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Question 1
Correct
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Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without any contraindication?
Your Answer: A 57-year-old man with well controlled diabetes mellitus type 2 with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 8%
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to his cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and fainting episodes. His recent ECHO reveals a mean gradient of 45 mmHg and mild aortic regurgitation, while his ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, left bundle branch block, and a prolonged PR interval. What factor is most indicative of the need for valve replacement surgery?
Your Answer: Left bundle branch block
Correct Answer: Presence of symptoms
Explanation:Aortic valve replacement is typically recommended for patients with severe aortic stenosis who are experiencing symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. Without treatment, these symptoms can lead to a mortality rate of 2-3 years. However, the decision to perform valve replacement on asymptomatic patients is a topic of debate.
Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.
If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe back pain lasting 30 minutes. The pain is constant and not exacerbated by coughing or sneezing.
On examination, the patient is in shock, with a palpable 7 cm mass deep in the epigastrium above the umbilicus. Her past medical history includes a 5 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm diagnosed three years ago at the time of appendectomy. The patient is a non-smoker and drinks one glass of wine a week.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Possible Causes of Sudden-Onset Severe Back Pain: A Differential Diagnosis
Sudden-onset severe back pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In the case of a male patient with increasing age and a known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm, a rupturing aortic aneurysm should be suspected until proven otherwise. This suspicion is supported by the presence of shock, a large palpable mass deep in the epigastrium, and severe back pain that may radiate to the abdomen. The risk of rupture increases with the size of the aneurysm, and blood initially leaks into the retroperitoneal space before spilling into the peritoneal cavity.
Other possible causes of sudden-onset severe back pain include acute cholecystitis, which is unlikely in a patient who had a previous cholecystectomy. Acute pancreatitis may also cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back, but this condition is usually accompanied by vomiting and diarrhea, and the patient does not have significant risk factors for it. Renal colic, which is characterized by acute severe pain that radiates from the loin to the groin, may cause tachycardia but is less likely in a patient who is haemodynamically unstable and has a known large AAA. Herniated lumbar disc, which may cause back pain that worsens with coughing or sneezing and radiates down the leg, is also less likely in this case.
Therefore, a rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm is the most probable cause of the patient’s sudden-onset severe back pain, and urgent management is necessary to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and an ECG showing anterolateral T wave inversion. Her troponin I level at 12 hours is 300 ng/L (reference range < 50 ng/L). She is managed conservatively and discharged on aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and ramipril. What is the appropriate use of ticagrelor in this case?
Your Answer: Should be prescribed for the next 12 months for all patients
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.
Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have severe aortic stenosis. Since he has no prior medical history, he undergoes an open aortic valve replacement and a mechanical valve is implanted. What is the most suitable medication for long-term anticoagulation after the surgery?
Your Answer: Apixaban
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Room with a 3-day history of flu-like symptoms. She is now experiencing severe central chest pain that worsens with coughing and improves when she sits upright. Upon examination, she has a rapid heart rate and a temperature of 38.5 °C. A third heart sound is heard upon auscultation.
What is the probable cause of this patient's chest pain?Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Pericarditis is an inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart, causing chest pain that is relieved by sitting forward and worsened by lying flat or coughing. Patients may display signs of infection, and a pericardial friction rub may be heard during examination. Blood tests, electrocardiography, chest X-ray, and echocardiography are used to diagnose pericarditis. Causes include viral, bacterial, and fungal infections, as well as other conditions. Treatment aims to address the underlying cause and may include analgesia and bed rest. Aortic dissection, myocardial ischemia, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and pneumonia are other possible causes of chest pain, but each has distinct symptoms and characteristics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She has a medical history of heart failure and reports that her symptoms began a few days after starting a new medication prescribed by her cardiologist. As a result, you order routine blood tests that reveal hypokalaemia. Which medication is the probable culprit for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Individuals with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 40% or lower should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, unless there are contraindications or intolerance. This is supported by numerous clinical trials that have shown their efficacy in reducing hospital admissions and mortality rates. The dosage should be started low and gradually increased until the target dose or the highest tolerated dose is achieved, with regular monitoring of renal function and serum electrolytes.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.
