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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his daughter with complaints of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and swollen ankles that have been present for a few weeks. On examination, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram reveals a reduced ejection fraction. He responds well to treatment with optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide. What is the most accurate statement regarding his future management?

      Your Answer: He should be started on a ß-blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. One of the recommended treatment options is the prescription of a cardioselective β-blocker such as carvedilol. However, it should not be taken at the same time as an ACE inhibitor. While diuretics can help control oedema, the mainstay of treatment for chronic heart failure is ACE inhibitors and β-blockade. Although digoxin and spironolactone may have a place in treatment, they are not first or second line options. For severe cases of heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, a combination of these treatment options can help manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of...

    Correct

    • You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.

      What recommendations would you provide to him?

      Your Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan

      Explanation:

      When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.

      When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.

      What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Correct Answer: Exercise tolerance test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation

      When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.

      For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman presents to you for a follow-up blood pressure check. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to you for a follow-up blood pressure check. She has been evaluated by two other physicians in the past three months, with readings of 140/90 mmHg and 148/86 mmHg. Her current blood pressure is 142/84 mmHg. She has no familial history of hypertension, her BMI is 23, and she is a non-smoker. Based on the most recent NICE recommendations, what is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Correct Answer: Check ECG and blood tests and see her again in a month with the results

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension Diagnosis and Management

      Hypertension is a common condition that requires careful diagnosis and management. According to the 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), ambulatory or home blood pressure should be checked if a patient has a blood pressure equal to or greater than 140/90 mmHg. If the systolic reading is above 140 mmHg, it is considered a sign of hypertension.

      The guidelines also state that lifestyle advice should be given to all patients, and drug treatment should be considered if there are signs of end organ damage or if the patient’s CVD risk is greater than 10% in 10 years. For patients under 40 years old, referral to a specialist should be considered.

      It is important to note that NICE guidance is not the only source of information on hypertension diagnosis and management. While it is important to have an awareness of the latest guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.

      In summary, understanding the diagnosis and management of hypertension is crucial for general practitioners. The 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension provides important information on thresholds for diagnosis and management, but it is important to consider other sources of information as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital with a new diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital with a new diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. His symptoms of breathlessness and ankle swelling have now resolved and he has been commenced on ramipril, bisoprolol and furosemide. He also has type 2 diabetes, for which he is already taking metformin and gliclazide. His renal function is normal and his serum potassium is 4.9 mmol/L.

      What ongoing care interventions should be included for this patient?

      Your Answer: Annual influenza vaccination

      Explanation:

      An annual influenza vaccine should be offered as part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure.

      Individuals diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction should receive an annual influenza vaccine and a one-time pneumococcal vaccination.

      Typically, only those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease require pneumococcal revaccination every five years.

      Following a myocardial infarction, patients are typically advised to abstain from sexual activity for four weeks, rather than heart failure.

      While patients should limit their salt intake to no more than 6 g per day, they should not replace it with potassium-containing salt substitutes due to the risk of hyperkalemia when used concurrently with ACE inhibitors.

      For group 1 entitlement (cars, motorcycles), driving may continue as long as there are no symptoms that could distract the driver’s attention, and there is no need to notify the DVLA.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires a statin. His brother has encouraged him to book the appointment because ‘everyone in the family takes a statin’, due to familial hypercholesterolaemia. He has no significant medical history and rarely consults with a doctor. His total cholesterol is 8.2 mmol/l.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Commence Atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease

      Correct Answer: Carry out blood tests for liver, renal and thyroid function, HbA1c and lipid panel

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia requires a thorough diagnostic and management approach. The first step is to carry out blood tests for liver, renal, and thyroid function, HbA1c, and lipid panel. Additionally, a full cardiovascular assessment and exclusion of secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia should be conducted before referral.

      QRisk2 scoring is not appropriate in suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia due to the high risk of premature heart disease associated with the condition. Atorvastatin 20 mg is a good choice for primary prevention, but further tests are necessary to establish its suitability for the patient. Atorvastatin 80 mg is often given as secondary prevention, but there is no evidence that this is necessary for the patient from the information provided.

      Referral to a lipid clinic in secondary care is imperative for patients with suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia. This condition should be suspected in adults with a total cholesterol >7.5mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of a cardiovascular event before the age of 60 years old. Basic blood tests will provide important diagnostic and management information, ruling out secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia and assessing the patient’s suitability for treatment with lipid-lowering drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 44-year-old man has an irregular tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 130....

