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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. She reports feeling well and has not experienced any significant issues since the procedure.
What blood test is the most effective in monitoring for the recurrence of trophoblastic disease?Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Correct Answer: Beta-HCG
Explanation:Hydatidiform Mole and Trophoblastic Disease
A hydatidiform mole is a type of abnormal pregnancy that only generates placental tissue. However, approximately 10% of cases of hydatidiform mole can transform into malignant trophoblastic disease. To assess if there is any retained tissue or recurrence/malignant transformation, the best way is to measure the levels of HCG, which is primarily produced by the placenta. On the other hand, alpha-fetoprotein, CEA, and CA-125 are tumour markers associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, colonic carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma, respectively. It is important to note that progesterone levels are not useful in determining the prognosis of trophoblastic disease. the characteristics and markers of hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic disease is crucial in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction
Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).
If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.
Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?
Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and fresh-frozen plasma
Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF
The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?
Your Answer: Endoscopy
Correct Answer: Ferritin concentration
Explanation:Interpretation of FBC Results
When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently told him that he should be receiving treatment for his splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication.
What would you recommend to him?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Asplenic Patients and the Importance of Vaccination
Asplenic patients are individuals who have had their spleen removed, leaving them at risk of overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that these patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after emergency surgery. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenzae vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.
While oral penicillin is recommended for children, its long-term use in adults is a topic of debate. However, current guidance suggests that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization. It is crucial to take these preventative measures to protect asplenic patients from potentially life-threatening infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct?
Your Answer: Following delivery, the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage should be calculated on a blood sample from a D negative mother
Explanation:Important Points to Remember about Fetomaternal Haemorrhage
Following the delivery of a baby, it is crucial to determine the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) in a D negative mother. This is done by analyzing a blood sample to adjust the dose of anti-D in the mother if she has delivered a D positive child. It is important to note that D positive and D negative women have the same likelihood of developing antibodies to other red cell antigens. Therefore, all pregnant women should undergo a blood group and antibody screen in their first trimester or at the time of presentation, whichever comes first. The fetal Rh type is determined by the Rh typing of both the mother and father. Additionally, maternal antibody titres are indicative of the degree of haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). For more information on the management of women with red cell antibodies during pregnancy, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) Green-top Guideline No. 65.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should be the immediate course of action to manage this adverse event?
Your Answer: Temporarily cease the donation, consider fluid replacement and elevate the donor's legs
Explanation:Donor safety is important in blood donation. Fainting is a common adverse event and should be treated by stopping the donation and reviving the donor. Elevation of the legs and monitoring vitals is necessary. Donors should be counseled on pre-donation expectations and encouraged to drink fluids after recovery. Hemoglobin checks are no longer required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they were found to be pale with purpuric spots on their lower legs. Their temperature was 38.3 °C and they also complained of nausea. On the second day of admission, their fever increased and they became disoriented. New bleeding spots started appearing on their face. Blood reports revealed low hemoglobin, high white cell count, low platelets, and high creatinine levels. A peripheral blood smear showed helmet cells and anisocytosis. The CSF study was normal. What test should be done next for this patient?
Your Answer: Blood culture
Correct Answer: Urinary β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
Explanation:The patient is presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is characterized by low platelet count due to clotting and platelet sequestration in small vessels. TTP is associated with haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenic purpura, fever, and neurological and renal abnormalities. The patient’s risk factors for TTP include being female, obese, pregnant, and of Afro-Caribbean origin. To determine the appropriate management, a urinary β-hCG test should be performed to establish pregnancy status. The first-line treatment for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma. Blood cultures should also be performed to check for underlying septicaemia. Antiplatelet antibody titres can be raised in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), but ITP does not cause renal failure. A bone marrow study is appropriate to rule out leukaemia. Illicit drug use should also be considered as a cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right leg that has been bothering her for the past three days. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis in the same leg ten years ago after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Additionally, she was treated for pleurisy three years ago by her general practitioner. She has been experiencing recurrent water infections for the past two years, with intermittent bouts of flank pain and dark urine in the morning. Her general practitioner has recently investigated this issue, but the ultrasound scan of her renal tract and intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a building society and lives with her husband and two children. She does not have a recent history of travel, but she smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. On examination, her right calf is swollen, red, and tender, but she appears otherwise well. Her blood tests show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Explanation:Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria: A Clonal Defect of Red Cells
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition where red blood cells have an increased susceptibility to lysis by complement due to an acquired clonal defect. This disorder typically presents in young adults and is often associated with other stem cell disorders, such as aplastic anaemia. The classic symptom of PNH is the intermittent passage of bloody urine, which tends to occur more frequently at night for unknown reasons. Diagnosis is often made through investigation of anaemia, pancytopenia, or recurrent thrombotic episodes, which are likely caused by complement-induced platelet aggregation. Flow cytometry can confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating a lack of erythrocyte membrane proteins CD59 and decay accelerating factor (DAF).
