach patient confidentiality.

      It is not essential to anonymise patient information if a clinical audit is being done within one practice, but patients must still be informed of how their information will be used. Overall, it is important to prioritize patient confidentiality and anonymity in all clinical audits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man comes in with symptoms of lower urinary tract and is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with symptoms of lower urinary tract and is given the option of a PSA test. As per NHS recommendations, which of the following factors may affect the PSA level?

      Your Answer: Vigorous exercise in the past 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.

      The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 59-year-old man is admitted to the respiratory ward with a suspected pulmonary...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man is admitted to the respiratory ward with a suspected pulmonary embolus. He presents with tachycardia, tachypnea, and saturations of 92% on 6L of oxygen. Suddenly, he becomes unresponsive and cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated. Despite the first cycle of chest compressions, the defibrillator displays sinus rhythm, but there are no detectable central pulses.

      What is the immediate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline 10 mL 1:10000

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is recommended for anaphylaxis at 0.5mg 1:1000 IM and for cardiac arrest at 1 mg 1:10000 IV. In a non-shockable rhythm like PEA, adrenaline should be given immediately. Alteplase is not a priority in this scenario. A 150J shock would be appropriate for a shockable rhythm, but not for PEA. Amiodarone is only given in a shockable rhythm after the 3rd shock.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Indications

      Adrenaline is a type of sympathomimetic amine that has both alpha and beta adrenergic stimulating properties. It is commonly used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. For anaphylaxis, the recommended adult life support adrenaline dose is 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV.

      Adrenaline is responsible for the fight or flight response and is released by the adrenal glands. It acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and causes vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, resulting in a narrow pulse pressure. It also increases cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, while causing vasodilation in skeletal muscle vessels.

      When adrenaline acts on α adrenergic receptors, it inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle. On the other hand, when it acts on β adrenergic receptors, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, stimulates ACTH, and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue.

      In case of accidental injection, the management involves local infiltration of phentolamine. Understanding the indications and actions of adrenaline is crucial in emergency situations, and proper administration can help save lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Karen is a 55-year-old woman who has late ankylosing spondylitis. What pulmonary feature...

    Incorrect

    • Karen is a 55-year-old woman who has late ankylosing spondylitis. What pulmonary feature might you observe on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Basal fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Apical fibrosis

      Explanation:

      In later stages of ankylosing spondylitis, apical fibrosis may be visible on a chest x-ray. Peripheral granulomas can develop due to inflammation, with potential causes including TB, infection, and sarcoidosis. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is commonly associated with sarcoidosis and may also indicate lymphoma.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
      Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?

      Your Answer: Normal PaCO2

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks

      Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the process by which inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) work? ...

    Correct

    • What is the process by which inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) work?

      Your Answer: Hyperpolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane following neurotransmitter binding

      Explanation:

      Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs)

      Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are electrical charges generated in response to synaptic input that prevent the generation of additional action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron. This potential is generated after the postsynaptic action potential has fired, causing the membrane potential to become more negative, similar to the refractory period in the action potential sequence of events. IPSPs can be produced by the opening of chemical-gated potassium channels or GABA receptor chloride channels. The end result is a push of the membrane potential to a more negative charge, decreasing the likelihood of additional stimuli depolarizing it.

      IPSPs are the opposite of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs), which promote the generation of additional postsynaptic action potentials. It is important to note that only hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane following neurotransmitter binding is correct. The other options are physiologically nonsensical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old male has been discovered unconscious by nursing staff. He has recently undergone surgery for a fractured hip.

      Upon examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. His oxygen saturation was 90% on air, and the nursing staff have administered oxygen at 15 litres/minute. His respiratory rate is 5 breaths per minute, and his chest is clear. The abdomen is soft, and his Glasgow coma scale is 10/15. Pupils are equal, small, and unreactive, and he has flaccid limbs bilaterally.

      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent review of the drug chart

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Toxicity in Post-Surgical Patients

      When a patient exhibits symptoms of opioid toxicity, such as reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, it is important to review their treatment chart to confirm if they have received opiate analgesia following recent surgery. If confirmed, the patient should be prescribed naloxone to reverse the effects of the opioid and may require ventilatory support.