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man has an irregular tachycardia with a ventricular rate of 130. He played in a football match the previous day and consumed 28 units of alcohol on the evening of the match. On examination his blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Arrhythmias and Their Characteristics

      Acute atrial fibrillation is characterized by a sudden onset within the past 48 hours and may be triggered by excessive alcohol or caffeine intake. An ECG is necessary for diagnosis. Atrial flutter is less common than atrial fibrillation and typically presents with a rapid, irregular or regular pulse with a ventricular rate of approximately 150 beats per minute. Extrasystoles are extra heartbeats that disrupt the normal rhythm of the heart and can originate from either the atria or ventricles. Sinus arrhythmia is a common occurrence in children and young adults and involves cyclic changes in heart rate during breathing. Sinus tachycardia is a physiological response to various stimuli such as fever, anxiety, pain, exercise, and hyperthyroidism, and is characterized by a regular heart rate of over 100 beats per minute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral...

    Correct

    • In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which option warrants hospital admission or referral for urgent assessment and intervention the most?

      Your Answer: Apex beat 155 bpm

      Explanation:

      Urgent Admission Criteria for Patients with Atrial Fibrillation

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence has provided guidelines for urgent admission of patients with atrial fibrillation. These guidelines recommend urgent admission for patients who exhibit a rapid pulse greater than 150 bpm and/or low blood pressure with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmHg. Additionally, urgent admission is recommended for patients who experience loss of consciousness, severe dizziness, ongoing chest pain, or increasing breathlessness. Patients who have experienced a complication of atrial fibrillation, such as stroke, transient ischaemic attack, or acute heart failure, should also be urgently admitted. While other symptoms may warrant a referral, these criteria indicate the need for immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks ago. She needs to have a dental filling.

      Which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: She should receive antibiotic prophylaxis

      Correct Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antibiotic Prophylaxis for High-Risk Patients

      NICE has released new guidance regarding the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients. The guidance acknowledges that patients with pre-existing cardiac lesions are at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis (IE). However, NICE has concluded that clinical and cost-effectiveness evidence supports the recommendation that at-risk patients undergoing interventional procedures should no longer be given antibiotic prophylaxis against IE.

      It is important to note that antibiotic therapy is still necessary to treat active or potential infections. The current antibiotic prophylaxis regimens may even result in a net loss of life. Therefore, it is crucial to identify patient groups who may be most at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis so that prompt investigation and treatment can be undertaken. However, offering antibiotic prophylaxis for these patients during dental procedures is not considered effective. This new guidance marks a paradigm shift from current accepted practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive exercise intolerance. Four weeks ago, she experienced an episode suggestive of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. Examination reveals a jugular venous pressure (JVP) raised up to her earlobes, soft, tender hepatomegaly and bilateral pitting oedema up to her ankles. Chest examination reveals bibasal crepitations and an audible S3 on auscultation of the heart. The chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with interstitial infiltrates. Echocardiography shows global left ventricular hypokinesia with an ejection fraction of 20–25%. She has no other significant medical history.
      Which of the following is the most likely underlying causal factor in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amyloidosis

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant genetic trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dilated Cardiomyopathy and its Causes

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is a progressive disease of the heart muscle that causes stretching and dilatation of the left ventricle, resulting in contractile dysfunction. This condition can also affect the right ventricle, leading to congestive cardiac failure. While it is a heterogeneous condition with multiple causal factors, about 35% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. Other causes include autoimmune reactions, hypertension, connective tissue disorders, metabolic causes, malignancy, neuromuscular causes, and chronic alcohol abuse. Rarely, amyloidosis and Marfan syndrome can also cause dilated cardiomyopathy. Ischaemic heart disease is not the most common cause in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old patient. While HIV infection can cause dilated cardiomyopathy, it is not a common cause, and it would be rare for this complication to be the first presentation of HIV. Understanding the various causes of dilated cardiomyopathy can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur twice a day and are fast and irregular, with a possible association with alcohol consumption. He denies any chest pain or fainting episodes. On examination, his cardiovascular symptoms are normal, with a pulse of 72/min and a blood pressure of 116/78 mmHg. Blood tests and a 12-lead ECG are unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Arrange a Holter monitor

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences palpitations, the first step in investigating the issue should be to conduct a Holter monitor test after conducting initial blood tests and an ECG. Palpitations are often indicative of an arrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation, and it is important to conduct further investigations to rule out this possibility.