As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.
However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.
In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of pleuritic chest pain. She states that this started in the evening and has gotten worse since then. The pain is central and seems to improve when she leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which shows widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR interval depression. Extensive investigations reveal no underlying cause.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best treatment option?
Select the SINGLE best treatment option from the list below.
Your Answer: NSAIDs until symptomatic resolution along with colchicine for three months
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis requires prompt treatment to prevent complications such as recurrent pericarditis, pericardial effusions, cardiac tamponade, and chronic constrictive pericarditis. The initial treatment for idiopathic or viral pericarditis involves high-dose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or aspirin in combination with colchicine. The duration of NSAID or aspirin treatment depends on symptom resolution and normalization of C-reactive protein (CRP), while colchicine treatment is continued for three months using a low, weight-adjusted dose. Strenuous physical activity should be restricted until symptom resolution and normalization of inflammatory markers, and gastroprotection with a proton-pump inhibitor is recommended.
If NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated, low-dose corticosteroids are the next step in the treatment algorithm, after exclusion of infectious causes. However, when the cause of the pericarditis is known, it must be treated first before starting anti-inflammatory treatment.
Managing Acute Pericarditis: Treatment Options and Considerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Correct
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Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years. She is not diabetic and there is no other significant medical history. She is currently taking amlodipine at the maximum recommended dose of 10mg.
During her medication review at her GP surgery, her blood pressure remains elevated - it is averaging at 160/98 mmHg over several readings.
What would be the most suitable medication to consider next?Your Answer: Losartan
Explanation:To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step according to NICE guidelines is to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this scenario, as the options do not include an ACE inhibitor, losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is the correct choice. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol are included in step 4 of NICE guidelines only if diuretic therapy is contraindicated or ineffective, and alpha-blockers like doxazosin are also part of step 4, so they are not the appropriate options for this patient.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old taxi driver presents with a frontal headache that has been ongoing for the past 2 weeks. After taking 3 blood pressure readings, the lowest of which is 168/98 mmHg, a 24-hour tape reveals an average blood pressure reading of 158/88mmHg. The patient is open to starting medication for hypertension but expresses concern about how this diagnosis will affect his job. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer: Advise him that he may continue driving as long as is blood pressure is not consistently above 180mmHg systolic or above 100mmHg diastolic
Explanation:Drivers of cars and motorcycles are not required to inform the DVLA of their hypertension, but they must refrain from driving if their symptoms would impair their ability to drive safely. The same guidelines apply to bus and lorry drivers, but if their resting blood pressure consistently exceeds 180 mmHg systolic or 100mmHg diastolic, they must cease driving and notify the DVLA.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, for those with Group 2 Entitlement, a resting blood pressure consistently at 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more disqualifies them from driving.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must refrain from driving for four weeks. However, if successfully treated by angioplasty, driving is permitted after one week. Those with angina must cease driving if symptoms occur at rest or while driving.
For individuals who have undergone pacemaker insertion, they must refrain from driving for one week. If they have an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmia, they must cease driving for six months. If the ICD is implanted prophylactically, they must cease driving for one month, and having an ICD results in a permanent bar for Group 2 drivers. Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires two days off driving.
Individuals with an aortic aneurysm of 6cm or more must notify the DVLA, and licensing will be permitted subject to annual review. However, an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Those who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman who is six weeks pregnant presents to the Cardiovascular Clinic with a swollen right leg. Doppler studies confirm a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has no signs or symptoms of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management choice in this case?
Your Answer: Start subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) throughout pregnancy and change to warfarin in the postpartum period
Explanation:Treatment Options for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy
Start subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) throughout pregnancy and change to warfarin in the postpartum period: LMWH is recommended for the treatment of DVT during pregnancy. Treatment should be continued for at least three months and until six weeks postpartum. Warfarin can be used after day five of the postpartum period. Both LMWH and warfarin are safe to use while breastfeeding.