      Opioid toxicity can be a serious complication in post-surgical patients, and prompt management is crucial to prevent further harm. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of opioid toxicity and to have a plan in place for managing it if it occurs. By being vigilant and prepared, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his right upper quadrant. He reports that the pain is sharp and worsens when he takes a breath. Over the past few days, he has been feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath, and he has been coughing up bloody, purulent sputum. He has a fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. He recently returned from a week-long vacation during which he consumed 20 units of alcohol per day. What is the most probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Upper quadrant abdominal pain can be a symptom of lower lobe pneumonia.

      Despite the patient’s complaint of abdominal pain, their other symptoms suggest that they may have pneumonia. The presence of signs of infection (such as fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea), along with shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum, all point towards a diagnosis of pneumonia. This question serves to emphasize that pneumonia can sometimes manifest as abdominal pain, particularly in cases of lower lobe pneumonia.

      It is important to note that hepatitis, gallstones, and pancreatitis do not typically cause shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum. Additionally, the patient’s history of high alcohol intake is not relevant to this question.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain. She reports experiencing fever and shortness of breath for the past week. Upon examination, there are reduced breath sounds on the right side, and a chest X-ray reveals a right pleural effusion without loculation. The patient consents to a thoracentesis to obtain a sample of the pleural fluid.
      What is the optimal location for needle insertion?

      Your Answer: Above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement for Thoracentesis: Avoiding Nerve and Vessel Damage

      When performing a thoracentesis to sample pleural fluid, it is crucial to ensure that the needle is inserted into a pocket of fluid. This is typically done with ultrasound guidance, but in some cases, doctors must percuss the thorax to identify an area of increased density. However, it is important to remember that the intercostal neurovascular bundle runs inferior to the rib, so the needle should be inserted above the rib to avoid damaging nearby nerves and vessels. The needle is generally inserted through the patient’s back to minimize discomfort and decrease the risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle. The BTS guidelines recommend aspirating from the triangle of safety under the axilla, but it is common practice to aspirate more posteriorly. Of the options listed, only inserting the needle above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line meets all of these criteria. Other options are either too high, too low, or risk damaging nearby nerves and vessels. Proper placement is crucial for a successful and safe thoracentesis procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man is currently in intensive care after experiencing a fall at...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is currently in intensive care after experiencing a fall at home resulting in an open fracture of his right tibia/fibula and simple fractures in ribs 3-6. What steps can be taken to prevent the development of a chest infection in this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest physiotherapy and adequate analgesia

      Explanation:

      Proper pain management is crucial in cases of rib fractures to ensure that breathing is not hindered by discomfort. Inadequate ventilation due to pain can increase the risk of chest infections. To prevent this, patients may benefit from chest physiotherapy and breathing exercises, along with appropriate pain relief. CPAP may be used at night to keep the airway open in patients with obstructive sleep apnoea. While prophylactic antibiotics have been shown to reduce the incidence of empyema and pneumonia in some studies of chest trauma, their routine use is controversial due to the risk of antibiotic resistance. High flow oxygen is not recommended in the absence of hypoxaemia as it does not improve the patient’s ability to take deep breaths and cough effectively.

      A rib fracture is a break in any of the bony segments of a rib. It is commonly caused by blunt trauma to the chest wall, but can also be due to underlying diseases that weaken the bone structure of the ribs. Rib fractures can occur singly or in multiple places along the length of a rib and may be associated with soft tissue injuries to the surrounding muscles or the underlying lung. Risk factors include chest injuries in major trauma, osteoporosis, steroid use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and cancer metastases.

