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Question 1
Correct
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A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful right big toe. Joint aspiration reveals no organisms, but there are numerous neutrophils containing long needle-shaped crystals.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gouty arthritis
Explanation:Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by hyperuricaemia, most commonly affecting middle-aged men. Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and examination of joint fluid. Treatment is with high-dose NSAIDs or coxibs initially, followed by allopurinol in the long term. RA presents as an acute monoarticular arthritis in only 10% of cases, and is more common in women between the ages of 35 and 55. Septic arthritis and gonococcal arthritis are bacterial infections that present with a hot, red, swollen joint and constitutional symptoms. Reactive arthritis is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually presenting as an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing these headaches once every few weeks, with each episode lasting for a day. Prior to the onset of the headache, he sees zig-zag lines. The headaches are typically on the right side of his head, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. He finds some relief by sleeping in a dark, quiet room. Apart from this, he is healthy.
What is the initial approach to managing his condition?Your Answer: Oral ibuprofen
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for paediatric migraines is ibuprofen. Sumatriptan nasal spray is only approved for use in children over the age of 12, and oral sumatriptan is not approved for those under 18. Codeine and oramorph are not recommended for treating migraines in children. Indomethacin is also not typically used for paediatric migraines.
Understanding Headaches in Children
Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.
When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.
Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.
In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the orthogeriatric ward following a femoral fracture from a fall. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus type 2, benign prostate hyperplasia, and severe hay fever. After a few days, the patient reports experiencing suprapubic discomfort and difficulty urinating. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Codeine
Explanation:Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioid analgesia, including the use of codeine. Other medications that can cause this issue include tricyclic antidepressants, anticholinergics, and NSAIDs. Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is often prescribed to improve symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia and reduce resistance to bladder outflow. Duloxetine, an SSRI used to treat diabetic neuropathy, does not typically cause urinary retention. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is a second-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia when alpha-blockers are not effective, as it reduces prostatic bulk.
Drugs that can cause urinary retention
Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is hospitalized for pneumonia and has a medical history of Addison's disease, taking hydrocortisone (20 mg in the mornings and 10mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?
Your Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40mg mornings and 20mg afternoon
Explanation:Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of fever and sore throat. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin despite developing a rash a few days into the course. On examination, he is febrile and his tonsils are inflamed but no exudate is present; there are petechial spots on his palate and he has a widespread maculopapular rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Sore Throat and Fever
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common cause of sore throat and fever in adolescents. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and lethargy. The duration of symptoms is longer than other causes of acute sore throat, and examination findings may include lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Palatal petechiae is a distinguishing feature between glandular fever and streptococcal tonsillitis. A maculopapular rash may also be present, but it is important to note that amoxicillin can cause a rash in patients with glandular fever. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bacterial tonsillitis, candidiasis, and mumps are other possible differential diagnoses. However, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe mucocutaneous reaction to medications or infections, bacterial tonsillitis presents with enlarged, inflamed tonsils with exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy, candidiasis presents with white coating of buccal membranes, throat, or tongue, and mumps presents with bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Therefore, based on the patient’s history and examination findings, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are conducting an interview with a 24-year-old man who has arrived at the emergency department after self-harming. As you converse with him, you observe that his facial expression is devoid of emotion, his tone of voice is flat, and his body language lacks any animation. This is evident even when he talks about his traumatic experiences of childhood abuse. How would you record this in your documentation?
Your Answer: Dissociated affect
Correct Answer: Flattened affect
Explanation:Affect and mood can be easily confused during a mental state exam. Affect refers to the current emotional state that can be observed, while mood is the predominant emotional state over a longer period. It is helpful to think of affect as the weather on a particular day and mood as the overall climate.
Mood is determined by the patient’s history and can be described as their emotional state over the past month. Symptoms of depression or mania can be used to determine the patient’s mood. On the other hand, affect is the emotional state that is currently being displayed by the patient during the assessment. It is expressed through facial expressions, voice tone, and body movements. Affect can be normal, restricted, blunted, or flat. Labile affect is characterized by abrupt shifts in emotions.
In the given scenario, the patient is displaying a flattened affect, which means there is no expression of emotion. Apathy may be a symptom present in the patient’s history, but the scenario is specifically referring to the current observed emotional state. Depressed mood may also be present, but it is discussed in the patient’s history and is not the same as affect. Symptoms of depressed mood include anhedonia, low mood, lack of energy, poor concentration, and poor sleep.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman underwent bowel resection and 48 hours post-operation, she became breathless, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and complained of pleuritic chest pain.
Which of the following is the most definitive investigation to request?Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism: A Comparison
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available for PE, but not all are equally effective. Here, we compare the most commonly used tests and their suitability for diagnosing PE.
CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard diagnostic test for PE. It is highly sensitive and specific, making it the most definitive investigation for PE. Patients with a history of recent surgery and subsequent symptoms pointing towards PE should undergo a CTPA.
Electrocardiography (ECG) is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE. Although classic ECG changes may occur in some patients with PE, they are not specific to the condition and may also occur in individuals without PE.
Chest radiograph is less definitive than CTPA for diagnosing PE. While it may show some abnormalities, many chest radiographs are normal in PE. Therefore, it is not a reliable test for diagnosing PE.
Echocardiogram may show right-sided heart dysfunction in very large PEs, but it is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE and is not definitive in the investigation of PE.
Positron emission tomography (PET)/CT of the chest is not recommended for the investigation of PE. It is a radioisotope functional imaging technique used in the imaging of tumours and neuroimaging, but not for diagnosing PE.
In conclusion, CTPA is the most definitive diagnostic test for PE and should be used in patients with a high suspicion of the condition. Other tests may be used in conjunction with CTPA or in specific cases, but they are not as reliable or definitive as CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.
The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident resulting in chest injuries. The paramedics had trouble establishing IV access. Upon arrival, he is unresponsive with a ventricular fibrillation ECG. ALS is initiated, but multiple attempts at cannulation fail. However, successful intubation is achieved.
What is the best course of action for administering ALS medications in this scenario?Your Answer: Intraosseous line insertion
Explanation:If it is not possible to obtain IV access in ALS, medications should be administered through the intraosseous route (IO) instead of the tracheal route, which is no longer advised.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.Your Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.
DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.
Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.
In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of bilateral gritty and sore eyes that have persisted for several weeks. He denies any history of trauma and has not experienced any discharge. He has not noticed any blurred vision. The patient's medical history is significant only for back pain, which he is managing with paracetamol and amitriptyline. During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/6 corrected bilaterally, and there are no apparent corneal or pupillary abnormalities. His eyes are not red, and eye movements are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Correct Answer: Dry eye syndrome
Explanation:Dry eye syndrome is a common cause of bilateral sore eyes with a gritty or burning sensation. This can be treated with topical lubrication, such as hypromellose. While an examination may appear normal, fluorescein staining can reveal superficial punctate staining and Schirmer’s test may indicate reduced tear production. It is important to consider allergic conjunctivitis as a possible differential diagnosis, especially if symptoms persist for a prolonged period of time and there are no signs of conjunctival involvement.
Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome
Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.
Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication is recommended for controlling her heart rate?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.
The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had no complications so far. During her visit, she mentions that her 4-year-old son was recently diagnosed with chickenpox. The patient is concerned about the potential impact on her pregnancy as she cannot recall if she had chickenpox as a child. What would be the appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange a blood test for varicella antibodies, then immediately commence varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) and adjust once the result arrives
Correct Answer: Arrange a blood test for varicella antibodies and await the result
Explanation:In cases where a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox and her immunity status is uncertain, it is recommended to conduct a blood test to check for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be not immune and is over 20 weeks pregnant, either VZIG or aciclovir can be given. However, VZIG is the only option for those under 20 weeks pregnant and not immune. It is important to note that VZIG is effective up to 10 days post-exposure, so there is no need to administer it immediately after the blood test. Prescribing medication without confirming the patient’s immunity status is not recommended. Similarly, reassuring the patient and sending her away without following proper prophylaxis protocol is not appropriate. It is also important to note that the varicella-zoster vaccine is not currently part of the UK’s vaccination schedule and does not play a role in the management of pregnant women.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas
Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:
Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.
Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.
Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.
Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman started treatment for tuberculosis infection 3 months ago and now complains of a burning sensation at the base of her feet. Which medication could be responsible for this new symptom?
Your Answer: Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid treatment may lead to a deficiency of vitamin B6, which can result in peripheral neuropathy. This is a well-known side effect of TB medications that is often tested in medical school exams. The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of peripheral neuropathy caused by a lack of vitamin B6 due to Isoniazid therapy. Typically, pyridoxine hydrochloride is prescribed concurrently with Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy.
The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body
Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
One of the primary causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is a medication used to treat tuberculosis. When the body lacks vitamin B6, it can lead to peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord. It can also cause sideroblastic anemia, which is a type of anemia that affects the production of red blood cells.