Overall, PNH is a rare but serious condition that can lead to significant complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing further damage to the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and unintended weight loss. He has a medical history of axillary lymphadenopathy. The doctor suspects that he may have non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the most probable test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Core needle biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. There are several diagnostic investigations that can be used to diagnose this condition.
Excisional Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: This is the most common diagnostic investigation for suspected non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It involves removing all of the abnormal tissue from an enlarged lymph node.
Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest, Neck, Abdomen, and Pelvis: CT scanning can indicate features suggestive of lymphoma, such as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. However, it cannot provide a tissue diagnosis.
Core Needle Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: If a surgical excisional biopsy is not appropriate, a core needle biopsy can be performed. However, if this does not reveal a definite diagnosis, then an excisional biopsy should be undertaken.
Full Blood Count: A full blood count can be a helpful first-line investigation if a haematological malignancy is suspected, but it is not sufficient to be diagnostic for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Protein Electrophoresis and Urine Bence-Jones Protein: Protein electrophoresis can be helpful in screening for multiple myeloma, but it is not helpful for diagnosing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic investigations can be used to diagnose non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, excisional biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman, who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy, begins to feel unwell with a fever and chills 3 or 4 days later. There are no obvious signs of active bleeding. On examination, you note that she is mildly jaundiced.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Pre-transfusion haemoglobin (Hb) 92 g/l 115–155 g/l
Post-transfusion Hb 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 90 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy and is experiencing fever, chills, and mild jaundice without signs of active bleeding?Your Answer: Delayed transfusion haemolysis
Explanation:Delayed Transfusion Haemolysis: A Possible Cause for Minimal Increase in Haemoglobin
A patient who has received a 3-unit transfusion has only shown a minimal increase in haemoglobin levels, which is a cause for concern. The rise in bilirubin without a corresponding increase in liver enzymes suggests haemolysis from a delayed transfusion haemolysis reaction. This type of reaction occurs when a patient without certain red cell antigens is exposed to these antigens through blood transfusion, resulting in the development of new antibodies and haemolysis after 3-14 days. Symptoms include fevers, rigors, rash, and jaundice, which are less severe and more gradual in onset than acute haemolytic reactions.
Medical management of this patient will involve screening for a wider range of possible antigens and access to a blood bank with a sufficient number of available units for a clean transfusion. Serious complications of blood transfusion are rare due to screening techniques, leukocyte depletion, and improved collection and storage.
Other potential transfusion-related reactions and their approximate time-course include hyperacute (minutes to hours), acute (hours to days), and late (days or longer). Bacterial sepsis is a possible reaction that would occur most likely in the acute time course, but it does not explain the minimal increase in haemoglobin following a 3-unit transfusion. Further haemorrhage, cholestasis of pregnancy, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) are also unlikely causes.