      The most common symptom of a rib fracture is severe, sharp chest wall pain, which is often more severe with deep breaths or coughing. Chest wall tenderness over the site of the fractures and visible bruising of the skin may also be present. Auscultation of the chest may reveal crackles or reduced breath sounds if there is an underlying lung injury. In some cases, pain and underlying lung injury can result in a reduction in ventilation, causing a drop in oxygen saturation. Pneumothorax, a serious complication of a rib fracture, can present with reduced chest expansion, reduced breath sounds, and hyper-resonant percussion on the affected side. Flail chest, a consequence of multiple rib fractures, can impair ventilation of the lung on the side of injury and may require treatment with invasive ventilation and surgical fixation to prevent complications.

      Diagnostic tests for rib fractures include a CT scan of the chest, which shows the fractures in 3D as well as the associated soft tissue injuries. Chest x-rays may provide suboptimal views and do not provide any information about the surrounding soft tissue injury. In cases of pathological fractures secondary to tumour metastases, a CT scan to look for a primary (if not already identified) is also required. Management of rib fractures involves conservative treatment with good analgesia to ensure breathing is not affected by pain. Inadequate ventilation may predispose to chest infections. Nerve blocks can be considered if the pain is not controlled by normal analgesia. Surgical fixation can be considered to manage pain if this is still an issue and the fractures have failed to heal following 12 weeks of conservative management. Flail chest segments are the only form of rib fractures that should be urgently discussed with cardiothoracic surgery as they can impair ventilation and result in significant lung trauma. Lung complications such as pneumothorax or haemothorax should be managed as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are requested to examine a 65-year-old man at your clinic. He was...

    Correct

    • You are requested to examine a 65-year-old man at your clinic. He was diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) 18 months ago after being invited to the national screening program. The aneurysm was initially measured at 4.5 cm in diameter. He has recently undergone his follow-up scan and was informed that his aneurysm has now increased to 5.8 cm in diameter. The patient is asymptomatic and feels healthy.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Two week wait referral to vascular surgery for repair

      Explanation:

      If an aneurysm is rapidly enlarging, regardless of its size, it should be repaired even if the patient is asymptomatic. In this case, the patient’s AAA was detected through a one-time screening program for males at 65 years of age. Although the aneurysm is still below the referral threshold of 5.5 cm, it has grown more than 1.0cm in one year, necessitating an urgent referral to vascular surgery via the two-week wait pathway for repair.

      Discharging the patient from yearly ultrasound surveillance is not recommended, as continued monitoring is necessary. Yearly ultrasound surveillance is appropriate for aneurysms measuring 3-4.4 cm or if the aneurysm has grown. Increasing the frequency of ultrasound surveillance to every 3 months is appropriate for aneurysms measuring 4.5-5.4 cm, but in this case, urgent referral for repair is necessary due to the substantial growth of the aneurysm.

      Although the patient is not displaying symptoms of aneurysm rupture, emergency repair is not appropriate.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old girl from Manchester is presented to the emergency room by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl from Manchester is presented to the emergency room by her father with complaints of abdominal discomfort for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, there is a suspicion of appendicitis and a recommendation for hospitalization is made. However, the patient refuses to be admitted as she has a concert to attend tonight. Despite being fully informed of the potential consequences of untreated appendicitis, she insists on leaving. What is the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: As he has demonstrated capacity his wishes should be respected

      Correct Answer: His mother may overrule his wishes

      Explanation:

      In England and Wales, a child can provide consent for treatment, but cannot decline it. The demonstration of capacity, as per the Fraser guidelines, is not a significant factor.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, disoriented, and experiences frequent falls. Upon examination, you observe that he has difficulty with balance and coordination, and bilateral lateral rectus palsy with nystagmus. His sensory examination reveals a polyneuropathy, and his pulse is 90 bpm. There is no agitation or tremor noted on examination.
      What is the most urgent treatment that should be administered to this patient?

      Your Answer: Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.

      When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female presents with severe anaemia and a skull x-ray shows a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with severe anaemia and a skull x-ray shows a 'hair on end' appearance. Where is this appearance most commonly observed on a skull x-ray?