Overall, vitamin B6 plays a crucial role in the body, and its deficiency can have severe consequences. It is essential to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of this vitamin through a balanced diet or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Correct
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Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?
Your Answer: Hyponatremia occurs significantly more often in Legionnaires’ disease than in other pneumonias
Explanation:Understanding Legionnaires’ Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Legionnaires’ disease is a type of pneumonia that is caused by the Legionella bacteria. This disease is often overlooked as a possible cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but it is consistently ranked among the top three or four most common causes. The bacteria are found in water sources, and most patients contract the disease through aspiration.
One of the key symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease is hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. This symptom is more commonly associated with Legionnaires’ disease than with other types of pneumonia. The disease is also more likely to occur in patients who are immunocompromised, as cell-mediated immunity appears to be the primary host defense mechanism against Legionella infection.
The urinary antigen test is the preferred initial test for Legionnaires’ disease, but it has low sensitivity and is not particularly specific. The test detects only L. pneumophila serogroup 1, which causes most cases of the disease. Specific therapy includes antibiotics that can achieve high intracellular concentrations, such as macrolides, quinolones, or ketolides.
Predisposing factors for Legionnaires’ disease include age over 50, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol intake, chronic lung disease, and immunosuppression. High fever and gastrointestinal symptoms are clinical clues to this disease. It is important for healthcare providers to consider Legionnaires’ disease as a possible cause of pneumonia, especially in patients with these risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of feeling down. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Start fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT
Explanation:Based on the man’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention is recommended for this level of depression, with an SSRI being the first choice antidepressant. Therefore, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment in this case. Referral to psychiatry is not necessary at this time. Venlafaxine would be considered as a later option if other antidepressants were ineffective. While fluoxetine is a good first-line antidepressant, it should be combined with a psychological intervention for severe depression. CBT alone is suitable for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, an antidepressant in combination with psychological intervention is recommended.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female complains of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. The doctor suspects meralgia paraesthetica. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Anterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
Correct Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Explanation:A possible cause of burning pain in the thigh is compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve, which can lead to a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. Meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by burning pain in the thigh, may result from compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.
Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.
Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is taking oral antibiotics for mild diverticulitis. He goes to a wedding and later complains of palpitations, vomiting, headache, and flushing. His heart rate is 110 beats/min. He has no significant medical history and no known allergies to any medication or food. He denies using recreational drugs but admits to having one beer at the wedding. What antibiotic is he likely taking?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:When metronidazole and ethanol are taken together, it can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, which can cause symptoms such as flushing in the head and neck, nausea, vomiting, sweating, headaches, and palpitations. Additionally, alcohol consumption should be avoided when taking cefoperazone, a cephalosporin, as it can also lead to a disulfiram-like reaction.
Metronidazole is an antibiotic that functions by producing reactive cytotoxic metabolites within bacteria. This medication can cause adverse effects such as a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol and an increased anticoagulant effect when taken with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?
Your Answer: Edinburgh Scale
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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In the differential diagnosis of cognitive decline, which of the following is the single most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic
Explanation:Misconceptions about Dementia: Debunking Common Myths
Dementia is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about dementia that need to be debunked:
1. In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic: An EEG is abnormal in approximately 90% of cases of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, showing characteristic changes (i.e. periodic sharp wave complexes).
2. A multi-infarct aetiology is more common than the Alzheimer disease type: Multi-infarct dementia is the second most common type of dementia in people aged over 65 years.
3. A CT scan will reliably distinguish between Alzheimer disease and multi-infarct dementia: The diagnosis of both AD and multi-infarct dementia remains essentially a clinical one (and can only be definitively confirmed at autopsy).
4. In Alzheimer disease a gait disorder is seen at an early stage: Gait disturbances are usually a late sign of AD.
5. Visual hallucinations are typical of Alzheimer’s disease: Visual hallucinations, often very vivid and colourful, are typical of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD), not of AD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of ongoing fatigue and tiredness. She has a medical history of hypertension and eczema, and no significant family history. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained:
- Hb: 141 g/l
- Platelets: 222 * 109/l
- WBC: 6.3 * 109/l
- Neuts: 3.9 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 1.2 * 109/l
- Na+: 140 mmol/l
- K+: 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.9 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 83 µmol/l
- CRP: 4.1 mg/l
- TSH: 6.2 mu/l
- Free T4: 6 pmol/l
What is the most likely pathology causing her symptoms?Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, specifically Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. This is indicated by a presentation and blood test showing hypothyroidism with a raised TSH, suggesting a failure of the thyroid gland to respond to pituitary stimulation or a primary hypothyroidism. While iodine deficiency is the main cause of hypothyroidism worldwide, it is rare in the UK. Papillary thyroid cancer does not affect thyroid function, as the cancer cells do not secrete thyroxine. Although De Quervain’s can cause a primary hypothyroidism with similar symptoms, it is much less common than Hashimoto’s and therefore an incorrect answer.
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by features of hypothyroidism, such as a firm, non-tender goitre, and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions, including coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman has a history of excessive sweating, palpitations and weight loss for the past six months. She now has a headache.
On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. Her pulse is bounding and 115 beats per minute and she has a tremor and looks pale. The rest of the examination is normal.
Excess production of which of the following hormones is most likely to be the cause of this woman’s signs and symptoms?Your Answer: Catecholamines
Explanation:Explanation of Hypertension and Possible Causes
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. In the case of this patient, their symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and can lead to malignant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism and excess cortisol production (Cushing’s syndrome) are other possible causes of hypertension, but they do not explain the patient’s symptoms. Abnormalities in renin, which regulates blood pressure, can also contribute to hypertension. Hyperthyroidism could explain most of the patient’s symptoms, but it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of breath, especially during physical activity. He has also been experiencing a persistent dry cough for the past 8 weeks. The doctor suspects pulmonary fibrosis and orders spirometry testing.
The patient's predicted spirometry values are as follows:
FEV1 4.25L
FVC 5.10L
Transfer capacity (TLCO) Normal
What are the probable spirometry findings for this individual?Your Answer: FEV1 = 2.65, FVC = 4.19, TLCO = Decreased
Correct Answer: FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.34, TLCO = Decreased
Explanation:Once the predicted values are obtained, the FEV1:FVC ratio can be evaluated. If this ratio is less than 70, it indicates a potential issue.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is seeking screening for sexually transmitted infections due to starting a new relationship. What is the most frequently diagnosed sexually transmitted infection in the UK?
Your Answer: Chlamydia
Explanation:Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult blood test as part of the national screening programme. While discussing colonoscopy, he inquires about the percentage of patients with a positive faecal occult blood test who have colorectal cancer. What is the most precise response?
Your Answer: 20 - 30%
Correct Answer: 5 - 15%
Explanation:The likelihood of having an adenoma increases with a positive result on a faecal occult blood test.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She reports experiencing random episodes of redness on her face, particularly after consuming alcohol. She also mentions an increase in the number of spots on her cheeks and wonders if these symptoms are related. During the examination, the GP observes two small telangiectasia on the nose and left cheek, as well as a few small papules on each cheek. What management options should the GP suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Oral oxytetracycline
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, topical metronidazole is recommended. This patient’s symptoms, including flushing and papules, suggest acne rosacea, and as they only have a few telangiectasia and papules, topical metronidazole would be the most appropriate treatment. Laser therapy may be considered for persistent telangiectasia, but it is not necessary at this stage and would likely be arranged by a specialist. Oral isotretinoin is not used to treat acne rosacea and is reserved for severe acne vulgaris, and can only be prescribed by a specialist due to potential harmful side effects. Oral oxytetracycline would be appropriate for more severe cases of acne rosacea with troublesome papules and pustules. Topical fusidic acid is not used to treat acne rosacea but can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 58-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent epigastric pain for several years. His symptoms improved with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) but returned after discontinuing the medication. He tested positive for Helicobacter pylori, but his symptoms returned after receiving eradication therapy. He now has unexplained iron deficiency anemia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer for endoscopy under the 2-week wait pathway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with ‘Red Flag’ Symptoms: Urgent Referral for Endoscopy
When managing a patient aged over 55 years with ‘red flag’ symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, it is crucial to refer them for an urgent endoscopy to exclude serious pathology such as malignancy. In such cases, it would be inappropriate to manage the patient with medication alone, even if a previous trial of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) provided effective symptom relief. While dietary and lifestyle advice could be provided, it would not be an appropriate management strategy as a single intervention. Additionally, retesting for H. pylori would not be necessary as adequate triple therapy for H. pylori eradication has reported high cure rates. The priority in managing such patients is to refer them for urgent endoscopy to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits the Urgent Treatment Centre as she has discovered a tick-like insect attached to her ankle. She had been hiking in a nearby forest earlier today and is worried because her sister was diagnosed with Lyme disease after a similar experience.