Elastic band compression of the affected leg, bedrest, and foot elevation: These measures have no benefit in treating DVT and may even increase the risk of developing a pulmonary embolism (PE) or another DVT.
Commence intravenous (IV) heparin: IV heparin can be used for the treatment of a shocked patient with PE if thrombolysis is not possible. It should not be used for DVT alone.
Oral anticoagulation with warfarin daily throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period: Warfarin is not recommended during pregnancy as it can cross the placenta and increase the risk of congenital malformations and bleeding.
Aspirin 300 mg daily throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period: Aspirin is not effective in treating DVT or PE as it is an antiplatelet drug, not an anticoagulant.
Treatment Options for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of heart failure is experiencing discomfort even at rest and is unable to engage in any physical activity without symptoms. What is the New York Heart Association classification that best describes the severity of their condition?
Your Answer: NYHA Class III
Correct Answer: NYHA Class IV
Explanation:NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure
The NYHA classification is a widely used system for categorizing the severity of chronic heart failure. It is based on the symptoms experienced by the patient during physical activity. NYHA Class I indicates no symptoms and no limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class II indicates mild symptoms and slight limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class III indicates moderate symptoms and marked limitations on physical activity. Finally, NYHA Class IV indicates severe symptoms and an inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. This classification system is helpful in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for patients with chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with difficulty breathing and feeling lightheaded. During the examination, an irregularly irregular pulse is noted. An ECG taken at the time shows the absence of p waves. What medical condition in her past could be responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Common Endocrine Disorders and their Cardiac Manifestations
Endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, including the development of arrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia that can be caused by hyperthyroidism, which should be tested for in patients presenting with this condition. Other signs of thyrotoxicosis include sinus tachycardia, physiological tremor, lid lag, and lid retraction. Gravesâ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, can also present with pretibial myxoedema, proptosis, chemosis, and thyroid complex ophthalmoplegia.
Hyperparathyroidism can cause hypercalcemia, which may present with non-specific symptoms such as aches and pains, dehydration, fatigue, mood disturbance, and constipation. It can also cause renal stones. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, may cause bradycardia and can be caused by Hashimotoâs thyroiditis, subacute thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, or iatrogenic factors such as post-carbimazole treatment, radio-iodine, and thyroidectomy. Drugs such as lithium and amiodarone can also cause hypothyroidism.
Cushing syndrome, a disorder caused by excess cortisol production, is not typically associated with arrhythmias. Type 1 diabetes mellitus, another endocrine disorder, also does not typically present with arrhythmias.
In summary, it is important to consider endocrine disorders as potential causes of cardiac manifestations, including arrhythmias. Proper diagnosis and management of these conditions can help prevent serious cardiovascular complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in the coronary care unit. The heart monitor records this event. An emergency call is made and a defibrillator is quickly brought to the scene. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Administer three successive shocks, then commence CPR
Explanation:In a witnessed cardiac arrest with VF/VT rhythm, up to three quick successive shocks should be given before starting chest compressions. This is regarded as the first shock in the ALS algorithm. Adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes and a praecordial thump should only be used if a defibrillator is not available. Commencing CPR after just one shock would miss the opportunity to deliver three rapid shocks.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-week pregnant woman is referred to the pregnancy clinic with gestational hypertension. There is no evidence of protein in her urine.
Which of the following is the most suitable treatment?Your Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Hypertension Medications During Pregnancy
Gestational hypertension, which is characterized by new hypertension after 20 weeks without significant proteinuria, can be treated with various medications. However, not all hypertension medications are safe during pregnancy. Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide and thiazide-like diuretics like indapamide, should be avoided as they can cause complications in the fetus. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) like losartan and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like ramipril can also affect fetal blood pressure control and should be avoided unless essential. Labetalol is recommended as the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension, with methyldopa and nifedipine as other safe options. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic BP >90 mmHg or a systolic BP >140 mmHg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old man comes to you with complaints of nocturnal dyspnea, intermittent palpitations, and chest tightness. During your examination, you observe a collapsing pulse and a displaced apex beat towards the left. Additionally, you notice his head nodding in sync with his pulse. What do you anticipate hearing upon auscultation of the precordium?