      Your Answer: Thalassaemia

      Explanation:

      Skeletal Abnormalities in Thalassaemia Major

      Patients with thalassaemia major often exhibit skeletal abnormalities, which can be observed in various parts of the body. One of the most notable changes is an expanded bone marrow space, which leads to the thinning of the bone cortex. This can be particularly striking in the skull, where it can cause a hair on end appearance. While this phenomenon can also occur in sickle cell disease, it is much less common.

      In addition to changes in the skull, bone abnormalities can also be seen in the long bones, vertebrae, and pelvis. These changes can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life, as they can cause pain, deformities, and other complications. As such, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these skeletal abnormalities and to monitor patients for any signs of progression or deterioration. With proper management and treatment, many of these complications can be mitigated or prevented, allowing patients with thalassaemia major to lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      33.8
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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old student presents to her general practitioner because of a tremor she...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to her general practitioner because of a tremor she has noticed in her left hand over the past few months. On examination, she has subtle dysarthria and a wide-based gait. When the doctor passively moves her left elbow, he notices hypertonia which is independent of whether he moves her elbows slowly or briskly. She has a history of bipolar disorder and was started on olanzapine by her psychiatrist 2 weeks ago.
      Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urine toxicology

      Correct Answer: 24-h urine collection

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Wilson’s Disease: Understanding the Different Tests

      Wilson’s disease is a rare disorder of copper metabolism that affects young people and can cause neurologic and psychiatric symptoms, as well as hepatic damage. To confirm a diagnosis of Wilson’s disease, a 24-hour urine collection is the investigation of choice. This test quantifies copper excretion, and a value of >0.64 ÎĽmol in a 24-hour period is suggestive of Wilson’s disease. Additionally, a Dat scan can be used as an ancillary test to confirm a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease, but it is less likely to be useful in cases of Wilson’s disease. Urine toxicology is a reasonable test to perform on almost anyone presenting with neurologic symptoms, but toxic ingestion is less likely to account for Wilson’s disease. A CT brain is useful for looking for evidence of haemorrhage, trauma or large intracranial mass lesions, but an MRI brain is the neuroimaging of choice for Wilson’s disease as it provides greater soft tissue detail. EEG is not useful as a confirmatory test for Wilson’s disease, but it can be used to look for evidence of seizure activity or to look for areas of cortical hyperexcitability that might predispose to future seizures.

      Understanding the Different Investigations for Wilson’s Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents, reporting amenorrhoea. The parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents, reporting amenorrhoea. The parents mention that their daughter has learning difficulties and requires extra support at school. During the examination, the doctor observes sparse breast development, broad shoulders, a wide neck, and elevated blood pressure. What is the probable chromosomal abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: 47 XXX

      Correct Answer: 45 XO

      Explanation:

      Common Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Associated Conditions

      Chromosomal abnormalities can result in a variety of conditions and symptoms. Here are some of the most common chromosomal abnormalities and their associated conditions:

      45 XO: This chromosomal abnormality is associated with Turner syndrome, which affects females who have lost one X chromosome. Symptoms may include sparse breast development, broad shoulders, high blood pressure, and a wide neck.

      47 XXX: Triple X syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality in which females have an extra X chromosome. While some patients may be asymptomatic, others may experience learning difficulties, tall stature, or microcephaly.

      47 XXY: Klinefelter syndrome is a condition that affects males who have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms may include tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility.

      46 XY: This is the karyotype for sex in normal men, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur. Diagnosis can be complex and patients suspected of a genetic condition should be referred to genetics services.

      46 XX: This is the karyotype for sex in normal women, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur. Diagnosis can be complex and patients suspected of a genetic condition should be referred to genetics services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      53.3
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old transgender male patient (assigned female at birth) comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old transgender male patient (assigned female at birth) comes to the clinic seeking advice on contraception. He is receiving testosterone therapy from the gender identity clinic and has a uterus, but plans to have surgery in the future. He is sexually active with a male partner and wants to explore other contraceptive options besides condoms. What recommendations can you provide for this patient?

