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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old woman is brought in by her son as her memory has been deteriorating over the past year. Upon clarification with her son, it is confirmed that the patient has deteriorated over many months and has not had an acute illness. She has no significant past medical history apart from an appendicectomy when she was a teenager.
On examination, the patient is comfortable at rest, has a temperature of 36.8 degrees Celsius, heart rate of 70 beats per minute and blood pressure of 115/90 mmHg. Besides haematology and biochemistry, what other tests should be included in her initial screen?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests, serum B12 and folate, lumbar puncture, midstream urine
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate
Explanation:When diagnosing dementia, it is important to investigate and treat any potentially reversible causes. While syphilis and HIV may be considered as potential sources of symptoms, they should only be tested for if there is a relevant history or clinical presentation.
As there is no indication of an acute deterioration that could suggest delirium, a mid stream urine test is not required at this point. Routine cerebrospinal fluid assessment should not be conducted as part of the dementia investigation.
Understanding the Causes of Dementia
Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.
However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.
It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).
In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman with mild Alzheimer's disease presents for evaluation. She is currently on donepezil and has experienced some improvement in her short-term memory. However, she has recently been experiencing frequent early morning awakenings, has a poor appetite, and frequently expresses to her husband that she wants to end it all. She takes Ramipril for hypertension and atorvastatin 10 mg, but no other regular medications. What is the most suitable next step in her management?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Citalopram as a Treatment for Alzheimer’s Disease
Citalopram has been found to have a positive impact on the mood and wellbeing of patients with Alzheimer’s disease. While it may have minor effects on cognition, it is associated with a significant improvement in agitation and caregiver distress. However, it is recommended that the dose be limited to 20 mg in the elderly due to the risk of QT prolongation.
In contrast, fluoxetine and sertraline have not been shown to have a significant positive effect on mood in patients with Alzheimer’s disease. Valproate, while useful as a mood stabilizer outside of the context of Alzheimer’s, is of little value in patients with the condition. The use of haloperidol and other anti-psychotics is discouraged in this population due to the risk of cardiovascular adverse events.
Overall, citalopram may be a useful treatment option for managing mood and agitation in patients with Alzheimer’s disease. However, careful consideration of dosing and potential risks is necessary, particularly in elderly patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old man presents to a memory clinic with concerns about his memory. His wife has noticed changes in his memory and has requested an evaluation for dementia. She reports that he forgets where he is, forgets things in the middle of conversations, responds to things that are not there, and has reported seeing things. However, at other times, he is able to have normal conversations. The patient has a history of prostate cancer managed with hormone therapy, COPD, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. He has no recent changes in medication and quit smoking 20 years ago. He used to drink heavily but has been sober for five years. On examination, the patient is alert and oriented with a slight tremor in his left hand and increased muscle tone.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Brain metastases
Correct Answer: Lewy-body dementia
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is characterized by cognitive fluctuations, which distinguishes it from other types of dementia. Symptoms include a gradual decline in cognitive function, along with visual hallucinations and Parkinsonism. Alzheimer’s disease, on the other hand, typically involves a more progressive cognitive decline and does not usually present with hallucinations or fluctuations. Brain metastases should be ruled out, but normal blood tests for prostate cancer (such as PSA) suggest that this is unlikely. Vascular dementia may occur with a history of high blood pressure and smoking, but this does not match the symptoms described. A subdural hematoma is a strong possibility if there is fluctuating consciousness in the context of head trauma and anticoagulant use.
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions found in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease, and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism. However, both features usually occur within a year of each other, unlike Parkinson’s disease, where motor symptoms typically present at least one year before cognitive symptoms. Cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than just memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism and visual hallucinations, with delusions and non-visual hallucinations also possible.
Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used. SPECT uses a radioisotope called 123-I FP-CIT to diagnose Lewy body dementia with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%. Management involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s treatment. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to note that questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old male is brought into your falls clinic by his son after his third fall this year. No fractures were sustained and he appears to have no significant head injuries. The fall appears mechanical in nature. He currently lives with his son, who reports the patient's mobility to be progressively deteriorating, from full independence and no exercise limitations 1 year ago to restrictions at 50-70 yards now, limited by knee pain secondary to osteoarthritis. His other past medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease and previous gallstones.
You note he is withdrawn and makes little eye contact. His voice is quiet. When you ask him whether he is low in mood, he does not respond. He reports no suicidal ideations but has little hope for the future. He asks you to 'not worry about it', as he 'has been the same way for several months now'. However, the patient does seem amenable to some kind of treatment.
On the Beck depression scale, he scores 11/63 (0-13 = no or minimal depression), on the geriatric depression scale, he scores 11/15 (greater than 10 = indicative of depression) and mini-mental state examination, he scores 19/30 (20-26 = mild cognitive impairment, 10-19 = moderate cognitive impairment). Routine investigations including B12, folate, thyroid function, liver function tests and bone profile are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate treatment pathway?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Depression in the elderly can have a negative impact on cognitive function, which can lead to inaccurate results on measurement scales. Therefore, the use of Donepezil alone is not recommended. When assessing depression in elderly patients, the Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS) is more appropriate than the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI), as the latter places a heavy emphasis on somatic symptoms that are often under-reported in elderly patients. The patient in question is experiencing depression without suicidal thoughts. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are equally effective in treating depression in the elderly, but SSRIs such as citalopram are preferred as they have fewer interactions with P450 enzymes. TCAs are known to cause more anticholinergic side effects. Mirtazapine and sertraline have not been shown to be significantly more effective than placebo in treating depression in Alzheimer’s patients.
Understanding Depression in Older Adults
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.
To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with confusion. He has a medical history of hypertension, Parkinson's disease, and hypercholesterolemia. He takes co-careldopa, amlodipine, and atorvastatin. He lives alone and is independent.
Vital signs:
Heart rate: 101 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 120/77 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 20/minute
Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air
Temperature: 37.8ºC
During the examination, suprapubic tenderness is noted. The Glasgow coma scale is 14/15.
The patient is treated with antibiotics for a presumed urinary tract infection. Although he clinically and biochemically improves, he remains confused after 3-4 days of admission. Other causes of delirium are ruled out. He becomes increasingly agitated and poses a risk to himself and other patients, despite conservative measures to re-orient him.
What is the most appropriate medication choice given the patient's clinical history?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Quetiapine is a suitable choice for managing acute confusional state in Parkinson’s disease patients, as it has less anti-dopaminergic effects compared to other antipsychotics. Haloperidol and olanzapine should be avoided due to their potential to worsen PD symptoms.
Understanding Acute Confusional State
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to the hospital. It is often caused by a combination of predisposing factors such as age, dementia, significant injury, frailty, and polypharmacy, as well as precipitating events like infections, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and severe pain.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but commonly include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep cycle, and poor attention. Management of the condition involves treating the underlying cause, modifying the environment, and using sedatives like haloperidol or olanzapine. However, care must be taken in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen their symptoms.
Overall, understanding acute confusional state is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is being evaluated at the memory clinic for worsening dementia and coexisting Parkinson's disease, which is being treated with levodopa. On objective testing, she is found to have mild cognitive impairment. What medication should be recommended to alleviate her cognitive symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Lewy body dementia symptoms can be relieved with the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil and rivastigmine.
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions found in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease, and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism. However, both features usually occur within a year of each other, unlike Parkinson’s disease, where motor symptoms typically present at least one year before cognitive symptoms. Cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than just memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism and visual hallucinations, with delusions and non-visual hallucinations also possible.
Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used. SPECT uses a radioisotope called 123-I FP-CIT to diagnose Lewy body dementia with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%. Management involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s treatment. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to note that questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man was brought to the hospital after collapsing. A caregiver at his nursing home reported that he became pale and unresponsive in a chair but regained consciousness after a few minutes. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypothyroidism, mild dementia, and a previous seizure 10 years ago.