There are no signs of inflammation or infection in the skin surrounding the tick.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Remove the tick using fine-tipped tweezers and then treat him with a course of oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: Remove the tick using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick by the head as close to the skin as possible and pulling firmly upwards
Explanation:Proper Tick Removal Techniques and Treatment Options
Ticks are common parasites that can cause a range of illnesses, including Lyme disease. It is important to remove ticks properly to prevent infection. The best way to remove a tick is by using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick as close to the skin as possible and pulling upwards firmly. This will prevent the body from detaching and leaving mouthparts in the skin. After removal, the bite area should be cleaned with antiseptic or soap and water. Irrigating the area with saline solution is not recommended as it may lead to partial removal of the tick. Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended for tick bites, but antibiotics may be prescribed if a patient is diagnosed with Lyme disease. Vaccines for Lyme disease are not currently available. If there is a clear indication of infection, oral antibiotics may be prescribed. Proper tick removal and treatment can help prevent the spread of tick-borne illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 30
Correct
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Fragile X is commonly associated with all of the following symptoms except?
Your Answer: Small, firm testes
Explanation:Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.
Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Correct
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A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office. She reports that for the past two weeks, the baby has been experiencing poor feeding, with intermittent rapid breathing, wheezing, and sweating. Additionally, the baby's weight has dropped off the initial centile. During the examination, the pediatrician discovers hepatomegaly.
What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Congestive heart failure
Explanation:The neonate is displaying signs of heart failure, which may be caused by structural heart disease. Symptoms of heart failure in neonates include difficulty feeding, breathing problems, and an enlarged liver. Asthma is not typically diagnosed in this age group, and acute liver failure is rare and usually presents with growth issues and blood clotting problems. Viral wheezing is uncommon in neonates, and the poor feeding and weight loss suggest heart failure as the likely cause.
How Congenital Heart Disease Presents
Congenital heart disease can manifest in various ways. One of the earliest signs may be detected during the antenatal period when imaging of the heart is performed as part of the 18-20 week fetal anomaly scan. A murmur may also be detected during the routine newborn examination. Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, may also be present. In some cases, heart failure may occur, which can be characterized by poor feeding, shortness of breath, sweating, and hepatomegaly. It is important to be aware of these presentations in order to promptly diagnose and manage congenital heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 32
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and has started her first day of chemotherapy. However, she has been feeling unwell since then and her U&E results show abnormalities such as hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and hypocalcaemia. What prophylaxis is used to prevent the complication that this woman has experienced?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Tumour lysis syndrome is characterized by high levels of potassium and phosphate, as well as low levels of calcium. This is evident in the case history of a lymphoma patient who has started chemotherapy. Allopurinol is the most commonly used prophylaxis, with rasburicase as an alternative. Diuretics are not recommended due to the potential to exacerbate acute kidney injury. It is important to note that steroids and radiotherapy are not common causes of tumour lysis syndrome.
Understanding Tumour Lysis Syndrome
Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Although it can happen without chemotherapy, it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Patients at high risk of TLS should be given prophylactic medication such as IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin, which is more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during chemotherapy cycles to avoid the condition. However, rasburicase and allopurinol should not be given together in the management of tumour lysis syndrome as this reduces the effect of rasburicase.
TLS occurs when tumour cells break down and release chemicals into the body, leading to high levels of potassium and phosphate and a low level of calcium. It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of high phosphate and uric acid levels. From 2004, TLS has been graded using the Cairo-Bishop scoring system, which considers abnormality in two or more of the following within three days before or seven days after chemotherapy: uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and calcium. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome is when laboratory tumour lysis syndrome is present along with increased serum creatinine, cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death, or seizure.
In summary, understanding tumour lysis syndrome is critical in the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Prophylactic medication can be given to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis, and the Cairo-Bishop scoring system can be used to grade the severity of the condition. Early detection and management of TLS can improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of diarrhoea and vomiting after spending Christmas with her family. Her sister has just informed her that she too is experiencing the same symptoms. The doctor suspects norovirus. What is the best way to prevent the spread of this virus?
Your Answer: Wash hands with soap and water
Explanation:Handwashing is more effective than alcohol gels in preventing the spread of norovirus.
Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
Norovirus is a genus of non-encapsulated RNA virus species that can cause gastroenteritis. The CDC estimates that 1 in 5 cases of infectious gastroenteritis are caused by norovirus, with 685 million cases per year worldwide. Symptoms typically develop within 15-50 hours of infection and can include vomiting, diarrhea, headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct physical contact, contact with contaminated food, or through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important measures to limit transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 34
Correct
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Sarah, a 26 year old female with treatment resistant schizophrenia, was started on clozapine 2 weeks ago. Prior to this she was prescribed risperidone, which was reduced down prior to commencement of clozapine. She also takes fluoxetine for depression. Her psychiatric symptoms have improved since starting clozapine, however she is now feeling unwell, reporting a sore throat, and on examination is found to have a temperature of 38.5 degrees. Which of the following blood tests would be the most beneficial in this scenario?
Your Answer: FBC
Explanation:Monitoring is crucial for detecting the life-threatening side effect of clozapine, which is agranulocytosis/neutropenia.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 35
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman attends her booking appointment with the community midwife. She is at 14 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy. She has no underlying medical conditions.
Which of the following haemodynamic changes is most likely to present in this patient?Your Answer: A 10 mmHg drop in diastolic blood pressure (BP) during the second trimester
Explanation:Physiological Changes in Cardiovascular System During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, the cardiovascular system undergoes significant changes to accommodate the growing fetus. These changes include a drop in diastolic blood pressure by 10 mmHg during the second trimester, circulating blood volume increases by approximately 50%, leading to a dilutional ‘physiological anaemia’ and cardiac output increases most sharply throughout the first trimester.
During pregnancy, heart rate progressively increases until reaching a peak in the third trimester. The overall change in heart rate represents approximately a 20–25% increase from baseline. However, a grade 2/6 diastolic murmur at the mitral area and pulsus alternans are not typical findings in a healthy pregnancy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these physiological changes to properly monitor and manage the health of pregnant individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 36
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.
Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.
Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.
Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.
Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the clinic. He is on a medication regimen that includes metformin, aspirin, simvastatin, and pioglitazone. What is the most probable issue that can be caused by pioglitazone?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia
Correct Answer: Peripheral oedema
Explanation:Fluid retention may be caused by pioglitazone.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which reduces insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is naturally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the differentiation and function of adipocytes (fat cells).
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have adverse effects. Patients may experience weight gain, liver impairment (which requires monitoring of liver function tests), and fluid retention. Thiazolidinediones are contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to the increased risk of fluid retention, especially if the patient is also taking insulin. Recent studies have also shown an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in patients taking pioglitazone, another medication in this class.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 38
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presents to his General Practitioner with shortness of breath and facial flushing.
On examination, you notice some facial swelling. You suspect a bronchial neoplasm with potential superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO) as a consequence of this.
Which of the following signs is most likely to be seen in this patient?Your Answer: Venous dilatation over the anterior chest wall
Explanation:Clinical Signs and Symptoms of Bronchial Neoplasm and SVCO
Bronchial neoplasm is highly likely in a patient presenting with venous dilatation over the anterior chest wall. The presence of facial swelling should alert healthcare professionals to the possibility of superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO), which can cause dilated subcutaneous veins, tissue edema, and shortness of breath. An SVCO is an oncological emergency that requires prompt treatment with steroids and diuretics. Lung carcinoma is the most common cause of SVCO, but it can also be caused by lymphomas and other types of cancer.
Other clinical signs and symptoms that may indicate lung cancer include expiratory wheeze, supraclavicular or cervical lymphadenopathy, finger clubbing, and cranial nerve palsy. However, these signs and symptoms are non-specific and may also be present in other chronic diseases. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and perform appropriate diagnostic tests to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 39
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has come in for her 6-week baby check with no postnatal issues. She is currently breastfeeding and has a history of frequent migraines. She is seeking treatment for a migraine today. Which of the following medications should be avoided?
Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking aspirin as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. High doses of aspirin can also affect platelet function and cause hypoprothrombinaemia in infants with low vitamin K stores. However, paracetamol is safe to use for pain relief during breastfeeding. Anti-emetics such as cyclizine and prochlorperazine are also safe to use while breastfeeding and are unlikely to cause any harm.
Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
What is the best initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid
Explanation:Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines
Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:
1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.
2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.
3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.
4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.
5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.
In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 41
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss. During rectal examination, you notice a suspicious lesion below the pectinate line, which raises concern for cancer. You proceed to check for any signs of lymphadenopathy.
Where would you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?Your Answer: Inguinal
Explanation:Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region
The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. There are several lymph nodes in this area that drain different parts of the body. Here is a breakdown of the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region:
1. Inguinal: The inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal inferior to the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes.
2. External iliac: The external iliac nodes drain the adductor region of the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder.
3. Inferior mesenteric: The inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.
4. Internal iliac: The internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the part of the anal canal superior to the pectinate line.