In conclusion, delayed transfusion haemolysis is a possible cause for the minimal increase in haemoglobin levels in this patient. It is important to consider this reaction and manage it appropriately to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Correct
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These results were obtained on a 65-year-old male:
Hb 110 g/L (120-170)
RBC 4.8 ×1012/L (4.2-5.8)
Hct 0.365 (0.37-0.49)
MCV 75 fL (82-98)
MCH 33.2 pg (28-33)
Platelets 310 ×109/L (140-450)
WBC 8.21 ×109/L (4.5-11)
Neutrophils 6.45 ×109/L (1.8-7.5)
Lymphocytes 1.23 ×109/L (1.0-4.5)
Monocytes 0.28 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.18 ×109/L (0.02-0.5)
Basophils 0.09 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Others 0.18 ×109/L -
What could be the possible reason for these FBC results in a 65-year-old male?Your Answer: Gastrointestinal blood loss
Explanation:Microcytic Anaemia in a 63-Year-Old Female
A Full Blood Count (FBC) analysis has revealed that a 63-year-old female is suffering from microcytic anaemia, which is characterized by low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and low haemoglobin (Hb) levels. This type of anaemia is typically caused by iron deficiency, which is often the result of blood loss. However, in this case, menorrhagia can be ruled out as the patient is postmenopausal. Therefore, the most likely cause of the microcytic anaemia is peptic ulceration. It is important to note that pernicious anaemia or folate deficiency can cause macrocytosis, which is characterized by elevated MCV levels. Proper diagnosis and treatment are necessary to address the underlying cause of the microcytic anaemia and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which autoantibody is correctly matched with its associated disease in the following list?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis and voltage-gated calcium channel antibodies
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Disorders and Associated Antibodies
Autoimmune disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. These disorders are often associated with the presence of specific antibodies that can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Here are some examples:
Pernicious Anaemia and Anti-Intrinsic Factor Antibodies
Pernicious anaemia is a type of anaemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. It is associated with the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies, which bind to intrinsic factor and prevent the absorption of vitamin B12 in the gut.Primary Biliary Cholangitis and Anti-Jo-1 Antibodies
Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the liver. It is associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, but not anti-Jo-1 antibodies, which are associated with other autoimmune disorders like polymyositis and dermatomyositis.Myasthenia Gravis and Voltage-Gated Calcium Channel Antibodies
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It is associated with the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies, but not anti-striated muscle antibodies, which are found in other autoimmune disorders.Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA) and Anti-Myeloperoxidase (p-ANCA) Antibody
GPA is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It is associated with the presence of cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (c-ANCA), but not p-ANCA, which are found in other types of vasculitis.Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis and Thyroid-Stimulating Antibodies
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is associated with the presence of anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies, which attack the thyroid gland and cause inflammation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has been battling with an indolent colon carcinoma for the past 5 years. He also suffers from insulin-dependent diabetes, hypertension, coronary artery disease and rheumatoid arthritis. He has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks. He denies any history of melaena or haematochezia and has been amenorrhoeic for decades. A bedside stool guaiac test is negative for any blood in the stool. He is well nourished, reports taking daily supplements and is not a vegetarian. He reports that his haematocrit is 0.28 (0.35–0.55) and haemoglobin level 100 g/l (115–155 g/l).
What additional findings would you expect to observe in his full blood count?Your Answer: Increased TIBC
Correct Answer: Increased ferritin
Explanation:Understanding Anaemia of Chronic Disease: Increased Ferritin and Decreased TIBC
Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that is commonly seen in patients with chronic inflammatory conditions. It is characterised by a low haemoglobin level and low haematocrit, but unlike iron deficiency anaemia, it is associated with increased ferritin levels and decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). This is because ferritin is a serum reactive protein that is elevated in response to the underlying inflammatory process.
Diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease requires the presence of a chronic inflammatory condition and anaemia, which can be either normocytic or microcytic. It is important to note that a haemoglobin level of <80 g/l is very rarely associated with this type of anaemia. Treatment involves addressing the underlying disorder causing the anaemia and monitoring the haemoglobin level. Blood transfusion is only used in severe cases. It is important to differentiate anaemia of chronic disease from other types of anaemia. For example, it is characterised by a low reticulocyte count, and not reticulocytosis. Serum transferrin receptor is not affected in anaemia of chronic disease and would therefore be normal. Additionally, TIBC is reduced in anaemia of chronic disease, whereas it is increased in iron deficiency anaemia. Finally, anaemia of chronic disease is associated with either microcytosis or normocytosis, whereas macrocytosis is associated with other types of anaemia such as folate deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, alcohol excess, and myelodysplastic disease. In summary, understanding the unique features of anaemia of chronic disease, such as increased ferritin and decreased TIBC, can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:
Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
PCV 0.17 l/l -
MCH 30 pg (28-32)
MCV 82 fL (80-96)
Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
Normoblasts 8% -
Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -
The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?Your Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Explanation:Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.
On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.
Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole blood or plasma?
