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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man of African descent, who was diagnosed with lupus nephritis 5 years ago, is admitted with complaints of pain in both groins that is radiating down to the thighs and buttocks. Movements around the hip are severely restricted and he has a limp while walking. The pain developed insidiously and has gradually worsened. There is no history of trauma. He is currently on 25 mg prednisone/day and cyclophosphamide. An X-ray of the pelvis and hips shows no abnormality.
What is the most likely cause of this hip pain?Your Answer: Septic arthritis of the hip due to immunosuppression
Correct Answer: Steroid-induced avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head
Explanation:Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head can be caused by chronic corticosteroid use or excessive alcohol consumption, with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) also being a risk factor. X-rays may not show changes until weeks later, so magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred diagnostic tool. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is a disorder of the adolescent hip that occurs when the femoral head slips off in a backward direction due to a weakness in the growth plate. Septic arthritis of the hip due to immunosuppression will present with severe pain, joint tenderness, and swelling, and is unlikely to present bilaterally. Osteomalacia, which is characterized by decreased bone mineralization, can cause pathological fractures and diffuse bone pain. Steroid-induced osteoporosis, on the other hand, is characterized by osteopenia and an increased risk of fractures, and can be treated with bisphosphonates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after injuring his right upper arm while playing at the park. According to his friend who witnessed the incident, the boy fell off the monkey bars and landed on his right side. The boy is experiencing significant pain and is hesitant to move his arm.
What is the most frequent observation in patients with a Salter-Harris fracture?Your Answer: Transverse fracture through the growth plate
Correct Answer: Fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis
Explanation:Understanding Salter-Harris Fractures: Types and Characteristics
Salter-Harris fractures are a common type of injury in children that involve the growth plate. These fractures are classified into five different types based on their characteristics. The most common type is a type II fracture, which involves a fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis. This type of fracture occurs in up to 75% of all Salter-Harris fractures.
Another type of fracture is a transverse fracture through the growth plate, which is relatively rare and occurs in approximately 5% of all cases. A crush fracture, known as a Salter-Harris type V, is an uncommon type of injury that damages the growth plate by direct longitudinal compression. This type of fracture carries a poorer prognosis than the other classes.
It is important to note that Salter-Harris fractures can only occur in children before the fusion of the physis and must involve the growth plate by definition. However, greenstick fractures, which are incomplete fractures that only involve one of the bony cortices, do not affect the growth plate and are not included in the classification.
In summary, understanding the different types and characteristics of Salter-Harris fractures is crucial in diagnosing and treating these injuries in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started after lifting some heavy boxes during a move. The pain was initially limited to her lower back but now she has shooting pains radiating down the back of her thigh, the lateral aspect of her leg and into the lateral border of her left foot. The pain can wake her at night if she moves suddenly but does not otherwise disturb her sleep. She is well, without past medical history of note. She reports no lower limb weakness, disturbance of sphincter function, nor any saddle symptoms. Examination reveals a tender lumbar spine, numbness to the lateral border of the left foot and pain on straight leg raise at 40 degrees on the left. There is no limb weakness.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy while arranging a magnetic resonance (MR) scan of the lumbar spine
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy, with a review after 8 weeks to consider onward referral to a spinal surgeon or musculoskeletal medicine specialist if no better
Explanation:Management of Sciatica: Analgesia and Referral for Physiotherapy
Sciatica, also known as lumbar radiculopathy, is a common condition caused by a herniated disc, spondylolisthesis, or spinal stenosis. It is characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness that typically extends from the buttocks down to the foot. Diagnosis is made through a positive straight leg raise test. Management involves analgesia and early referral to physiotherapy. Bed rest is not recommended, and patients should continue to stay active. Symptoms usually resolve within 6-8 weeks, but if they persist, referral to a specialist may be necessary for further investigation and management with corticosteroid injections or surgery. Red flag symptoms, such as major motor weakness, urinary/faecal incontinence, saddle anaesthesia, night pain, fever, systemic symptoms, weight loss, past history of cancer, or immunosuppression, require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman suffered a severe crushing injury to her left upper leg in a motor vehicle accident. She sustained a severe contusion around the neck and head of the fibula.
Which nerve is susceptible to compression at the lateral head and neck of the fibula?Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Nerve Anatomy of the Leg: Common Peroneal, Deep Peroneal, Superficial Peroneal, Saphenous, and Tibial Nerves
The leg is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. One of these nerves is the common peroneal nerve, which descends through the popliteal fossa and runs parallel to the biceps femoris insertion tendon. It then curves around the fibular head and neck before dividing into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves.
The deep peroneal nerve innervates the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. On the other hand, the superficial peroneal nerve supplies the peroneus longus and brevis before providing cutaneous innervation to the dorsal skin of the foot.
Another nerve that supplies cutaneous innervation to the leg is the saphenous nerve. It passes superficial to the femoral triangle and is not likely to be damaged in injuries involving the fibula.
Finally, the tibial nerve arises in the distal third of the thigh and passes deep through the popliteal fossa. It does not pass close to the fibula but instead leaves the fossa, passing through the two heads of the gastrocnemius.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a match. The tournament doctor evaluates him on the sideline and the player reports difficulty with raising his arm. Upon examination, the doctor finds that the patient is unable to initiate abduction of the arm, but is able to continue the motion when the doctor assists with a few degrees of abduction.
What is the probable reason for the player's symptoms?Your Answer: Supraspinatus tear
Explanation:The patient is experiencing difficulty initiating abduction of their affected arm, but is able to actively complete the range of motion if the initial stages of abduction are performed for them. This is consistent with a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, which is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The supraspinatus is responsible for the initial 15 degrees of abduction, after which the deltoid muscle takes over. In contrast, damage to the infraspinatus or teres minor muscles would typically affect lateral rotation or adduction, respectively. A tear in the subscapularis muscle, which is responsible for adduction and medial rotation, is a possible diagnosis given the patient’s symptoms. Dysfunction in the deltoid muscle or axillary nerve would prevent full abduction of the arm, but this is not the case for this patient. Deltoid tears are rare and usually associated with traumatic shoulder dislocation or large rotator cuff injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in a bent position. She finds it challenging to extend it without using her other hand, and occasionally hears a clicking sound when she does so.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trigger finger
Explanation:Common Hand Conditions: Trigger Finger, Dupuytren’s Contracture, and Osteoarthritis
Trigger Finger: A common cause of hand pain and disability, trigger finger occurs when the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This results in a fixed flexion of the finger, which pops back suddenly when released. It may be due to trauma or have no obvious cause. Treatment may include corticosteroid injection or tendon release surgery.
Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes a fixed flexion contracture of the hand, making it difficult to straighten the affected fingers.
Osteoarthritis: A degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis may cause deformity and pain in the affected joint, but not the symptoms of trigger finger.
Other possible hand conditions include cramp and tetany, which may cause muscle spasms and tingling sensations. It is important to seek medical attention for any persistent hand pain or discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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