5. Superior mesenteric: The superior mesenteric nodes drain parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.
Understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is important for diagnosing and treating certain conditions. By knowing which lymph nodes drain which parts of the body, healthcare professionals can better identify the source of an infection or cancer and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 42
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-three-year-old woman who presents with muscle weakness and erythematous, keratotic macules on her interphalangeal joints. She reports a family history of osteoarthritis. Can you describe the changes observed on her hands?
Your Answer: Heberden's nodes
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules
Explanation:The presence of roughened red papules over the knuckles, known as Gottron’s papules, is indicative of dermatomyositis. This patient’s description of muscle weakness and associated skin changes suggests that she may have this condition. Bouchard’s and Heberden’s nodes, on the other hand, are associated with osteoarthritis and present as painless swellings of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints, respectively. Macular lesions on the palms, such as Osler nodes and janeway lesions, are linked to endocarditis. Osler nodes are painful and caused by immune complex deposition, while janeway lesions are painless and caused by septic emboli.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 43
Correct
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A 56-year-old construction worker comes in for evaluation. He has a history of osteoarthritis in his hands but no other significant medical history. Despite taking paracetamol regularly, he is still experiencing significant pain, particularly in the base of his thumbs. What would be the most appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer: Add topical ibuprofen
Explanation:According to the 2008 NICE guidelines, the initial treatment for osteoarthritis should involve the administration of paracetamol and topical NSAIDs, particularly for knee and hand joints.
The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.
Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.
Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 44
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a pulsating headache and tenderness on palpation of the same area. He complains of pain in his jaw while eating.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Start oral steroids
Explanation:Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible loss of vision. The following are the appropriate steps in managing a patient with suspected GCA:
Prompt Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
1. Start oral steroids immediately: Delaying treatment can lead to vision loss. Steroids should be initiated even before the diagnosis is confirmed by temporal artery biopsy.
2. Admit and start on methotrexate if necessary: Patients on steroids are at high risk of side effects. Methotrexate or tocilizumab can be used in those who have steroid toxicity, along with tapering doses of steroids.
3. Arrange an urgent temporal artery biopsy: This is the gold-standard investigation for GCA. However, treatment should not be delayed till after the biopsy.
4. Do not refer to a rheumatologist on an outpatient basis: A rheumatologist will eventually be involved in the management of GCA, but immediate treatment is necessary.
5. Do not arrange an MRI scan of the brain: This is not indicated in the usual evaluation of GCA. It is used in specific cases of extracranial GCA or when there is strong clinical suspicion but a negative temporal artery biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of fatigue and increased urination. The symptoms began two months ago and have been progressively worsening. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is classified as morbidly obese. Upon conducting a fasting glucose test, the results show 8.2 mmol/L. The doctor decides to measure the patient's C-peptide levels, which are found to be low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young
Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Patients with T1DM typically have low C-peptide levels.
The patient in question is exhibiting classic symptoms of diabetes, including polyuria and tiredness, and their fasting glucose level is 8.2 mmol/L, which meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes according to the World Health Organization. Given their age and risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend testing for C-peptide levels. C-peptide is a byproduct of proinsulin cleavage into insulin, and low levels indicate a lack of insulin production, which is characteristic of T1DM.
Impaired fasting glucose is an incorrect answer because the patient’s fasting glucose level is above the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young is also incorrect because it is an autosomal-dominant condition that typically presents as T2DM in patients under 25, and C-peptide levels remain normal. Suggests diabetes mellitus but further testing is needed is also incorrect because the patient’s symptoms and fasting glucose level meet the diagnostic criteria for diabetes.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 46
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with severe chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals anterior ST elevation, and he is promptly treated with thrombolysis, resulting in the resolution of symptoms and ECG changes. What combination of medications should he be prescribed four weeks after the event?
Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.
Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 47
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral expiratory wheezing, but there are no indications of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her PEF is approximately 50% of normal. What is the best course of action regarding steroid treatment?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days
Explanation:According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Correct
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A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. He has a medical history of COPD and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. Upon arrival, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37ºC, heart rate of 128/min, respiratory rate of 27/min, blood pressure of 80/43 mmHg, and GCS of 15. Physical examination reveals tenderness and bruising on the right side of his chest, but chest movements are equal. His neck veins are distended but do not change with breathing, and his trachea is central with distant and quiet heart sounds. Additionally, he has cuts and grazes on his hands and legs.
What is the appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Pericardial needle aspiration
Explanation:If a patient with chest wall trauma presents with elevated JVP, persistent hypotension, and tachycardia despite fluid resuscitation, cardiac tamponade should be considered. In such cases, pericardial needle aspiration is the correct course of action. Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, muffled (distant) heart sounds, and elevated JVP, is a characteristic feature of cardiac tamponade. Urgent aspiration of the pericardium is necessary to prevent further haemodynamic compromise and save the patient’s life. Although the patient may have associated rib fractures, managing the cardiac tamponade should take priority as it poses the greatest threat in this scenario. CT scan of the chest, chest drain insertion into the triangle of safety, and needle decompression 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line are not appropriate management options in this case.
Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 49
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of bilateral ringing in his ears. He noticed the symptoms shortly after beginning a new medication.
Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of his condition?Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Common Medications and Their Side Effects
Furosemide: A loop diuretic that carries the risk of ototoxicity, especially in patients with renal impairment or given a rapid intravenous infusion. Hearing loss and tinnitus are potential side effects.
Ciprofloxacin: A broad-spectrum quinolone antibiotic that is not commonly associated with ototoxicity, but has an increased risk of Clostridium difficile infection. Rupture of the Achilles tendon is a known side effect.
Amlodipine: A calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension. Common side effects include flushing, headaches, and ankle swelling due to vasodilation.
Indapamide: A thiazide-like diuretic that is not associated with ototoxicity. Possible side effects include electrolyte imbalances, dry mouth, and gastrointestinal disturbance.
Paracetamol: Not associated with ototoxicity and has few side effects listed in the British National Formulary. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, which have similar indications for use, can cause ototoxicity.
Understanding the Side Effects of Common Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 50
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with hypertension is taking multiple medications for her condition, including aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, amiodarone and furosemide. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and her doctor orders pulmonary function tests, which reveal a restrictive ventilatory defect with decreased gas transfer.
Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these abnormalities?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, which is evident in the patient’s symptoms of dyspnea and restrictive lung disease on spirometry. However, other potential causes of restrictive lung disease should be investigated before attributing it solely to amiodarone use. Amiodarone can also lead to liver injury and thyroid dysfunction, so monitoring liver and thyroid function is important during treatment.
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough, which is the most frequently reported side effect and often leads to discontinuation of treatment. The exact mechanism of cough production is unclear, but it may involve increased levels of kinins and substance P due to ACE inhibition. Substituting with another antihypertensive drug, such as an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is typically necessary to alleviate the cough.
Aspirin can exacerbate asthma in susceptible individuals, particularly those with Samter’s triad (nasal polyps, asthma, and aspirin sensitivity). However, the patient’s restrictive lung disease is not associated with aspirin use.
Beta blockers like bisoprolol can cause bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma and COPD, making them contraindicated in asthma and requiring caution in COPD. However, the patient’s spirometry results suggest pulmonary fibrosis rather than bronchospasm.
Furosemide can rarely cause bronchoconstriction, but it is not associated with the restrictive lung disease seen in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is being seen in the paediatric asthma clinic for a review of his asthma. He was diagnosed with asthma 6 months ago and has been using a salbutamol 100mcg metered dose inhaler with a spacer. According to his mother, he has been using his inhaler about 4 times a week and has had 1 episode of waking up at night with difficulty breathing. There have been no recent respiratory infections or changes in his environment. On examination, he appears to be in good health. His inhaler technique is satisfactory. Do you recommend any changes to his asthma medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paediatric low-dose ICS
Explanation:Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male, who migrated to the UK from India 8 years ago, presents to the respiratory clinic with a persistent cough and recent episodes of haemoptysis. The patient has never smoked and there are no notable findings on physical examination. A chest X-ray reveals a crescent of air partially outlining a cavitating mass in the right upper lobe. A CT scan of the chest is performed in both supine and prone positions, demonstrating movement of the mass within the cavity. The patient has not previously been screened for tuberculosis. What is the most probable cause of the mass?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:Cavitating lung lesions can be caused by various factors, including infections and malignancies. In this case, the absence of a smoking history makes small cell and squamous cell lung cancers less likely. Small cell lung cancers typically affect the hilar or peri-hilar areas, while squamous cell lung cancers may present with pulmonary symptoms or paraneoplastic syndromes.