Your Answer: A 56-year-old man who had a course of antibiotics for an upper respiratory tract infection which was completed four weeks ago
Correct Answer: A 32-year-old lady whose sister was diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease three years ago
Explanation:Blood Donation Guidelines
Blood donation guidelines set by the National Blood Service UK state that individuals who have a family member (parent or sibling) with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cannot donate blood. This is due to the risk of transmitting the disease through blood transfusion.
Other factors that may exclude individuals from donating blood include hepatitis or jaundice within the last 12 months, acupuncture within the last four months (unless performed by a registered professional), body piercing or tattoos within the last six months, any infection within the preceding two weeks, or a course of antibiotics within the last seven days.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. By excluding individuals who may have a higher risk of transmitting diseases or infections, the blood supply can remain safe and effective for those in need of transfusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which structure, containing both white and red pulp, is responsible for trapping foreign substances present in the blood?
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Comparison of Lymphoid Organs and Non-Lymphoid Organs
The human body contains various organs that serve different functions. Among these are the lymphoid organs, which play a crucial role in the immune system. In this article, we will compare the characteristics of three lymphoid organs (spleen, lymph node, and thymus) with two non-lymphoid organs (heart and thyroid gland).
Spleen
The spleen is the largest secondary lymphoid organ. It is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen and contains both white pulp (lymphatic tissue and macrophages) and red pulp (sinusoids and red blood cells). One of its functions is to filter foreign substances from the blood.Lymph Node
Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs that contain structures where mature lymphocytes are stimulated by antigens to undergo further division and differentiation. They do not contain white and red pulp.Thymus
The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ where T lymphocytes mature, differentiate, and proliferate. It does not contain white and red pulp.Heart
The heart is the main organ of the circulatory system and does not contain white and red pulp.Thyroid Gland
The thyroid gland is located in the anterior neck and is part of the endocrine system. It does not contain white and red pulp.In summary, lymphoid organs play a crucial role in the immune system, while non-lymphoid organs serve other functions. Understanding the characteristics of these organs can help us appreciate the complexity and diversity of the human body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment unit with concerns of fluid leakage from her vagina. Upon examination, her pad is saturated with what appears to be amniotic fluid. What component of the fluid may indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
Your Answer: Beta-HCG
Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein
Explanation:Using Biomarkers to Detect Premature Rupture of Membranes
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) can be difficult to diagnose in some cases. In 2006, a study was conducted to determine if measuring certain biomarkers in vaginal fluid could be used as an indicator of membrane rupture. The study found that alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) had the highest accuracy in predicting PROM, with a specificity and sensitivity of 94%. This suggests that AFP could be used as a marker in cases where diagnosis is uncertain.
In addition to AFP, other biomarkers have been identified for different purposes. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, while cancer antigen 125 (CA125) is a tumor marker for ovarian cancer. By measuring these biomarkers, doctors can detect the presence of cancer and monitor its progression. Overall, biomarkers have proven to be a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with purpura following a recent upper respiratory infection. Upon examination, her platelet count is found to be 20 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400) and a bone marrow examination reveals megakaryocyte hyperplasia. What is the correct statement regarding her condition?
Your Answer: A transfusion of fresh platelets is indicated
Correct Answer: A spontaneous remission is likely
Explanation:Treatment and Prognosis of Acute Temporary Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition that often occurs after a viral infection. Fortunately, 85% of children with this condition will recover within a year. Platelet transfusions are not helpful unless there is active bleeding or surgery is necessary. Instead, treatment typically involves immune suppression with medications like prednisolone or intravenous immune globulin infusions. The clotting time remains normal because the coagulation factors are not affected. However, detecting antiplatelet antibodies can be challenging with many assays. While splenectomy may be an option in some cases, it is not recommended early in the disease as it may resolve on its own within a year. Overall, with proper treatment and monitoring, most children with acute temporary thrombocytopenic purpura can expect a positive outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia is experiencing inadequate response to platelet transfusions despite treatment. He is currently 2 weeks post-chemotherapy, without fever, and only minor bruising as a symptom. What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage his platelet refractoriness?
Your Answer: Prescribe HLA matched platelets
Correct Answer: Check for a one hour post platelet transfusion platelet count
Explanation:Management of Refractory Platelet Transfusions
Patients who do not respond to platelet transfusions should be evaluated to ensure that their platelet counts are increasing adequately. The best way to do this is by taking a blood sample one or two hours after the transfusion. If the patient’s platelet counts are still low, further investigation is necessary. However, it is not appropriate to request HLA-matched platelets or a directed platelet donation at this stage.