      Holter monitoring is the recommended first-line investigation to capture any episodes of arrhythmia. Since the patient experiences these episodes daily, a 24-hour monitoring period is appropriate. However, a troponin test is not necessary as there is no chest pain, and an echocardiogram is not warranted as there are no indications of heart failure.

      If the Holter monitoring results are normal and the patient continues to experience symptoms, an external loop recorder may be considered.

      Investigating Palpitations: Identifying Possible Causes and Capturing Episodic Arrhythmias

      Palpitations are a common symptom that can be caused by various factors such as arrhythmias, stress, and increased awareness of normal heartbeats. To investigate the underlying cause of palpitations, first-line investigations include a 12-lead ECG, thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and a full blood count. However, these investigations may not capture episodic arrhythmias, which are often missed during a short ECG recording.

      To capture episodic arrhythmias, the most common investigation is Holter monitoring. This portable battery-operated device continuously records ECG from 2-3 leads for 24 hours or longer if symptoms are less than daily. Patients are asked to keep a diary to record any symptomatic palpitations, which can later be compared to the rhythm strip at the time of the symptoms. At the end of the monitoring, a report is generated summarizing heart rate, arrhythmias, and changes in ECG waveform.

      If no abnormality is found on the Holter monitor and symptoms persist, other options include an external loop recorder or an implantable loop recorder. These investigations can help identify the underlying cause of palpitations and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is seen in the DVT clinic and found to have a raised D-dimer. As a result, he undergoes a Doppler scan which reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and otherwise healthy, the patient has not had any recent surgeries or prolonged periods of immobility. He is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant.

      What is the appropriate duration of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lifelong

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old man complains of palpitations.
    Select from the list the single situation in...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man complains of palpitations.
      Select from the list the single situation in which palpitations will most likely need urgent further investigation.

      Your Answer: Palpitations accompanied by syncope or near syncope

      Explanation:

      Understanding Palpitations and When to Seek Medical Attention

      Palpitations are a common occurrence that can be described as an abnormally perceived heartbeat. While they are usually benign, they can be frightening. A risk stratification system has been developed to determine when urgent referral is necessary. This includes palpitations during exercise, palpitations with syncope or near syncope, a family history of sudden cardiac death or inheritable cardiac conditions, high degree atrioventricular block, and high-risk structural heart disease. However, a history of hypertension is not an indication for urgent referral. Ventricular extrasystoles on an ECG are likely benign unless there is a family history or known structural heart disease. Recurrent episodes of the heart beating fast may indicate a tachyarrhythmia and require routine referral. A normal ECG also warrants routine referral, except for second- and third-degree atrioventricular block, which require urgent referral. It is important to understand when to seek medical attention for palpitations to ensure proper care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits his primary care physician for his yearly examination. During the check-up, his blood pressure is measured at 170/100 mmHg. He is currently taking furosemide and aspirin. Which medication would be the most suitable to include?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure have demonstrated improved prognosis with the use of both enalapril and bisoprolol.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce...

    Correct

    • Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce all cause mortality?

      Your Answer: Statins

      Explanation:

      Lipid Management in Primary Care

      Lipid management is a common scenario in primary care, and NICE has produced guidance on Lipid modification (CG181) in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The use of statins in primary prevention is supported by clinical trial data, with WOSCOPS (The West of Scotland Coronary Prevention Study) being a landmark trial. This study looked at statin versus placebo in men aged 45-65 with no coronary disease and a cholesterol >4 mmol/L, showing a reduction in all-cause mortality by 22% in the statin arm for a 20% total cholesterol reduction.

      Other study data also supports the use of statins as primary prevention of coronary artery disease. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on lipid modification – CVD prevention recommends Atorvastatin at 20 mg for primary prevention and 80 mg for secondary prevention. Risk is assessed using the QRISK2 calculator. Overall, lipid management is an important aspect of primary care, and healthcare professionals should be familiar with the latest guidance and clinical trial data to provide optimal care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 67-year old man with hypertension visited his general practitioner after an ambulatory...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old man with hypertension visited his general practitioner after an ambulatory blood pressure monitor showed a daytime average blood pressure of 155/98 mmHg. Despite taking optimal doses of ramipril and amlodipine with good adherence, which medication should be introduced to his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve the management of hypertension that is not well-controlled despite the use of an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to include a thiazide-like diuretic.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit registration medical.