An aspergilloma is a fungal ball that forms in an existing lung cavity, often caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, lung cancer, or cystic fibrosis. While it may not cause any symptoms, it can lead to coughing and severe haemoptysis (coughing up blood). Diagnosis can be made through a chest x-ray, which will show a rounded opacity with a possible crescent sign, as well as high levels of Aspergillus precipitins. In some cases, a CT scan may also be necessary to confirm the presence of the aspergilloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A characteristic clinical finding of opioid overdose is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Opioid Overdose: The Opioid Overdose Triad
Opioid overdose is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that can result from the misuse or abuse of opioids. It is important to recognize the symptoms of opioid overdose in order to provide prompt and effective treatment. The opioid overdose triad is a set of three hallmark symptoms that are commonly seen in opioid overdose: decreased level of consciousness, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression.
Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common side effect of opioid overdose. However, hypothermia is not typically seen in opioid overdose and is more commonly associated with barbiturate overdose. Tachypnoea, or rapid respiration, is not a symptom of opioid overdose; instead, respiratory depression, or slow and shallow breathing, is a key feature. Prolonged hypoxia from respiratory depression can lead to permanent damage to the central nervous system or even death, even if treatment with naloxone is given. It is important to note that alcohol can also cause respiratory depression and increase the risk of overdose when taken with opioids.
Sweating and lacrimation, or excessive sweating and tearing, are frequently seen in early opioid withdrawal but are not symptoms of overdose. Pupillary constriction, or pinpoint pupils, is a hallmark feature of opioid overdose, while pupillary dilatation is not.
Recognizing the symptoms of opioid overdose, including the opioid overdose triad, is crucial for prompt and effective treatment. If you suspect someone is experiencing an opioid overdose, call for emergency medical assistance immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 49 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of urinary incontinence that has been going on for nine months. Upon examination, her abdomen appears normal and urinalysis results are normal. The doctor diagnoses her with detrusor muscle over-activity and prescribes oxybutynin. What is the mechanism of action of oxybutynin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-muscarinic
Explanation:The detrusor muscle’s contraction is regulated by muscarinic cholinergic receptors, and oxybutynin acts as a direct antimuscarinic agent. Sympathetic control, which decreases detrusor muscle activity, is influenced by serotonin and noradrenaline. The bladder does not contain GABAergic or estrogen receptors.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements. She and her partner are attempting to conceive, and she has never been pregnant before. She is in good health overall, with a history of asthma that she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed. Her BMI is 31 kg/m2, and she has no notable family medical history. What recommendations should she receive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5mg folic acid from now until the 12th week of pregnancy
Explanation:Pregnant women with obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) are recommended to take a high dose of 5mg folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. This is because obesity puts them at a higher risk of neural tube defects. The suggestion of taking 400 micrograms would be for women who are not at a higher risk. Therefore, the other answers provided are incorrect.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male came to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath during exertion. He had no medical history to report. During the examination, a midsystolic murmur was detected, which was most audible at the left lower sternal border. The murmur became louder when the Valsalva manoeuvre was performed. An echocardiogram revealed mitral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients with HOCM should avoid ACE-inhibitors.
The correct answer is Ramipril. In patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) and left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction, ACE inhibitors are not recommended. This is because ACE inhibitors can decrease afterload, which may exacerbate the LVOT gradient. The patient in this case has echocardiographic evidence of HOCM, including asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and mitral regurgitation.
However, amiodarone, atenolol, disopyramide, and verapamil are all viable treatment options for HOCM.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is estimated to have a prevalence of 1 in 500. The condition is caused by defects in the genes that encode contractile proteins.
The management of HOCM involves several approaches. Amiodarone is a medication that can be used to treat the condition. Beta-blockers or verapamil may also be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. In some cases, a cardioverter defibrillator or dual chamber pacemaker may be necessary. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as nitrates, ACE-inhibitors, and inotropes, should be avoided in patients with HOCM. Additionally, endocarditis prophylaxis may be recommended, although the 2008 NICE guidelines should be consulted for specific recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test vaginal pH
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:
1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.
2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.
3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.
4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.
5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.
In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 59
Incorrect
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What is the primary mode of operation of Nexplanon (etonogestrel contraceptive implant)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The primary way in which Nexplanon works is by preventing ovulation.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol dependence presents with fever and malaise. On admission, a chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with early cavitation. What is the probable causative agent responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 61
Incorrect
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As the on-call FY2 covering the wards, you are asked to assess a 55-year-old woman who was admitted yesterday with community-acquired left basal pneumonia. Over the past 12 hours, she has deteriorated significantly with a temperature of 40.5ºC, blood pressure 160/95 mmHg, and heart rate of 130 bpm. On examination, she appears jaundiced, agitated, and confused. Her medical history includes hayfever and Graves' disease, but she has been generally healthy otherwise. What is the most important initial treatment to start for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV propranolol
Explanation:Thyroid storm is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with hyperthyroidism, such as those with Graves’ disease. It is characterized by symptoms such as high fever, rapid heartbeat, jaundice, and altered mental status. In such cases, IV beta-blockers, such as propranolol, are the first-line treatment to inhibit the peripheral adrenergic effects of excess thyroid hormone. However, propranolol should not be used in patients with asthma or reversible COPD, and caution should be exercised in patients with heart failure. Lugol’s solution can also be used to inhibit the release of stored thyroid hormone, but it is usually delayed until after antithyroid therapy has been initiated. Therapeutic plasma exchange may be considered for patients who do not respond to medical therapy. In this case, the patient’s jaundice is likely due to her hyperthyroid crisis, and there is no evidence of biliary disease or cholecystitis. Therefore, IV co-amoxiclav, which is the first-line antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia, would be appropriate for this patient. If propranolol is contraindicated, a cardiac-specific beta-blocker or calcium-channel blocker may be used instead. However, in this patient, IV propranolol should be used as the first-line treatment.
Understanding Thyroid Storm
Thyroid storm is a rare but serious complication of thyrotoxicosis, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. It is usually seen in patients who already have thyrotoxicosis and is not typically the first symptom. It is important to note that an excess of thyroxine caused by medication does not usually lead to thyroid storm.
There are several events that can trigger thyroid storm, including surgery, trauma, infection, and exposure to iodine, such as through CT contrast media. The clinical features of thyroid storm include fever, tachycardia, confusion, nausea, vomiting, hypertension, heart failure, and abnormal liver function tests.
The management of thyroid storm involves treating the underlying cause and providing symptomatic relief. This may include medications such as beta-blockers, anti-thyroid drugs, Lugol’s iodine, and dexamethasone. Paracetamol may also be used to manage fever.
In summary, thyroid storm is a serious complication of thyrotoxicosis that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the triggers and clinical features of thyroid storm can help with early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 62
Incorrect
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An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is the correct answer, which is a skin rash that is closely linked to coeliac disease. This is a persistent skin condition that causes blisters, but it is not caused by or related to the herpes virus. It is important to note that dapsone is an effective treatment for Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a common question in exams. Additionally, a gluten-free diet can also help alleviate symptoms.
Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.
It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man attends his cousin's bachelor party where they go to a seafood buffet. After consuming eight plates of food, he finally feels full and they head to a nearby bar.
Four hours later, he is at a dart tournament when he suddenly feels sick and starts vomiting uncontrollably. He goes home and the vomiting stops overnight. The next day, he feels better and is relieved that he did not experience any diarrhea.
What is the probable organism responsible for his illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 28-year-old who comes to your GP clinic seeking information about cystic fibrosis. She is in a committed relationship and wants to start a family. Samantha mentions that her partner's family has a history of cystic fibrosis and she wants to know more about it. She has already done some research and knows that cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CF transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR) on chromosome 7. Samantha asks you to explain how cystic fibrosis is inherited.
Can you help her understand the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. The carrier frequency is estimated to be 1 in 25 individuals, while the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 2500 newborns. Having a positive family history is the only known risk factor for CF, and parents should receive appropriate counseling before conception or during pregnancy if they are carriers.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 65
Incorrect
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What is the recommended next step in managing the blood pressure of a 42 year old woman with a history of depression and a recent paracetamol overdose who has a manual blood pressure reading of 165/85 mmHg?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For a more detailed explanation, refer to the provided link.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.
NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.
ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.
Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as they are concerned about the child's appearance. Upon examination, you observe that the child has upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a flat face. You proceed to conduct a neurological assessment.
What are the expected findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotonia
Explanation:Hypotonia in neonates can be caused by Down’s syndrome, but it is not the only cause. Down’s syndrome does not typically present with hyperreflexia or hypertonia, and it is not associated with spina bifida. While hyporeflexia may occur in some cases of Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common neurological presentation.
Understanding Hypotonia: Causes and Symptoms
Hypotonia, also known as floppiness, is a condition that can be caused by central nervous system disorders or nerve and muscle problems. It is characterized by a decrease in muscle tone, resulting in a lack of resistance to passive movement. In some cases, an acutely ill child may exhibit hypotonia during examination, while in others, it may be associated with encephalopathy in the newborn period, which is most likely caused by hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.