Your Answer: An early diastolic murmur
Explanation:Aortic regurgitation is usually accompanied by an early diastolic murmur, along with Corrigan’s pulse and De Musset’s sign. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a pansystolic murmur, while aortic stenosis is associated with an ejection systolic murmur. A patent ductus arteriosus is indicated by a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, and mitral stenosis is associated with a late diastolic murmur.
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. In the developing world, rheumatic fever is the most common cause of AR, while in developed countries, calcific valve disease and connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are more common causes. Symptoms of AR include an early diastolic murmur, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. Echocardiography is used to investigate suspected AR. Management includes medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery for symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months
Explanation:Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.
If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.
Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.
Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.
Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.
Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.
Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with hypertension has an annual review. He is medicated with amlodipine 10 mg once daily. He has never smoked and does not have diabetes. His past medical history is unremarkable. He has a blood pressure of 126/74 mmHg, total cholesterol:HDL-cholesterol ratio of 6.3, and QRISK2-2017 of 26.1%.
Target blood pressure in people aged <80 years, with treated hypertension: <140/90 mmHg.
Target blood pressure in people aged â„80 years, with treated hypertension: <150/90 mmHg.
Total cholesterol: HDL-cholesterol ratio: high risk if >6.
You decide to initiate statin therapy for primary prevention of cerebrovascular disease (CVD).
Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for this patient?
Select the SINGLE drug from the slit below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Statin Use in Primary and Secondary Prevention of CVD
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the use of statins in the prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD). For primary prevention, NICE recommends offering atorvastatin 20 mg to individuals with a 10-year risk of developing CVD â„10%. Fluvastatin and simvastatin are not recommended as first-line agents for primary prevention.
For secondary prevention in individuals with established CVD, NICE recommends using atorvastatin 80 mg, with a lower dose used if there are potential drug interactions or high risk of adverse effects. Simvastatin 80 mg is considered a high-intensity statin, but is not recommended as a first-line agent for primary or secondary prevention.
NICE guidelines emphasize the importance of assessing CVD risk using a recognized scoring system, such as QRISK2, for primary prevention. All modifiable risk factors should be addressed for individuals with a risk score >10%, including weight loss, tight control of blood pressure, exercise, smoking cessation, and statin use to lower cholesterol.
For secondary prevention, all patients with CVD should be offered a statin. The QRISK2 risk assessment tool is recommended for assessing CVD risk in individuals up to and including age 84 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her oxygen saturation is 90%. After receiving oxygen, she experiences ventricular fibrillation and has a GCS of 3. ALS is initiated. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and multiple pulmonary emboli. What additional medication should be considered for her management during ALS?
Your Answer: Alteplase
Explanation:During CPR, thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected. Alteplase is a suitable option for advanced life support (ALS) in such cases. This is particularly relevant for patients who present with symptoms suggestive of a PE and have a medical history of previous pulmonary emboli. Thrombolysis can be a life-saving intervention for these patients.
Adenosine is not appropriate for this situation as it is a class 5 antiarrhythmic used mainly for supraventricular tachycardia. Apixaban is an anticoagulant that is useful for long-term treatment and prevention of pulmonary emboli, but it is not suitable for immediate use in a hemodynamically unstable patient requiring advanced life support. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is used in peripheral arterial disease and acute coronary syndrome, but it has no role in the acute treatment of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of intermittent chest pains. She states that these started in the afternoon and have gotten worse. The pain is central and seems to improve when she sits on her chair and leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension. The GP decides to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes what might be seen on the ECG?
Select the SINGLE most likely ECG finding from the list below.