Upon examination, the paramedics noted a heart rate of 34/min, which has since resolved. The patient's heart sounds are normal, capillary refill is 3 seconds, and his pulse is regular at 60/min. Which medication(s) could have caused the collapse?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Management of Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.
Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man was admitted to hospital with fever and confusion. He had been found collapsed at home by his daughter, who reported that he was usually fit and well and coped well on his own at home.
He had a past history of hypertension, which was well-controlled on medication, and he also suffered from osteoarthritis.
On examination, he looked pale and unwell and smelled strongly of stale urine. His temperature was 38.5°C. He was disoriented in time, place and person. His blood pressure was 90/50 mmHg with pulse 120 beats per minute and regular.
There were widespread petechiae on the limbs. His respiratory rate was measured at 30 breaths per minute. His heart sounds were normal and the chest clear. His abdomen was soft, but he was very tender in the suprapubic region and a mass was felt rising from the pelvic brim.
After taking blood, it was noted that there was continued bleeding from the venipuncture site. A urinary catheter was inserted and yielded 2000 ml of cloudy yellow offensive-smelling urine.
Which of the following statements is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circulating levels of activated protein C (aPC) will be reduced
Explanation:Coagulation Abnormalities in Severe Sepsis
Severe sepsis can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a condition where blood clots form throughout the body, leading to organ damage and bleeding. The most likely source of sepsis in this case is the urinary tract.
In severe sepsis, several coagulation abnormalities may be observed. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are typically elevated, indicating a delay in blood clotting. The levels of fibrin degradation products (FDPs) and D-dimers, which are markers of blood clot breakdown, are also elevated. Platelet counts are reduced, which can further contribute to bleeding. Additionally, levels of protein C and antithrombin, which are natural anticoagulants, are reduced, further exacerbating the coagulation abnormalities.
Overall, these coagulation abnormalities can contribute to the development of DIC and worsen the prognosis of sepsis. Early recognition and treatment of sepsis are crucial in preventing the development of DIC and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You review a 75-year-old man who was admitted three days earlier with worsening confusion. According to his daughter he worsened overnight, becoming more agitated with slurred speech and a slight drooping of the left side of his face. He now no longer recognises her, and tried to hit her when she visited him on the ward earlier in the day. His BP is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 70/min (AF), and he has a murmur consistent with aortic stenosis. There is slight drooping of the left side of his face, and some apparent coordination problems affecting the left hand side. The examination is cut short when he accuses you of stealing from him and tries to hit you. Routine bloods are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate intervention in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Treatment for Multi-Infarct Dementia with Psychotic Features
Multi-infarct dementia is a condition that can lead to elements of psychosis, where patients may hold delusional beliefs. In this case, the patient is exhibiting physical violence and a belief that the staff intends to poison him. To manage this situation, an atypical anti-psychotic such as olanzapine is appropriate. NICE clinical pathways recommend the use of lorazepam, haloperidol, or olanzapine in acute situations, with haloperidol being the least preferred due to the risk of worsening movement disorders.
It is important to note that agents used for the treatment of Alzheimer’s, such as donepezil and memantine, are not recommended for the treatment of symptoms of multi-infarct dementia. Additionally, there are no features of depression in this case, so an SSRI such as sertraline is not warranted. While lorazepam may be sedating, it is not as effective in reducing psychotic features as olanzapine. Overall, the appropriate treatment for multi-infarct dementia with psychotic features involves the use of atypical anti-psychotics such as olanzapine, as recommended by NICE clinical pathways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit with abdominal pain, swelling and confusion. She has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, recurrent urinary tract infections and hypertension. She is currently taking amlodipine, co-careldopa and doxazosin. She resides in a care home and is usually pleasant and talkative with no history of memory problems. However, her behavior is out of character. Her observations are heart rate 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air, blood pressure 145/88 mmHg and temperature 37.1ºC.