Central causes of hypotonia include Down’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, hypothyroidism, and cerebral palsy, which may precede the development of spasticity. On the other hand, neurological and muscular problems such as spinal muscular atrophy, spina bifida, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and myotonic dystrophy can also cause hypotonia.
It is important to note that hypotonia can be a symptom of an underlying condition and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a dry cough that has persisted for three weeks. She is a non-smoker and consumes 10 units of alcohol per week. The patient has a target rash on both of her lower limbs, and her chest x-ray reveals reticulonodular shadowing on the left lung. The medical team diagnoses her with bacterial pneumonia. What is the probable causative agent responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Based on the dry cough, symmetrical target-shaped rash with a central blister (erythema multiforme), and radiological findings, it is likely that the woman has Mycoplasma. While pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in the community, it would typically present with lobar consolidation on an x-ray and a productive cough, rather than a dry one. Klebsiella pneumonia is more common in alcoholics, but the woman’s drinking habits, while exceeding the recommended limit for women (14 units per week), are not severe enough to increase her risk of Klebsiella. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumonia typically causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.
Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.
In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain while swallowing. The patient is currently taking a salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine. What could be the possible reason for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:Oesophageal candidiasis, a known complication of inhaled steroid therapy, often presents with pain while swallowing (odynophagia).
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.
To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.
It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman attends a routine cervical smear test and is noted to have extensive scarring of her vulva. On further questioning, she reports several visits to the Sexual Health Clinic for recurrent episodes of painful vulval ulceration.
She has had several attendances at the dentist and General Practitioner with recurrent painful mouth ulcers. She has been referred to a dermatologist to investigate a painful nodular rash which developed on her shins several weeks ago but has since resolved. She was recently discharged from the Eye Clinic following treatment for an acutely painful red eye.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Behçet’s disease is a rare autoimmune condition that causes painful recurrent mouth and genital ulcers leading to scarring. Diagnosis is often delayed due to the absence of a definitive diagnostic test. This patient has had a rash associated with Behçet’s disease and an episode of acute red eye, which may have been anterior uveitis, another symptom of the condition. Herpes simplex infection, Crohn’s disease, coeliac disease, and lichen planus are all conditions that can cause similar symptoms but can be ruled out based on the patient’s medical history and physical examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A child is born by an emergency Caesarean section at 38 weeks, due to pathological cardiotocography. The child appears healthy at birth, with Apgar scores of 9 and 10 (1 and 5 minutes respectively). Shortly after delivery, the nurse observes that the child's respiratory rate is elevated (all other observations are normal). The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable and her observations were normal during labor. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and stiffness in her fingers on both hands for the past few weeks. During examination, she is found to be afebrile and her fingers are generally swollen and sausage-shaped. Her nails are also pitted with onycholysis.
What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview
Arthritis is a common condition that affects millions of people worldwide. However, not all types of arthritis are the same. Here is a brief overview of some of the most common types of arthritis and how they differ from each other.
Psoriatic Arthritis: This type of arthritis is often seen in people with psoriasis and is characterized by painful, swollen joints. Dactylitis, or swelling of the whole digit causing ‘sausage-shaped’ fingers or toes, is a common feature. Nail changes, such as pitting and onycholysis, are also associated with psoriatic arthritis.
Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a type of septic arthritis caused by the sexually transmitted infection Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It typically presents with fever, a rash, and an acutely swollen joint, but there is no nail involvement.
Osteoarthritis (OA): This is a disease of synovial joints in which there is a loss of cartilage. It is uncommon for OA to be diagnosed in anyone under the age of 45. Dactylitis and nail changes are not associated with OA.
Reactive Arthritis: This is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually either an acute gastrointestinal or sexually transmitted infection. The clinical features of dactylitis and nail changes described in this case are not associated with reactive arthritis.
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): This is an inflammatory condition that tends to affect the small joints of the hands but can affect any synovial joint. Nail changes are not usually associated with RA, and general swelling of the whole digit (dactylitis) is not a typical feature.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of arthritis and their unique features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute chest pain described as tearing in nature. Upon clinical examination, a diastolic murmur consistent with aortic regurgitation is detected. Further investigation with chest computerised tomography (CT) confirms the presence of an ascending aortic dissection. The patient has a medical history of spontaneous pneumothorax and upward lens dislocation, but no significant family history. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Common Genetic and Neurological Syndromes: Symptoms and Characteristics
Marfan Syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Homocystinuria, Korsakoff Syndrome, and Loffler Syndrome are all genetic and neurological syndromes that affect individuals in different ways.
Marfan Syndrome is caused by a mutation in the fibrillin gene, resulting in weakened elastic fibers and aortic dissection. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is characterized by fragile blood vessels, hyperelastic skin, and aneurysm formation. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive condition that causes downward lens dislocation, thrombotic episodes, osteoporosis, and intellectual disability. Korsakoff Syndrome occurs after Wernicke’s encephalopathy and results in the inability to acquire new memories. Finally, Loffler Syndrome is a transient respiratory condition caused by the allergic infiltration of the lungs by eosinophils.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these syndromes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of numbness on the right side of his body, without any other accompanying symptoms. He has a medical history of uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus. A CT scan of his head was conducted, which revealed no signs of bleeding or tumors. The diagnosis is a lacunar stroke. Which area of the brain is impacted by a lacunar stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The basal ganglia, thalamus and internal capsule
Explanation:The basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule are common sites for lacunar strokes. Amaurosis fugax affects (1), ‘locked-in’ syndrome affects (2), Wallenberg syndrome affects (4), and lateral pontine syndrome affects (5).
When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.
If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.
Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.
Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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At what age can people receive the shingles vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70 or 78-years old
Explanation:Shingles Vaccine Availability by Age
The shingles vaccine is available to individuals at different ages depending on their stage of life. Those who are 70 or 78-years old are eligible to receive the vaccine. However, it is not routinely offered to patients who are in their 50’s or 60’s. The vaccine is not part of the routine childhood immunisation schedule and is only available to NHS patients in their 70’s. It is not offered to individuals who are 80 or older, as it appears to be less effective in this age group. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate age to receive the shingles vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with a complaint of right eye pain that has been present for 2 days. She reports sensitivity to bright light but denies any history of eye trauma or regular use of contact lenses. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently taking methotrexate.
During the examination, the patient's vital signs are normal. The right eye appears red and is tearing. Fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical aciclovir
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical aciclovir. This patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which is more common in immunosuppressed individuals. Topical aciclovir is the preferred treatment option. Artificial tears are not likely to be helpful as the patient’s eye is already watery. Oral flucloxacillin is not indicated for this condition, as it is typically used for superficial skin infections. Topical chloramphenicol is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis, which presents with different symptoms.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old girl presented at the age of 5 years with progressive ataxia. She is now wheelchair-bound. On examination, she is now dysarthric, with bilateral optic atrophy. There is ataxia in both upper limbs. Reflexes in her lower limbs are absent, with bilateral extensor plantar response. She has absent vibration and impaired joint position in both feet. Bilateral pes cavus is apparent. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows inverted T waves. Echocardiogram reveals left ventricular hypertrophy.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Explanation:Friedreich’s ataxia is a common inherited progressive ataxia in the UK that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. The earliest symptom is gait ataxia, followed by limb ataxia, absent lower limb reflexes, and later weakness and wasting of the limbs. Other common features include reduced or absent vibration sense and proprioception, spasticity, dysarthria, dysphagia, cardiac abnormalities, scoliosis, pes cavus, equinovarus, sleep apnea, and urinary frequency/urgency. The history is classic for this condition, and the ECG may show left ventricular hypertrophy. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Huntington’s disease, and multiple sclerosis are not consistent with this history, while vitamin B12 deficiency may cause similar symptoms but is generally a condition of adults and does not fit the clinical picture as well as Friedreich’s ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for a regular check-up. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, stage 2 CKD, hypertension, and gout. Despite her conditions, she is able to function well on her own and her blood pressure today is 125/72 mmHg. Which medication would you suggest discontinuing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Assessing medications in elderly patients can be challenging, as they may be taking unnecessary or harmful drugs. The STOPP-START Criteria (Gallagher et al., 2008) provides guidance on medications that should be considered for discontinuation in the elderly. In this case, the patient has gout, which can be aggravated by bendroflumethiazide, an outdated thiazide diuretic that is no longer recommended by NICE. Additionally, her blood pressure is well below the target for her age, which is 150/90 mmHg in clinic. Ramipril is a more suitable antihypertensive medication to continue for now, but it may also be discontinued if her blood pressure remains low. The patient requires aspirin and atorvastatin for her ischemic heart disease, and allopurinol for her gout.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now intensified, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in three days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced, and rectal examination reveals tenderness only. She has no history of gastrointestinal problems and only sees her General Practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away two years ago. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulitis and Other Bowel Conditions in Older Adults
As people age, they may develop various conditions affecting their bowel health. One such condition is diverticulosis, which is characterized by the presence of diverticula in the colon. While most people with diverticulosis do not experience symptoms, some may develop diverticular disease, which can cause left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel movements. Diverticulitis, on the other hand, refers to inflammation of the diverticula, which can lead to fever and tachycardia. Risk factors for diverticular disease include low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking. Complications of diverticulitis may include perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.