      He is completely asymptomatic but his blood pressure measures 150/95 mmHg, then 148/90 mmHg and 155/98 mmHg on two further visits a few weeks apart. He is not taking any medication currently.

      What is the next best treatment option for this gentleman?

      Your Answer: Organise a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Blood Pressure Monitoring

      The latest NICE guidelines recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) before starting therapy, except for patients with severe hypertension (BP 180/120 mmHg). If the clinic blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, ABPM should be offered to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. When using ABPM to confirm hypertension, it is important to take at least two measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours (e.g., between 08:00 and 22:00). To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, the average value of at least 14 measurements taken during the person’s usual waking hours should be used. These guidelines aim to improve the accuracy of hypertension diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder and arm for the past few weeks when he exercises at the gym. He stops exercising and it goes away within five minutes. He has taken glyceryl trinitrate and finds it relieves the pain. His blood pressure is 158/94 mmHg and examination of the cardiovascular system and upper limbs is normal. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Exercise electrocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Stable Angina: CT Coronary Angiography, Non-Invasive Functional Imaging, ECG, Endoscopy, and Exercise ECG

      Stable angina is suspected when a patient experiences constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms during physical exertion, which is relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate within five minutes. A typical angina diagnosis can be confirmed through a computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography, which should be offered if the patient exhibits typical or atypical angina or if the ECG shows ST-T changes or Q waves. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended if the CT coronary angiography is not diagnostic or if the coronary artery disease is of uncertain functional significance. While ECG changes may suggest coronary artery disease, a normal ECG doesn’t confirm or exclude a diagnosis of stable angina. Endoscopy is used to investigate gastro-oesophageal causes of chest pain, but exercise-induced chest pain is more likely to be cardiac in nature. Exercise electrocardiograms are no longer recommended to diagnose or exclude stable angina in patients without known coronary artery disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention. He reports a history of persistent unexplained generalised muscle pains and so a creatine kinase (CK) level is checked on a blood test prior to starting treatment.

      The CK result comes back and it is four times the upper limit of normal.

      What is the most appropriate management approach in this instance?

      Your Answer: Statin therapy should not be started and ezetimibe should be prescribed instead

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy should not be started and a fibrate should be prescribed instead

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy and Creatine Kinase Levels

      Prior to offering a statin, it is recommended to check creatine kinase (CK) levels in individuals with persistent generalised unexplained muscle pain, according to NICE guidelines. If CK levels are more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy should not be started. The CK level should be rechecked after 7 days, and if it remains elevated to more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, a statin should not be initiated. However, if CK levels are elevated but less than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin treatment can be initiated, but a lower dose is recommended. It is important to monitor CK levels in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure that muscle damage is not occurring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation presents to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, yellow vision, and nausea. She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/80, and her pulse is slow and irregular, hovering around 42. There is no evidence of cardiac failure. Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Digoxin Toxicity and its Management

      Digoxin toxicity is a condition that can cause a number of symptoms, including yellow vision and nausea. It can also lead to various arrhythmias, such as heart block, supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia. This toxicity can be associated with certain medications, including erythromycin, tetracyclines, quinidine, calcium channel blockers, captopril, and amiodarone.

      In addition to medication interactions, it is important to monitor renal function as deteriorating creatinine clearance can also contribute to toxicity. Management of digoxin toxicity involves measuring digoxin levels, avoiding or reducing the dose, and in severe cases, admission for cardiac monitoring and consideration of digoxin antibody therapy.

      To summarize, digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications. By being aware of the medications that can interact with digoxin and monitoring renal function, healthcare providers can help prevent and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23.5
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride level of 22 mmol/L. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and all other blood tests, including HbA1c, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function, are within normal limits. There is no clear explanation for the elevated triglyceride level, and there are no prior lipid profiles available for comparison. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. He reports no symptoms or feelings of illness.
      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition that increases the risk of pancreatitis, making prompt management crucial. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided specific guidance on how to manage this condition.

      If the triglyceride level is above 20 mmol/L and not due to alcohol excess or poor glycaemic control, urgent referral to a lipid clinic is necessary. For levels between 10 mmol/L and 20 mmol/L, a fasting sample should be repeated no sooner than 5 days and no longer than 2 weeks later. If the level remains above 10 mmol/L, secondary causes of hypertriglyceridaemia should be considered, and specialist advice should be sought.