      Your Answer: All hormonal contraception is contraindicated

      Correct Answer: A combined oral contraceptive pill is not suitable

      Explanation:

      Not all hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated for patients assigned female at birth undergoing testosterone therapy. The combined oral contraceptive pill, which contains oestrogen, should be avoided as it may interfere with the effects of testosterone therapy. However, the copper intrauterine device and progesterone-only pill are acceptable options as they do not have any adverse effects on testosterone therapy. The vaginal ring, which also contains oestrogen, should also be avoided.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.

      For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.

      For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.

      In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.

      Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 2-week-old infant is presented to the clinic for evaluation. The baby was...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-week-old infant is presented to the clinic for evaluation. The baby was delivered at 38 weeks and has been breastfeeding without any issues. The mother reports that the baby seems excessively fatigued. During the assessment, a history is obtained, and some basic observations are documented. What would be an alarming observation?

      Your Answer: Head circumference in the 90th centile

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 90 beats per minute and regular

      Explanation:

      For infants to be considered healthy, their respiratory rate should fall within the range of 30-60 breaths per minute. Additionally, their pulse should be regular and fall between 100-160 beats per minute for newborns. Their body temperature should be around 37 Celsius, and they should have regular bowel movements and urination.

      Child Health Surveillance in the UK

      Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. An ultrasound scan is also performed to detect any fetal abnormalities, and blood tests are done to check for neural tube defects.

      After birth, a clinical examination of the newborn is conducted, and a hearing screening test is performed. The mother is given a Personal Child Health Record, which contains important information about the child’s health. Within the first month, a heel-prick test is done to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks.

      In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is done at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention.

      In preschool, a national orthoptist-led programme for preschool vision screening is set to be introduced. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and attention to promote their health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      33.9
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old university student comes to the Emergency Department following a fireworks injury....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old university student comes to the Emergency Department following a fireworks injury. She reports experiencing intense pain in her forearm. Upon examination, her left forearm appears pale pink and is extremely sensitive, with visible blisters. You conduct a palpation of the affected area and find no loss of sensation throughout the region.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Third-degree burn

      Correct Answer: Second-degree, superficial

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Burns and Their Characteristics

      Burns can be classified into different types based on their severity and depth of tissue damage. Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is important for proper management and treatment.

      First-degree burn: This type of burn affects only the epidermis and presents with redness, pain, and mild swelling. Blisters are not a feature of this type of burn.

      Second-degree, superficial burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and part of the dermis, resulting in pink-colored skin with painful blisters. Management involves cleansing the wound, leaving the blisters intact, using a non-adherent dressing, and reviewing in 24 hours.

      Second-degree, deep burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and deeper layers of the dermis, resulting in waxy skin with reduced blanching to pressure and reduced sensation. It is frequently less painful than superficial dermal burns.

      Third-degree burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and all of the dermis, resulting in white/brown/black-colored skin without pain or blister formation. The skin will be dry and leathery and will not heal.

      Mixed-depth burn: This type of burn involves features of different types of burns and requires individualized management.

      Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is crucial for proper management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      32.5
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old female with a history of depression is being evaluated. She is...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a history of depression is being evaluated. She is presently using St John's Wort, which she purchased from a nearby health food store, and a combination oral contraceptive pill. What is the probable outcome of taking both drugs simultaneously?

      Your Answer: Reduced effectiveness of combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort: An Alternative Treatment for Mild-Moderate Depression

      St John’s Wort has been found to be as effective as tricyclic antidepressants in treating mild-moderate depression. Its mechanism of action is thought to be similar to SSRIs, although it has also been shown to inhibit noradrenaline uptake. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises against its use due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in the nature of preparations, and potential serious interactions with other drugs.

      In clinical trials, the adverse effects of St John’s Wort were similar to those of a placebo. However, it can cause serotonin syndrome and is an inducer of the P450 system, which can lead to decreased levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be reduced.