Another bowel condition that may affect older adults is inflammatory bowel disease, which is typically diagnosed in young adulthood but may also occur in people aged 50-70. Unlike diverticulosis, inflammatory bowel disease can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, rectal bleeding, and weight loss.
When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of bowel disease, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colorectal cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. While the former may present with similar symptoms as diverticulitis, the latter is more common in women and may mimic gastrointestinal conditions.
In summary, understanding the various bowel conditions that may affect older adults can help healthcare providers make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of left ventricular systolic dysfunction with an ejection fraction of 20%. A chest x-ray confirms acute pulmonary edema, which is immediately treated with high dose IV furosemide. Her vital signs on repeat assessment are as follows: oxygen saturation of 94% on 15L oxygen, heart rate of 124 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 74/50 mmHg. What is the next management option to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inotropic support on the high dependency unit (HDU)
Explanation:For patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who are experiencing potentially reversible cardiogenic shock with hypotension, inotropic support on the high dependency unit (HDU) should be considered. This is because diuresis, which is the primary aim of management in acute pulmonary oedema, could lower blood pressure further and worsen the shock. Inotropes can help increase cardiac contractility and support blood pressure while diuresis is ongoing.
Biphasic positive airway pressure (BiPAP) is not an immediate consideration for this patient as it is used primarily for non-invasive ventilation in hypoxic and hypercapnic patients. Pulmonary oedema does not typically lead to hypercapnia.
Giving IV fluid for hypotension would not be appropriate as the hypotension is secondary to cardiogenic shock, not hypovolaemic shock. Administering further fluid in this scenario would worsen the patient’s condition by contributing to fluid overload.
Bisoprolol is contraindicated in this scenario as it suppresses the compensatory tachycardia that occurs in acute heart failure to maintain cardiac output, which would worsen the cardiogenic shock. However, outside of an acute scenario, a patient can continue on their routine bisoprolol if they are already prescribed this for heart failure, unless they are bradycardic.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments for all patients including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be necessary, with guidelines suggesting oxygen saturations be kept at 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may have a role in cases of concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect/contraindication. Patients with respiratory failure may require CPAP, while those with hypotension or cardiogenic shock may require inotropic agents like dobutamine or vasopressor agents like norepinephrine. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be necessary. Regular medication for heart failure should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped in certain circumstances. Opiates should not be routinely offered to patients with acute heart failure due to potential increased morbidity.
In summary, acute management of heart failure involves a range of treatments depending on the patient’s specific condition. It is important to carefully consider the potential side-effects and contraindications of each treatment, and to continue regular medication for heart failure where appropriate. Opiates should be used with caution, and only in cases where they are likely to reduce dyspnoea/distress without causing harm. With appropriate management, patients with acute heart failure can receive the care they need to improve their outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female with a history of Sjogren's syndrome presents to the gastroenterology clinic with elevated liver function tests. She reports experiencing fatigue and itching that has worsened over the past 3 months. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft, nontender, and without any organ enlargement. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, normal platelet count and white blood cell count, elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels, and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the initial treatment recommended to halt the progression of her liver disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the destruction of small bile ducts in the liver, leading to cholestasis and liver damage. The disease is diagnosed through blood tests that measure levels of specific antibodies and liver enzymes, which are highly specific to the condition. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for slowing disease progression and improving symptoms, while cholestyramine can be used to alleviate itching but does not affect disease progression. In cases of decompensated liver disease, such as when bilirubin levels exceed 100, liver transplantation may be an option. Although recurrence in the graft can occur, it is typically not a significant issue. While fat-soluble vitamins can be supplemented, they are not a primary treatment option.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for gastric cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of duodenal ulceration
Explanation:Gastric Cancer: Risk Factors, Features, Investigations, and Management
Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over 75 years old, and has a higher incidence in males. Risk factors for gastric cancer include Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, dietary factors such as salt and nitrate consumption, smoking, and blood group.
Symptoms of gastric cancer can be vague and include abdominal pain, dyspepsia, weight loss, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. Overt upper gastrointestinal bleeding is rare. If the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes, Virchow’s node and Sister Mary Joseph’s node may be affected.
Diagnosis of gastric cancer is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy. Signet ring cells may be present in gastric cancer, and a higher number of these cells is associated with a worse prognosis. Staging is done through CT scans.
Management of gastric cancer depends on the extent and location of the cancer. Surgical options include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial gastrectomy, and total gastrectomy. Chemotherapy may also be used.
Overall, gastric cancer is a relatively rare cancer with specific risk factors and symptoms. Early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial for improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A woman in her early thirties visits your GP clinic with a plan to conceive a baby in a year's time. She has barrister exams scheduled for this year and prefers not to get pregnant before that. However, she desires to conceive soon after her exams. Which contraceptive method is commonly linked with a prolonged delay in fertility restoration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depo-Provera
Explanation:Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.
The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.
Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presents urgently to the hospital. She is 35 weeks pregnant and reports sudden onset of right-sided numbness and dysphasia. Initially, she experienced tingling in the right side of her face, which then spread to her right hand over a few minutes. Shortly after, she noticed difficulty finding words and her right arm felt clumsy. The entire episode resolved completely within 20-30 minutes. Upon arrival at the hospital, her neurological exam was normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Migraine aura without headache
Explanation:Migraine aura without headache is a condition where a person experiences the typical symptoms of a migraine aura, but without the accompanying headache. In some cases, a person may have multiple attacks with only an aura, while in rare cases, they may only experience the aura without a headache. To diagnose this condition, the International Headache Society requires the presence of one or more fully reversible aura symptoms, such as visual, sensory, speech and/or language, motor, brain stem, or retinal symptoms, along with at least two of the following characteristics: gradual spread of symptoms over more than 5 minutes, each symptom lasting between 5-60 minutes, and at least one symptom being unilateral. It can be difficult to distinguish an aura from a transient ischemic attack (TIA) in patients without a history of migraines, but the characteristic slow progression of symptoms is suggestive of migraine aura without headache. This condition is more commonly seen in patients with a previous history of migraines or a positive family history of migraines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of itchy palms and soles for a few weeks. Examination reveals pitting to the nails and dry, scaly, fissured skin with areas of pustules on the palms and soles. She is a social drinker but has no other medical conditions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Bullous Pemphigoid, Contact Dermatitis, Eczema, and Secondary Syphilis
Palmoplantar Pustulosis: A chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the palms and soles, often associated with chronic plaque psoriasis and smoking. It presents with painful cracking, fissuring, and crops of sterile pustules that are severely itchy. Topical treatments and phototherapy can be used.
Bullous Pemphigoid: An autoimmune skin disease that forms large fluid-filled blisters, typically affecting people over 80 years old with underlying neurological or malignant conditions. The age and presenting features in this man are not typical for bullous pemphigoid.
Contact Dermatitis: A type of eczema triggered by contact with a particular substance, causing a red, dry, and scaly rash only in the areas that have been in contact with the irritant. Pustules are not a feature of this condition, and it would be unusual for an irritant to have been in contact with the palms and soles.
Eczema: A chronic, itchy, inflammatory skin condition that commonly begins in childhood and affects flexural areas such as behind the knees or in the antecubital fossae. The palms of hands and soles of feet are usually spared.
Secondary Syphilis: A rash that may appear as rough, red or reddish-brown papules or patches, typically occurring on the trunk but frequently affecting the palms and soles. The rash doesn’t itch and can appear more obvious with physical activity or heat. It resolves spontaneously within several weeks but can recur over the next two years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female inpatient on the surgical ward developed sudden uncontrollable eye movements, with prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Dystonic Reactions: A Comparison of Common Drugs
Metoclopramide, carbamazepine, cyclopentolate, lidocaine, and procyclidine are all drugs that can cause various side effects, including disturbances in eye movement. However, when it comes to dystonic reactions, metoclopramide and procyclidine are the most likely culprits. Metoclopramide, commonly used for nausea and vomiting, can induce acute dystonic reactions involving facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises. On the other hand, procyclidine, an anti-muscarinic drug, is useful in the immediate treatment of a drug-induced oculogyric crisis. Understanding the differences between these drugs and their potential side effects is crucial in providing appropriate treatment for patients experiencing dystonic reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with a 3-week history of shoulder pain in both shoulders. A shoulder X-ray taken 2 weeks ago did not reveal any signs of osteoarthritis. Her blood tests show an elevated ESR of 50mm/hour. What is the most appropriate course of action for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a trial of oral prednisolone 15mg daily and arrange follow up after 1 week to assess clinical response
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this patient strongly indicate the presence of polymyalgia rheumatica, and thus, a one-week course of steroids should be administered to produce a significant improvement. Prescribing paracetamol for a month is unlikely to yield any noticeable relief. An MRI scan is not likely to aid in the diagnosis. Administering a prolonged course of steroids without periodic review is not recommended.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l
What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline
Explanation:The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is recommended bupropion to aid in smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist
Explanation:NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right pons
Explanation:Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested his new stethoscope. On assessment in the Cardiology Clinic, he was found to have a harsh systolic murmur over his precordium, which did not change with inspiration. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed features of biventricular hypertrophy.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:
1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD): This has a pansystolic murmur, heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge and causing biventricular hypertrophy due to increased strain on both the right and left ventricles.