      For those with a triglyceride level between 4.5 and 9.9 mmol/L, clinicians should consider that cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk may be underestimated using risk assessment tools such as QRISK. They should optimize the management of other CVD risk factors, and specialist advice should be sought if the non-HDL cholesterol level is above 7.5 mmol/L.

      In summary, the management of hypertriglyceridaemia requires careful consideration of the triglyceride level and other risk factors. Early referral to a lipid clinic and specialist advice can help prevent complications such as pancreatitis and reduce the risk of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks for blood pressure (BP) checks. Her results have shown significant variability. She presents you with a diary of home readings that the nurse has instructed her to take twice daily over the past two weeks. Her average BP based on these readings is 135/80 mmHg. Her BP today in the clinic is 162/102 mmHg, and the nurse has recorded similar levels on the last two visits. She doesn't want to take medication for her BP. She has no other medical conditions.
      What is the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Recommend treatment on the basis of the clinic readings

      Correct Answer: Accept the home blood pressure (BP) readings and diagnose white-coat hypertension

      Explanation:

      Managing White-Coat Hypertension with Home Blood Pressure Monitoring

      According to current NICE guidance, hypertension should be diagnosed in patients with a clinic BP of 140/90 mmHg or greater and either average daily ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) or home BP monitoring (HBPM) readings of greater than 135/85. However, if a patient’s home readings are within normal range, their elevated clinic BP is likely due to white-coat hypertension. In such cases, further assessment with ABPM is unnecessary. Monthly BP reviews with the practice nurse are also unnecessary if HBPM readings are normal. Treatment is not recommended based on clinic readings alone, and specialist referral is not needed if HBPM readings are within normal range. Home blood pressure monitoring can effectively manage white-coat hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart failure after an echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath during physical activity and has no other known medical conditions. He is not currently taking any medications.

      What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?

      Your Answer: Yearly influenza vaccine and one off pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines

      Correct Answer: Yearly influenza and one off pneumococcal vaccines

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that patients diagnosed with heart failure receive an annual influenza vaccine and a single pneumococcal vaccine.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.2
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  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She had no significant medical history. Upon post-mortem examination, it is discovered that she had asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum. What is the probability that her sister also has this condition?

      Your Answer: 0%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.2
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her heart failure management. She is currently on lisinopril 20 mg and carvedilol 25 mg BD. Her main symptoms include shortness of breath on minimal exercise and occasional episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. During the examination, her BP is 136/74, her pulse is 80 and regular. There are bibasal crackles but no other significant findings. The test results show a haemoglobin level of 128 g/L (115-165), white cells count of 7.9 ×109/L (4-11), platelets count of 201 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine level of 149 μmol/L (79-118), and an ejection fraction of 38% on echocardiogram. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Referral for cardiac resynchronisation

      Correct Answer: Add spironolactone to her regime

      Explanation:

      Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure can be managed with a combination of medications, including beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. However, if heart failure control is not optimised on this dual therapy, NICE guidelines (NG106) recommend adding an ARB or aldosterone antagonist. For patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or ARBs, nitrate and hydralazine can be used earlier in the treatment pathway.

      It is important to note that routine referral for revascularisation is not recommended in patients without symptoms of angina. Additionally, cardiac resynchronisation therapy should not be recommended until the patient’s therapy is further optimised. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer: Stop driving for at least 6 weeks, inform the DVLA

      Correct Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs of end-organ damage. As a first step, he is recommended to make lifestyle changes instead of taking medication.

      What are the most suitable lifestyle modifications to suggest?

      Your Answer: Switching from coffee to tea drinking

      Correct Answer: A diet containing less than 6g of salt per day

      Explanation:

      For patients with hypertension, it is recommended to follow a low salt diet and aim for less than 6g/day, ideally 3g/day. Consuming a diet high in processed red meats may increase cardiovascular risk and blood pressure, although this is a topic of ongoing research and public opinion varies. While tea may contain a similar amount of caffeine as coffee, it is unlikely to reduce overall caffeine intake. The current exercise recommendation for hypertension is 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 5 days a week. It is recommended to limit alcohol intake in hypertension, and consuming 2 glasses of red wine, 5 days a week would exceed the recommended limits.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      16.2
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (19/31) 61%
Passmed