Continuing to give random platelet transfusions is also not recommended. Platelets are necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to determine why the transfusions are not working. Therefore, checking for HLA antibodies is the next step in the management of refractory platelet transfusions. Once the cause of the refractory response is identified, appropriate treatment can be initiated.
In summary, managing refractory platelet transfusions involves evaluating the patient’s response to the transfusions, checking for HLA antibodies, and determining the underlying cause of the refractory response. Platelets are still necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to address the underlying issue to ensure that the transfusions are effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Correct
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A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.
On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids
Explanation:Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.
The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?
Your Answer: High density lipoprotein
Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids
Explanation:Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?
Your Answer: FSH
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy
In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.
If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.
It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
Investigation Results Normal value
Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
Explanation:Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.
Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.
Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.
There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy has been brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his parents, both of whom are known to suffer from sickle cell disease. They have brought him in to see you because they are worried he has developed ‘septicaemia’. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has developed extreme fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, coryzal symptoms and bleeding gums, all over the last two days.
Upon examination, you note an erythematosus rash on both cheeks, a small purpuric rash on the left arm, pale conjunctivae, pale skin and well-perfused peripheries. Brudzinski’s sign is negative.
You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
Temperature: 37.8 ˚C
Heart rate: 100 bpm (normal 55–85 bpm)
Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min)
Blood pressure: 130/86 mmHg (lying), 132/84 mmHg (standing)
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
His initial investigation findings are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal
White cell count (WCC) 11.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 3800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
Lymphocytes 7200 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 84 g/dl 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume
(MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Given the likely diagnosis, how should the patient be managed?Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone, 500ml 0.9% saline over a maximum of 15 minutes, and carry out a lumbar puncture
Correct Answer: Cross-match, giving blood as soon as it is available
Explanation:The patient in question is at a high risk of sickle cell disease due to their ethnicity and family history. They are showing signs of parvovirus B19 infection, which is causing bone marrow failure and a decrease in erythropoiesis. This condition, known as aplastic crisis, is usually managed conservatively but may require a blood transfusion if the patient is experiencing symptomatic anemia. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not recommended in this case as it will not address the patient’s severe anemia. IV ceftriaxone and a lumbar puncture would be the correct initial management for meningococcal disease, but it is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Oral benzylpenicillin and transfer to a pediatric ward is also not recommended as it is not the correct management for meningococcal disease and is not relevant to the patient’s condition. While sepsis is a possible differential diagnosis, the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is a viral infection causing aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease. Therefore, the appropriate management would be to investigate for viral infection and provide supportive therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal X ray
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover
In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes
A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Myelofibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders
Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.
One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.
Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.
In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she is concerned about his left knee. The child injured his knee while playing outside, and the knee is now significantly swollen and he is experiencing a lot of pain. The mother mentions that the child bruises easily. The mother herself does not have any such issues, but her sister had similar problems when she was young.
What is the most probable pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this boy's symptoms?Your Answer: Invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells
Correct Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation
Explanation:Pathophysiological Mechanisms of Various Medical Conditions
Haemophilia: Deficiency of a Clotting Factor in the Intrinsic Pathway of Coagulation
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition that affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is caused by a mutation in factor VIII or IX, leading to deficient coagulation. Patients present with excessive bleeding, such as spontaneous bruising, prolonged bleeding following a dental procedure or minor injury, bleeding into the joints (haemarthrosis), and epistaxis. Treatment involves correcting the deficiency with concentrated factor VIII or IX.Von Willebrand’s Disease: Deficiency of a Protein Found in Endothelial Cells and Released by Endothelial Damage
Von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant, inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. This protein is found in the endothelial cells lining the vessels and is released following endothelial damage. It promotes adhesion of platelets to the area of damage and stabilizes factor VIII, both actions promoting haemostasis. Symptoms include easy bruising and prolonged bleeding following minimal trauma.Ewing’s Sarcoma: Translocation Between Chromosomes 11 and 22
Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant bone tumour seen in children and young adults. It is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22.Leukaemia: Invasion of Bone Marrow by Leukaemic Cells
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells, leading to pancytopenia, a condition in which there is a deficiency of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Give von Willebrand factor
Correct Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease
Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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