      Overall, St John’s Wort may be a viable alternative treatment for those with mild-moderate depression. However, caution should be exercised due to potential interactions with other medications and the lack of standardization in dosing and preparation. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with her partner in the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with her partner in the late evening. She admits to taking an unknown amount of paracetamol tablets between 1pm and 2 pm yesterday and now regrets it. She did not seek medical attention until her partner convinced her to do so today. The patient has no medical history and feels fine, but there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant upon abdominal examination. Blood test results are pending. What is the best course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Commence N-acetylcysteine immediately

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with a paracetamol overdose more than 24 hours after the incident and shows signs of jaundice or hepatic tenderness, immediate administration of N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is necessary. Waiting for blood test results is not recommended in such cases. However, if the patient does not show any signs of liver toxicity, treatment can be initiated based on the results of blood tests, specifically if the ALT level is above the normal limit. Waiting for the detection of serum paracetamol concentration is also not recommended. While psychiatric assessment is important for all patients with non-accidental overdose, in this case, the priority should be the immediate treatment of liver toxicity with NAC.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.7
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presented to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presented to the Emergency Department with diaphoresis, severe central chest pain, and breathlessness. An ECG showed ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Where is the probable location of the responsible arterial stenosis?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and Their Associated Leads

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. Each artery supplies a specific area of the heart and can be identified by the leads on an electrocardiogram (ECG).

      The right coronary artery supplies the inferior part of the left ventricle, interventricular septum, and right ventricle. The circumflex artery predominantly supplies the left free wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads I, aVL, and V5–6. The left anterior descending artery supplies the septum, apex, and anterior wall of the left ventricle and would be picked up by leads V1–4.

      Proximal aortic stenosis is very rare and would cause problems of perfusion in distal organs before reducing enough blood supply to the heart to cause a myocardial infarction. The left main stem splits into both the circumflex and left anterior descending arteries. Acute occlusion at this location would be catastrophic and a person is unlikely to survive to hospital. It would be picked up by leads V1–6, I, and aVL.

      Understanding the specific areas of the heart supplied by each coronary artery and their associated leads on an ECG can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.8
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  • Question 29 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension following ambulatory monitoring, which showed her...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension following ambulatory monitoring, which showed her average blood pressure to be 160/100 mmHg. She is prescribed 2.5 mg ramipril therapy. Her General Practitioner (GP) performs an assessment of her renal function:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.6 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 92 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      One month later, the patient’s blood pressure was recorded as 116/76 mmHg and they have repeat renal function tests performed:
      Investigation Result
      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 5.1 mmol/l
      Urea 6.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 118 µmol/l
      What should the GP do based on these results?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and switch to an aldosterone receptor blocker (ARB)

      Correct Answer: Continue ramipril and re-check urea and electrolytes (U&Es) in 1-months’ time

      Explanation:

      Managing Ramipril-Induced Renal Dysfunction in Hypertensive Patients

      When treating hypertensive patients with ramipril, it is important to monitor their renal function closely. If creatinine levels increase by 30% above baseline, treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be stopped. However, if the increase is less than 30%, the medication can be continued. In such cases, it is common for serum potassium levels to rise, which is a known side effect of ACE inhibitors.

      In the case of a patient whose renal function has deteriorated slightly following the commencement of ramipril, it is recommended to continue the medication and re-check urea and electrolytes (U&Es) in 1-months’ time. However, if the patient’s renal function remains within acceptable limits, a dose reduction is not recommended.

      Switching from an ACE inhibitor to an aldosterone receptor blocker (ARB) is not necessary in cases where the patient is responding well to the medication, as both have similar nephrotoxic potential. Similarly, switching to a calcium-channel blocker may be considered if the patient demonstrates a response or intolerability to ACE inhibitors.

      It is important not to leave hypertensive patients without any antihypertensive medications. Therefore, temporarily withholding ramipril for two weeks and then re-checking blood pressure and U&Es is not recommended. Close monitoring and appropriate management of ramipril-induced renal dysfunction can help ensure optimal treatment outcomes for hypertensive patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.2
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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Considering the mitochondrial inheritance pattern of this disorder, which of the following family members is at the highest risk of being affected?

      Your Answer: Sister

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that if a mother has the condition, all of her children will also inherit it. As a result, her sister will also be affected.

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      28.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
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Medicine (2/2) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
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