Your Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation
Correct Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR segment depression
Explanation:Understanding ECG Findings in Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a condition that commonly presents with central pleuritic chest pain, relieved on leaning forward. One of the main ECG findings in acute pericarditis is widespread concave ST-segment elevations with PR-segment depression, which is 85% specific for the condition. Absent P waves are not typically caused by acute pericarditis, and ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads is more suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction. U waves are not characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis and are associated with other conditions. Other clinical features of acute pericarditis are largely dependent on the underlying cause. It is important to understand these ECG findings to aid in the diagnosis and management of acute pericarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with atrial fibrillation. She is stable with a ventricular rate of 70. Which of the following drug options would be the most suitable for her?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Warfarin or direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: Warfarin, DOACs, Aspirin, Digoxin, Furosemide, and Lidocaine
Patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 4 require anticoagulation to reduce the risk of a CVA. The two main options are warfarin and DOACs, but the choice depends on other co-morbidities and patient preference. Before starting warfarin, patients should be referred to the Anticoagulation Clinic and screened for contraindications.
Aspirin has no benefit in atrial fibrillation, and digoxin should only be used for short-term rate control due to evidence of increased mortality with long-term use. Furosemide can help with symptoms and edema in heart failure but does not improve mortality. Lidocaine is only appropriate for ventricular arrhythmias in unstable patients and requires specialist support.
In summary, the treatment options for atrial fibrillation vary depending on the patient’s individual circumstances and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 23
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to your ward with a lower respiratory tract infection. She has a medical history of hypertension and gout and is currently taking amlodipine 10mg once daily and allopurinol 100mg once daily. You observe that her blood pressure has been consistently high over the past three days, with readings of 149/76 mmHg, 158/88 mmHg, and 150/82 mmHg. Which antihypertensive medication would be the most suitable to initiate?
Your Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking a calcium channel blocker, the addition of an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In this case, since the patient’s hypertension remains uncontrolled, it is appropriate to start them on an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, such as lisinopril. Atenolol would be a suitable option if the patient was already taking a calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor/ARB, and thiazide-like diuretic with a potassium level above 4.5 mmol/L. However, since the patient has a history of gout, thiazide-like diuretics like bendroflumethiazide and indapamide should be avoided as they can exacerbate gout symptoms.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 6.2 mmol/l
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease after experiencing a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Although she denies chest pain, she reports an increase in shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, her vital signs are normal, but there is mild pitting edema up to the knees bilaterally. An echocardiogram reveals mild left ventricular impairment with an estimated ejection fraction of 45%. What is the initial treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol and amlodipine
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol and ramipril
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for patients with heart failure with reduced LVEF is a combination of a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor. In this case, bisoprolol and ramipril are the appropriate medications to prescribe. The patient’s symptoms, medical history, and reduced left ventricular ejection fraction support this treatment plan. Amlodipine and ramipril, bisoprolol and amlodipine, and bisoprolol and furosemide are not recommended as initial treatments for heart failure with reduced LVEF.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Correct
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A 29-year-old male patient informs you that he has Long QT syndrome and you are contemplating prescribing an antibiotic. Which antibiotic should you avoid prescribing to him?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:A prolonged QT interval may be caused by Erythromycin.
Understanding Long QT Syndrome
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.
LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Correct
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A 55-year-old caucasian man comes in for his annual hypertension check-up. He has already completed a blood pressure diary at home, which shows an average daytime reading of 160/100 mmHg. During his visit today, his blood pressure is measured at 174/110 mmHg. He is currently taking ramipril 10mg daily and is fully compliant with his medication.
In addition to hypertension, he has a history of recurrent gout and takes allopurinol for it. He has no other medical issues. Since his hypertension diagnosis, he has quit smoking and has taken steps to improve his lifestyle.