Upon examination, impacted faeces in the rectum and mild suprapubic tenderness are noted. She is inattentive and confused, and her cognition fluctuates. A unilateral resting tremor and mild bradykinesia are also observed. Urinalysis showed leucocytes +++ and nitrites +. An ECG is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal elevated CRP levels, but they normalize after treatment with antibiotics for a presumed urinary tract infection and laxatives and suppositories for constipation.
Despite these interventions, the patient remains confused, agitated and inattentive, posing a danger to herself and other patients on the ward. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate pharmacological management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Quetiapine is a suitable medication for managing acute confusional states in patients with Parkinson’s disease. This is because it can improve cognition and psychotic features without worsening the motor symptoms of the disease. In cases where conservative measures have failed, pharmacological management may be necessary, and oral medications should be attempted first. Haloperidol is not recommended as it is a dopamine-antagonist and can worsen motor symptoms, while olanzapine can cause excessive sedation and worsen motor symptoms as well.
Understanding Acute Confusional State
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to the hospital. It is often caused by a combination of predisposing factors such as age, dementia, significant injury, frailty, and polypharmacy, as well as precipitating events like infections, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and severe pain.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but commonly include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep cycle, and poor attention. Management of the condition involves treating the underlying cause, modifying the environment, and using sedatives like haloperidol or olanzapine. However, care must be taken in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen their symptoms.
Overall, understanding acute confusional state is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are working in General Practice when a 70-year-old woman is brought in by her concerned daughter. She reports that her mother has been displaying unusual behavior lately, such as calling her in the middle of the night and believing that strangers are in the house. The patient also seems disoriented with time and often prepares for bed during the day. The daughter notes that some days her mother appears completely lucid.
Upon further questioning, the patient is aware of her surroundings but tends to ramble and go off-topic. She admits to experiencing visual hallucinations, including a cat that has been following her for several months. She also mentions feeling generally slower over the past year.
The patient's current medications include rivaroxaban for atrial fibrillation and amitriptyline for fibromyalgia. Upon reviewing her medical records, you notice that she has been brought in multiple times over the past six months with similar complaints and has been prescribed antibiotics for a suspected UTI each time.
What is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating cognition, which distinguishes it from other forms of dementia. The condition is identified by three main features: visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism symptoms, and confusion that varies in intensity. Patients may be misdiagnosed with delirium and treated for UTIs, so it’s important to take a detailed history to uncover the progressive nature of the disease. Patients may report feeling like others are present in their homes, and may have a history of REM sleep behavior disorder or confusional arousals upon waking from a nap. A thorough examination should be conducted to check for bradykinesia, rigidity, or rest tremor, which may indicate Lewy body dementia.
While medications like amitriptyline can contribute to cognitive impairment due to their high anticholinergic burden index, they typically wouldn’t cause visual hallucinations. Similarly, subdural hemorrhage can cause fluctuating confusion, but it’s more likely to present with focal neurology symptoms rather than hallucinations. Nonetheless, brain imaging is crucial in diagnosing this patient’s condition.
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions found in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease, and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism. However, both features usually occur within a year of each other, unlike Parkinson’s disease, where motor symptoms typically present at least one year before cognitive symptoms. Cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than just memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism and visual hallucinations, with delusions and non-visual hallucinations also possible.
Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used. SPECT uses a radioisotope called 123-I FP-CIT to diagnose Lewy body dementia with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%. Management involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s treatment. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to note that questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is brought to your clinic by his son. He has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia and has significant short-term memory impairment. His son is concerned about his father's safety as he continues to drive 10 miles twice a week. What is the best course of action regarding his driving license?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Assess his risk factors, report to the DVLA and await advice
Explanation:According to DVLA guidance, determining whether someone with dementia is fit to drive is a challenging decision. If the individual exhibits impaired short-term memory, disorientation, or a lack of insight, it is likely that they are not fit to drive. Therefore, it is recommended to contact the DVLA, evaluate the risk factors, and seek further advice. Rather than immediately disqualifying the individual, a thorough assessment and decision with support from the DVLA is necessary. Factors that indicate an individual with dementia may not be safe to drive include significant short-term memory impairment, poor attention and concentration, and planning difficulties.