2. Mitral Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur which is heard loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla; it is louder on expiration. The ECG can show left ventricular and left atrial enlargement.
3. Aortic Stenosis: This causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur, heard loudest in the aortic area and radiating to the carotids. It (and all other left-sided murmurs) is louder on expiration.
4. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): HCM has an early peaking systolic murmur which is worse on Valsalva and reduced on squatting. It is also associated with a jerky pulse. The ECG would show left ventricular hypertrophy.
5. Tricuspid Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur and a brief rumbling diastolic murmur; these are louder on inspiration. The ECG may show right ventricular enlargement.
It is important to note that right-sided murmurs increase with inspiration (e.g. tricuspid regurgitation or TR), whereas left-sided murmurs show no change. The clue to diagnosis is in the ECG finding. Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation produce left ventricular hypertrophy; TR produces right ventricular hypertrophy and a VSD produces biventricular hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is found to have breast cancer. She has no significant medical history, is premenopausal, and has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. The cancer is in its early stages and she undergoes a wide-local excision followed by whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors but negative for HER2. What is the most probable adjuvant treatment that she will be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:The use of Tamoxifen is limited to pre-menopausal women, and there is a continuing discussion regarding the duration of therapy, whether it should be for 5 years or more.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and peri-menopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in post-menopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is currently on metformin 1g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. His BMI is 29 kg/m². Blood tests are taken.
Sodium 140 mmol/L
Potassium 4.0mmol/L
Urea 5.8mmol/L
Creatinine 135 umol/L
eGFR 44 ml/min/1.73m²
HbA1c 7.5% (58 mmol/mol)
What modification to his current treatment plan is recommended based on the provided information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No change to medication
Explanation:Metformin is typically the first choice for diabetes treatment due to its positive impact on weight. Sulphonylureas are usually the second option, unless they cause hypoglycaemia or are not well-tolerated. If sulphonylureas are not an option, alternatives like DPP4 inhibitors or thiazolidinediones may be considered. Insulin is the next line of treatment after metformin and sulphonylureas, but DPP4 inhibitors may be preferred if insulin is not suitable or if the patient wants to avoid injections or weight gain. However, DPP4 inhibitors should only be continued if they are effective, as they can be expensive.
When it comes to metformin and renal function, it is recommended to stop using it if creatinine levels exceed 150mmol/L or eGFR is below 30ml/min/1.73m². Caution is advised when eGFR is between 30-45ml/min/1.73m², taking into account the rate of deterioration in renal function. For example, if eGFR has remained stable at 33ml/min/1.73m² for six months, it may be reasonable to continue using metformin. However, if eGFR has decreased from 50 to 38ml/min/1.73m², it is likely that metformin should be discontinued due to the risk of lactic acidosis.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman experiences a blood loss of approximately 1,000 ml after giving birth vaginally. What is not considered a risk factor for primary postpartum hemorrhage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Afro-Caribbean ethnicity
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 96
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding metformin is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases endogenous insulin secretion
Explanation:Sulphonylureas possess the characteristic of enhancing the secretion of insulin produced naturally within the body.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist. Can you identify an example of a medication that falls under this category?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a foot drop after a fall at home. On examination, there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and inversion, and weakness of extension of the little toe. She has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of her foot and medial side of the affected leg. Other examination is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula
Explanation:Nerve Injuries and Clinical Features: A Guide
The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles, and injuries to these structures can have a significant impact on daily life. Here is a guide to some common nerve injuries and their associated clinical features.
Common Peroneal Nerve at the Head of the Fibula
The common peroneal nerve is often damaged as it wraps around the fibular head. This can result in foot drop, weak dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot, weak extension of the toes, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and lateral side of the leg, and intact reflexes.Common Peroneal Nerve at the Ankle
The common peroneal nerve bifurcates into two terminal branches shortly after passing over the fibular head. Damage to one of these branches can occur at the ankle, but not to the common peroneal nerve itself. Symptoms may include sensory loss and weakness in the affected area.Sciatic Nerve at the Sciatic Notch
Injury to the sciatic nerve at this level can result in pain down the thigh, loss of sensation to the whole leg below the knee (except for a narrow area on the medial leg and medial foot border), widespread motor deficit, and foot drop. The ankle jerk is lost.Tibial Nerve at the Popliteal Fossa
Damage to the tibial nerve at this level can lead to gastrocnemius paralysis, weakened inversion and plantar flexion at the ankle, and loss of the ankle jerk. This type of injury is relatively uncommon.Tibial Nerve at the Ankle
Compression of the tibial nerve at the level of the medial malleolus can result in tarsal tunnel syndrome. Symptoms may include paraesthesiae or numbness affecting the medial ankle and plantar aspect of the foot, weakness to the toe abductors and flexors, and tenderness at the medial malleolus. Foot drop is not a feature.In summary, nerve injuries can have a range of clinical features depending on the location and severity of the damage. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have sustained a nerve injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Understanding the Side Effects of Amiodarone: A Comprehensive Overview
Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects. Here is a breakdown of some of the most important things to know:
Hyperthyroidism: Amiodarone can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism. Patients taking this medication should have their thyroid function checked regularly.
COPD: While amiodarone is not known to cause COPD, it can lead to pulmonary toxicity, including pneumonitis and fibrosis. Patients should have yearly chest x-rays.
Drug-induced diabetes mellitus: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of diabetes mellitus.
Drug-induced pemphigus: Long-term use of amiodarone can cause phototoxicity and skin discoloration. Patients should protect their skin from light during treatment. However, it is not known to cause drug-induced pemphigus.
Renal calculi: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of kidney disease, including renal calculi.
Other important side effects of amiodarone include hepatotoxicity, bradycardia, phototoxicity, and development of corneal deposits. If you are taking amiodarone, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has been diagnosed with bilateral bronchiectasis after undergoing a high resolution CT scan. What is the most crucial factor in managing his symptoms in the long run?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postural drainage
Explanation:To manage symptoms in individuals with non-CF bronchiectasis, a combination of inspiratory muscle training and postural drainage can be effective.
Managing Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Spacing:
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.
The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.
The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He mentions experiencing similar pains that occur during exercise and subside when he rests. The patient appears to be in distress, sweating, and having difficulty breathing. An ECG is conducted, revealing new T-wave inversion in V3-V6. His troponin and d-dimer levels are as follows:
Troponin 223 ng/L (<5)
D-Dimer 932 ng/mL (< 400)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
Explanation:Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term that covers various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease, including ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the coronary arteries. ACS can cause chest pain, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. The two most important investigations for ACS are an ECG and cardiac markers. Treatment for ACS includes preventing worsening of presentation, revascularising the vessel is occluded, and treating pain. Patients who have had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to reduce the risk of a further event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.
Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Section 4
Explanation:In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old taxi driver presents with a frontal headache that has been ongoing for the past 2 weeks. After taking 3 blood pressure readings, the lowest of which is 168/98 mmHg, a 24-hour tape reveals an average blood pressure reading of 158/88mmHg. The patient is open to starting medication for hypertension but expresses concern about how this diagnosis will affect his job. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise him that he may continue driving as long as is blood pressure is not consistently above 180mmHg systolic or above 100mmHg diastolic
Explanation:Drivers of cars and motorcycles are not required to inform the DVLA of their hypertension, but they must refrain from driving if their symptoms would impair their ability to drive safely. The same guidelines apply to bus and lorry drivers, but if their resting blood pressure consistently exceeds 180 mmHg systolic or 100mmHg diastolic, they must cease driving and notify the DVLA.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, for those with Group 2 Entitlement, a resting blood pressure consistently at 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more disqualifies them from driving.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must refrain from driving for four weeks. However, if successfully treated by angioplasty, driving is permitted after one week. Those with angina must cease driving if symptoms occur at rest or while driving.
For individuals who have undergone pacemaker insertion, they must refrain from driving for one week. If they have an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmia, they must cease driving for six months. If the ICD is implanted prophylactically, they must cease driving for one month, and having an ICD results in a permanent bar for Group 2 drivers. Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires two days off driving.
Individuals with an aortic aneurysm of 6cm or more must notify the DVLA, and licensing will be permitted subject to annual review. However, an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Those who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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