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Add nifedipine
Explanation:If a patient with hypertension is already on an ACE inhibitor and has a history of gout, it would be more appropriate to prescribe a calcium channel blocker rather than a thiazide as the next step in treatment. Nifedipine is the recommended choice for this patient. The target blood pressure for adults under 80 years old with hypertension is below 140/90 mmHg. If a single medication is not controlling the patient’s blood pressure, a second agent should be considered after checking treatment adherence. For a Caucasian man under 55 years old, the first step in treatment is an ACE inhibitor or an ARB. The second step is the addition of a CCB or thiazide-like diuretic, depending on clinical factors. However, in this case, the patient’s history of gout makes nifedipine a more appropriate choice than bendroflumethiazide. Doxazosin is not recommended for stage 2 hypertension, and losartan should not be used together with an ACE inhibitor. Lifestyle changes and repeat blood pressure in 3 months are not sufficient at this stage, as a single medication may not be enough to control hypertension.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Correct
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A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest pain. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. His vital signs are as follows: BP 153/90 mmHg in his right arm and 130/80 in his left arm, heart rate 89/minute, temperature 37.2ÂșC, respiration rate 17/minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Upon examination, the patient has absent pulses in his right leg and diminished pulses in his left leg.
What is the recommended diagnostic test for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: CT angiography chest/abdomen/pelvis
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms of thoracic aortic dissection and is stable, CT angiography is the preferred diagnostic test. This imaging technique provides a clear view of the aorta and helps plan surgical intervention if necessary. In cases of proximal aortic dissection, inter-arm blood pressure measurements may reveal a difference of over 20 mmHg, with the right arm showing higher pressure due to its proximity to the heart. The absence or reduction of femoral pulses on one or both sides is also a common finding. While a chest x-ray may show signs associated with aortic dissection, it is not specific enough for diagnosis. Transesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is used to confirm the diagnosis if CT angiography is inconclusive or if the patient is unstable. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is less sensitive and specific than TOE for detecting aortic dissection.
Understanding Aortic Dissection: Classification, Investigation, and Management
Aortic dissection is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta, with type A affecting the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B affecting the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification further divides aortic dissection into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.
To diagnose aortic dissection, imaging studies such as chest x-ray and CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis are essential. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) may be more suitable for unstable patients who cannot undergo CT scanning. Management of type A aortic dissection requires surgical intervention, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting surgery. Type B aortic dissection can be managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression.
Complications of aortic dissection depend on the location of the tear. Backward tears can lead to aortic incompetence/regurgitation and myocardial infarction, while forward tears can cause unequal arm pulses and blood pressure, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future. It is important to remember that patients may present acutely and be clinically unstable, so the choice of investigations and management should take this into account.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man visits his GP complaining of recurring central chest pain during physical activity. He reports no chest pain while at rest. The patient was diagnosed with angina six months ago and has been taking verapamil and GTN spray. His medical history includes hypertension, asthma, and osteoarthritis of the right knee. What medication should the doctor prescribe?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:If a patient with symptomatic stable angina is already on a calcium channel blocker but cannot take a beta-blocker due to a contraindication, the next step in treatment should involve long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine. This scenario involves a 64-year-old man who experiences recurring chest pain during physical activity, which is likely due to poorly controlled stable angina. Although calcium channel blockers and beta-blockers are typically the first-line treatment for stable angina, the patient’s history of asthma makes beta-blockers unsuitable. As the initial treatment has not been effective, the patient should try the next line of therapy. Atenolol, bisoprolol, and diltiazem are not appropriate options for this patient due to their potential risks and lack of effectiveness in this case.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the ambulatory care unit with complaints of tenderness in his calf. His GP referred him for evaluation. Upon examination, there is no visible swelling, and the leg appears symmetrical to the other leg. However, he experiences tenderness when the deep veins of the calf are palpated. The patient has no significant medical history. What is the initial management option recommended for this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan with results available within 4 hours
Correct Answer: Arrange a D dimer test with results available within 4 hours
Explanation:If a patient has a Wells’ score of 1 or less for a suspected DVT, the first step is to arrange a D dimer test with results available within 4 hours, according to NICE guidelines. In this case, the score of 1 is due to localized tenderness along the deep venous system, with no other risk factors present. A proximal leg vein ultrasound scan is not the first-line investigation option for a Wells’ score of 1 or less, and anticoagulant treatment should not be started without a D dimer test. If the D dimer results cannot be obtained within 4 hours, low molecular weight heparin injection may be considered, but therapeutic dose apixaban should not be started without a D dimer test.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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