The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.
For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is hospitalized with community-acquired pneumonia. He is experiencing increasing confusion and visual hallucinations of children playing in the ward, particularly at night. There are no other apparent neurological or psychiatric symptoms, and no history of dementia. What test should be performed to confirm the underlying cause of his confusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confusion assessment method
Explanation:The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) is recommended as the primary diagnostic tool for differentiating between delirium and dementia, according to current NICE guidelines. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest delirium, with an acute onset, fluctuating course, and visual hallucinations following an insult. The CAM’s diagnostic criteria include acute onset with a fluctuating course, inattention, and either disorganized thinking or altered consciousness.
The Cambridge cognition examination is designed to diagnose and assess the severity of dementia, and is not specific to delirium. A mental state examination is a comprehensive assessment of mental disorders, but may not be as useful or concise as the CAM for quickly distinguishing between delirium and dementia.
The mini-mental state examination is a cognitive test, but is not designed to differentiate between dementia and delirium. While repeat tests may show changes in cognition, the CAM is more appropriate for acute confusion in distinguishing between the two conditions.
The six-item cognitive impairment test is also used to assess dementia, rather than delirium, and would not be the most appropriate test in this case.
Understanding the Differences between Delirium and Dementia
Delirium and dementia are two conditions that are often confused with each other. However, there are distinct differences between the two. Delirium is characterized by an acute onset, impairment of consciousness, fluctuation of symptoms, abnormal perception, agitation, fear, and delusions. On the other hand, dementia is a chronic condition that develops slowly over time and is characterized by memory loss, difficulty with language, and impaired judgment.
Factors that favor delirium over dementia include the sudden onset of symptoms, impairment of consciousness, and fluctuation of symptoms. Delirium symptoms tend to be worse at night and may include abnormal perceptions such as illusions and hallucinations. Patients with delirium may also experience agitation, fear, and delusions.
It is important to distinguish between delirium and dementia as they require different treatment approaches. Delirium is often reversible once the underlying cause is identified and treated, while dementia is a progressive condition that requires ongoing management. By understanding the differences between these two conditions, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with memory problems attended a specialist memory clinic with his son. His son was very concerned and mentioned that his father had been much more forgetful over the past year. He had left the front door open and occasionally got lost when he drove to the grocery store. On one occasion he had been found by a police officer wandering the streets in his pajamas.
This man had a family history of Alzheimer's disease with both his father and brother being diagnosed with the condition in their seventies.
On examination he had a Mini Mental State Examination Score of 20/30. Otherwise a full physical examination was unremarkable.
Magnetic resonance of imaging of the brain showed marked atrophy of the medial temporal lobes bilaterally with no evidence of a reversible cause of dementia.
You suspect that this man has Alzheimer's disease and wish to start him on donepezil.
Before starting him on this medication which of the following should you arrange?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Patients with bradycardia should generally avoid donepezil, while those with other cardiac abnormalities should use it with caution. Cholinesterase inhibitors like donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are approved for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. NICE recommends treatment for all patients with moderate Alzheimer’s disease and an MMSE score of 10-20. The British National Formulary considers sick sinus syndrome and supraventricular conduction problems as relative contraindications for cholinesterase inhibitor prescription. Although NICE guidance does not mention it, there is significant evidence supporting the practice of performing an ECG before starting treatment. Routine echocardiograms are not supported by sufficient evidence before initiating cholinesterase inhibitor treatment.
Management of Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.
Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the Cardiology Clinic by her GP for an opinion on atrial fibrillation. She has been experiencing increasing fatigue for the past few months and was diagnosed with AF by her GP. During examination, she presents with a small-volume pulse, DJV, left parasternal lift, a tapping apex impulse, and a loud first heart sound accompanied by a mitral early- to mid-diastolic murmur. Additionally, there seems to be a mid-diastolic tricuspid murmur. What is the appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lutembacher syndrome
Explanation:Lutembacher Syndrome and Eisenmenger’s Syndrome: A Cardiac Explanation
Lutembacher syndrome is a rare cardiac condition characterized by both mitral stenosis and atrial septal defect (ASD). It can occur congenitally or as a result of rheumatic fever. Women are more likely to develop this syndrome due to the higher incidence of congenital ASD. Symptoms typically present in later life and include fatigue and atrial fibrillation. Early surgery is recommended to prevent the development of Eisenmenger syndrome, which leads to cyanotic heart disease.
Eisenmenger’s syndrome occurs when a long-standing left-to-right shunt reverses to a right-to-left cardiac shunt, resulting in cyanotic heart disease.
When evaluating a patient with a mid-diastolic tricuspid murmur, isolated mitral stenosis and isolated ASD can be ruled out due to the presence of the mitral murmur. Tricuspid regurgitation is also unlikely as there are no other associated symptoms. Lutembacher syndrome with increased tricuspid flow is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is receiving hospital care for a urinary tract infection. Initially, he was disoriented, but his condition has since improved. However, his daughter reports that his short-term memory has declined over the past five months, and he is experiencing visual hallucinations.
During the physical examination, his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 95% on air. His heart rate is 69 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 121/80 mmHg. He is warm and well-perfused, and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. His Glasgow coma score is 14 due to confusion for voice, and he has a normal neurological examination except for mild rigidity. He is afebrile at 36.6ºC.
Which medication is most likely to alleviate his ongoing symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:Rivastigmine is the most appropriate treatment for this man with Lewy body dementia, as it effectively alleviates the cognitive and motor symptoms associated with this condition. Aspirin, levodopa, and memantine are not indicated as they are used for different types of dementia and conditions. Prophylactic antibiotics are also not necessary as recurrent UTIs are unlikely to be the cause of his symptoms.
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions found in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease, and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism. However, both features usually occur within a year of each other, unlike Parkinson’s disease, where motor symptoms typically present at least one year before cognitive symptoms. Cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than just memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism and visual hallucinations, with delusions and non-visual hallucinations also possible.
Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used. SPECT uses a radioisotope called 123-I FP-CIT to diagnose Lewy body dementia with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%. Management involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s treatment. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to note that questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man presents with a 9 month history of abnormal behaviors which have been noticed by his daughter. He has described seeing vivid visual hallucinations of animals in his living room which sometimes talk to him and appear very real. He believes that he is a zookeeper and is responsible for taking care of the animals although this is not true.
At times he is lucid and is fully independent but at other times he is disorientated in time and place and is unable to perform simple tasks such as preparing food and going to the shops. His daughter thinks that his mood is also lower since the onset of symptoms. He presented in A+E today because of having a second fall in two weeks.
There is no history of infective symptoms. He went to see his GP three days ago who thought that he may have a UTI and prescribed trimethoprim.
He has a history of stroke 8 years ago and hypertension and takes warfarin, amlodipine and enalapril.
Physical examination is unremarkable except for slightly increased tone on the left side compared to the right.
Bloods:
Hb 14.5 g/dl
Platelets 400 * 109/l
WBC 11.8 * 109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.4 mmol/l
Urea 5.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 µmol/l
Bilirubin 5 µmol/l
ALP 60 u/l
ALT 18 u/l
Calcium 2.40 mmol/l
Albumin 42 g/l
MSU (from GP from 3 days ago): Heavy growth of E.coli Sensitive to trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav
CT Brain: some generalised atrophy and periventricular white matter changes normal for age. Changes in keeping with an old left sided lacunar infarct
Mini Mental State Examination 16/30
Which medications would most appropriately treat the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:The appropriate medication for this patient is Rivastigmine, as he is diagnosed with Lewy Body dementia. The core clinical features of this condition are fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations (present in 2/3rds of cases), and parkinsonism. This patient has two out of three of these features, along with other supportive symptoms such as hallucinations in other modalities, delusions, depression, and repeated falls. Cholinesterase inhibitors are the recommended treatment for Lewy Body dementia, as these patients are highly sensitive to neuroleptics such as Olanzapine. Schizophrenia is an unlikely diagnosis, as visual hallucinations are rare in late onset schizophrenia and fluctuating mental state is not typically seen in this condition. Although the patient has a UTI, it is already being treated with trimethoprim and further antibiotics are not necessary. As the symptoms have been present for 6 months, UTI is unlikely to be the underlying diagnosis. While the patient has risk factors for stroke and focal neurology, a TIA does not explain his other symptoms, and aspirin would not be effective in treating the underlying diagnosis. Although the patient shows features of parkinsonism, a cholinesterase inhibitor would be the first-line treatment before considering Sinemet.
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions found in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease, and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism. However, both features usually occur within a year of each other, unlike Parkinson’s disease, where motor symptoms typically present at least one year before cognitive symptoms. Cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than just memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism and visual hallucinations, with delusions and non-visual hallucinations also possible.
Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used. SPECT uses a radioisotope called 123-I FP-CIT to diagnose Lewy body dementia with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%. Management involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s treatment. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to note that questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits the memory clinic accompanied by his wife. He retired from his job as a teacher about a year ago due to difficulty in keeping up with the workload. His wife has noticed a decline in his short-term memory over the past several months. He frequently misplaces items around the house, and she discovers things in unusual locations in the kitchen. When confronted about this, he becomes agitated. He has been experiencing disturbed sleep, waking up early in the morning and sleeping during the day. He has no significant medical history except for hypertension, which is being treated with ramipril 5 mg. He appears somewhat disheveled.
During a general physical examination, his blood pressure is 132/82 mmHg, and there are no significant findings. He has some memory impairment, with a mini-mental state examination score of 20/30. Routine blood tests are normal, and an MRI indicates underlying Alzheimer's disease.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Treatment options for cognitive impairment in Alzheimer’s disease
Patients with significant cognitive impairment, as measured by a MMSE score of 20/30, may benefit from treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, or rivastigmine. While these medications do not slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease, they can improve functioning and reduce care needs, allowing patients to remain in their own homes for longer. Memantine is only recommended for severe cases or when patients cannot tolerate acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. Risperidone is not indicated for patients without psychosis, and atypical antipsychotics may worsen movement disorders in the elderly. Sertraline is not necessary if there are no clear signs of depression, and sedation with agents like zopiclone is not recommended due to the increased risk of falling.
Overall, treatment options for cognitive impairment in Alzheimer’s disease should be carefully considered based on the individual patient’s needs and symptoms. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may be a good starting point for many patients, but other medications may be necessary in certain cases. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment and to monitor the patient’s progress over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male has been diagnosed with moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease, following a two-year gradual cognitive decline. Despite initially attributing it to aging, his family now recognizes the need for nursing home care. His MMSE score is 7/30. He has a history of previous myocardial infarctions but has not reported chest pain recently. His ECG shows no signs of ischemia and a PR interval of 290ms. What is the recommended treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Memantine
Explanation:This patient has severe dementia based on their MMSE score. Additionally, they have been diagnosed with 1st degree heart block and atrioventricular nodal block, which means that cholinesterase inhibitors are not recommended as they could cause complete heart block. The latest NICE guidelines suggest that donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are suitable for mild to moderate dementia (MMSE between 10 and 26/30), while memantine, an NMDA antagonist, is the only medication that has been proven effective and licensed for severe Alzheimer’s disease.
Management of Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.
Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman attends the memory clinic with her daughter due to a 7-month history of memory loss. She reports feeling well today, but her daughter explains that last week she was confused and disoriented. Her daughter also expresses concern that her mother may be hallucinating as she has mentioned seeing her deceased husband sitting at the dinner table with her. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis and borderline diabetes but has been otherwise healthy with no recent illnesses.
During the examination, her heart rate is 86 bpm and regular. Her sitting and standing blood pressures are 152/95 mmHg and 138/86 mmHg respectively. On auscultation, her chest is clear with normal heart sounds. Her abdomen is soft with no palpable masses. There is a slight tremor in her left hand with increased rigidity. She walks well with a walking stick but has a shuffling gait. Her MMSE score is 20/30.
Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment to initiate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:Lewy body dementia (LBD) can be treated with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil and rivastigmine, which can help alleviate its symptoms. In this case, the patient has mild dementia with an MMSE score of 20, and is experiencing fluctuating confusion, disturbances in sleep, mood changes, hallucinations, and Parkinsonian features such as rigidity, tremor, and a shuffling gait. Unlike Parkinson’s disease dementia, LBD is characterized by the development of cognitive impairment before the onset of motor symptoms. Therefore, rivastigmine is the correct choice for treatment, as recommended by NICE guidelines.
Haloperidol, an antipsychotic medication that inhibits dopaminergic receptors, should not be given to patients with Parkinson’s disease or LBD as it can worsen their symptoms. Levodopa, the first-line treatment for Parkinson’s disease, is not the preferred option for this patient as her cognitive impairment preceded her motor symptoms. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is recommended for severe LBD or Alzheimer’s disease, or for moderate disease in patients who cannot tolerate acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. However, since the patient has a higher MMSE score and no contraindications to AChE therapy are given, rivastigmine is the preferred initial treatment option.
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions found in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease, and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism. However, both features usually occur within a year of each other, unlike Parkinson’s disease, where motor symptoms typically present at least one year before cognitive symptoms. Cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than just memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism and visual hallucinations, with delusions and non-visual hallucinations also possible.
Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used. SPECT uses a radioisotope called 123-I FP-CIT to diagnose Lewy body dementia with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%. Management involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s treatment. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to note that questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male is brought into your outpatient clinic by his daughter. The patient seems confused and disoriented, and his daughter reports a history of increasing forgetfulness and odd behavior over the past 9 months. She has noticed that he has become more withdrawn and has difficulty with social interactions. He often repeats the same phrases over and over again, and his behavior has become inappropriate at times. For example, he recently urinated in public without realizing it was inappropriate. Last week, he gave his daughter a headstone for her birthday, which she found disturbing. On examination, he continues to repeat the phrase 'What's up doc?' and seems unaware of his surroundings.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms, including behavioural change, lack of insight, mental rigidity, and stereotyped behaviours, are indicative of the behavioural variant of frontotemporal dementia. Unlike amnestic features, these behavioural features are prominent in this type of dementia, and patients typically lack insight. In the early stages of the disease, cognitive functions may remain normal. However, it is important to rule out other organic causes of behavioural changes, such as frontal lobe space occupying lesions, through MRI neuroimaging. While psychiatric disorders are a possible differential diagnosis, it is rare for them to be diagnosed in individuals in their late fifties.
Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.
FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.
CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
In terms of management, NICE does not recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In hyperthermia, as the body temperature rises, what is the earliest biochemical abnormality observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Effects of Body Temperature on Electrolyte Balance
As the body temperature increases, it can lead to hyperthermia and heatstroke. One of the earliest abnormalities that can occur is hypokalaemia, which is caused by an increase in potassium uptake by muscles due to the stimulation of the NA-K-ATPase transporter by catecholamines. However, as the body temperature continues to rise, hyperkalaemia can develop, along with rhabdomyolysis and lactic acidosis. Severe cases may also show elevated levels of CSF lactate. The acid-base balance in such cases is characterized by metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis.
Similar to dehydration states, the body tries to conserve water by concentrating urine, resulting in high urine osmolality. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels in cases of hyperthermia to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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