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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old patient with anorexia nervosa has been admitted from home for nutritional support. Following her initial oral feed, her phosphate level has decreased from 0.5 mmol/L to 0.1 mmol/L (reference range 0.7-1.4). What could be the reason for her hypophosphataemia?
Your Answer: Phosphate enters the bones
Correct Answer: Phosphate enters the body's cells
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome
Refeeding syndrome is a potentially fatal condition that can occur after a prolonged period of fasting or poor nutritional intake followed by a meal high in carbohydrates. It is characterized by a rapid decrease in the serum levels of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium, all of which are already depleted in the body. This happens because glucose availability within the blood causes insulin secretion while glucagon secretion is reduced. Insulin stimulates glycogen, adipose and protein synthesis and enhances the action of the Na-K-ATPase pump in cell membranes, which draws glucose into the cells. Many minerals and cofactors are also drawn into the cells to support these metabolic processes.
The condition is particularly dangerous for patients with starvation, anorexia nervosa, gastrointestinal conditions that impede adequate nutrition, and poor nutrition due to severe illness such as cancer cachexia. In healthy patients, phosphate ions enter the body’s cells under the influence of insulin after a meal, and the phosphate concentration in blood remains within the reference range. However, in patients with refeeding syndrome, a meal can stimulate marked phosphate entry into cells, causing profound hypophosphataemia. This can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other life-threatening complications. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients at risk of refeeding syndrome closely and provide appropriate nutritional support to prevent this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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A 79-year-old falls at home and fractures his femoral neck, remaining immobile and unfound for three days without access to food. What lipid serves as a soluble metabolic fuel for skeletal and cardiac muscle, the kidney, and brain during periods of fasting?
Your Answer: Ketone bodies
Explanation:The Six Major Classes of Lipids and Their Functions
There are six major classes of lipids, each with their own unique functions in the body. Fatty acids are a type of lipid that can be used as a source of energy or stored in adipose tissue. Triacylglycerols serve as a storage depot and transport form for fatty acids. Ketone bodies are synthesized from fatty acids and amino acids in the liver during periods of starvation and in diabetic ketoacidosis, and are used as a fuel source by selected tissues. Patients with excess ketones may have a fruity smelling breath.
Cholesterol is a component of the plasma membrane and is used to synthesize bile acids, steroids, and vitamin D. Phospholipids are a major component of cell membranes and play a role in cell signaling. Sphingolipids are also part of the structure of membranes and act as surface antigens.
Overall, lipids play important roles in energy storage, membrane structure, and signaling in the body. the functions of each class of lipid can help us better understand the complex processes that occur within our bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently shows symptoms of rabies, including irritability, drooling, and seizures. The virus responsible for rabies is a rhabdovirus, which uses RNA polymerase to create a complementary RNA strand from a single strand of RNA. This newly-synthesised strand then acts as messenger-RNA (mRNA). What is the best description of the rhabdovirus genome?
Your Answer: Single stranded DNA (ssDNA)
Correct Answer: Negative-sense RNA (−RNA)
Explanation:Virus Classification Based on Genome
Viruses are categorized based on their genome, which can either be DNA or RNA. The RNA or DNA can be single or double-stranded. The genome of a virus determines its classification. The rhabdovirus, for instance, contains a single strand of RNA initially, which means that the first, second, and last answer options cannot be correct.
Positive-sense RNA viruses, such as picornavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, and calicivirus, use the RNA strand directly as mRNA. On the other hand, negative-sense RNA viruses require RNA polymerase to copy the RNA strand and generate a complementary RNA strand, which then acts as mRNA. The rhabdovirus falls under this category. virus classification based on genome is crucial in developing effective treatments and vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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In which section of the digestive system are Brunner's glands located?
Your Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:Glands and Structures of the Digestive System
The digestive system is composed of various glands and structures that play important roles in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. One of these structures is the Brunner’s glands, which are coiled glands found in the submucosa of the duodenum. These glands produce an alkaline fluid that helps neutralize the acidic contents of the stomach as they enter the small intestine.
In contrast, salivary glands are typical exocrine glands that are composed of acini and ducts. These glands produce saliva, which contains enzymes that begin the process of breaking down carbohydrates in the mouth.
The stomach has deep pits that contain different cell types, including endocrine cells and goblet cells. These cells secrete various substances that aid in digestion and protect the stomach lining from the corrosive effects of gastric acid.
The jejunum and ileum are parts of the small intestine that have villi, which are finger-like projections that increase the surface area for absorption. At the base of the villi are the crypts of Lieberkuhn, where new enterocytes are produced and migrate up to the tip of the villi. These enterocytes are responsible for absorbing nutrients from the digested food.
Overall, the digestive system is a complex network of glands and structures that work together to ensure the proper digestion and absorption of nutrients from the food we eat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is a frequent reason for mortality in individuals with severe malnutrition?
Your Answer: Renal failure
Correct Answer: Infection
Explanation:The Deadly Consequences of Severe Malnutrition
Severe malnutrition is a widespread problem that affects millions of people worldwide. It is responsible for approximately 50% of deaths in childhood and infancy. One of the most common causes of death in malnourished individuals is severe infection. Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making it more difficult for the body to fight off infections. This is especially true for those living in poverty, with poor access to food, and in areas affected by famine, war, or conflict. These conditions often lead to poor water sanitation, disrupted infrastructure for sewerage, and close living quarters, which increase the likelihood of infection.
In addition to infections, arrhythmias are also a significant cause of death in people with severe malnutrition. Malnutrition often leads to hypokalaemia, a condition where there is a low level of potassium in the blood. Refeeding a malnourished person can worsen this electrolyte disturbance, creating an arrhythmogenic environment that can be fatal.
In conclusion, severe malnutrition has deadly consequences, with severe infection and arrhythmias being the leading causes of death. Addressing the root causes of malnutrition, such as poverty and poor access to food, is crucial in preventing these tragic outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient has been diagnosed with diabetic nephropathy and is being prepared for dialysis. During testing, it was discovered that the patient has an increased level of parathyroid hormone in their bloodstream. What is the function of parathyroid hormone?
Your Answer: To promote loss of calcium in the urine
Correct Answer: To promote loss of phosphate in the urine
Explanation:The Role of Parathyroid Hormone in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. It works on the bone to release calcium into the bloodstream and interstitial fluid through bone resorption. PTH also works on the kidney to increase the activity of the 1-alpha hydroxylase enzyme, which activates vitamin D, promoting increased calcium absorption from the gut. Additionally, PTH reduces the amount of calcium lost in the urine and increases the amount of phosphate lost in the urine by altering the renal tubular threshold for phosphate.
However, in cases of hyperparathyroidism, excessive PTH is produced at an inappropriate time, leading to elevated calcium concentrations and low phosphate concentrations in the blood. This can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including bone pain, kidney stones, and osteoporosis. Therefore, it is important to maintain proper levels of PTH to ensure healthy calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is experiencing intense pain around her belly button that is spreading to her right iliac fossa. She has a fever and is vomiting on and off. The medical team has decided to perform a laparoscopic removal of her appendix. Can you identify the most frequent location of the appendix in the pelvis?
Your Answer: Subcaecal
Correct Answer: Retrocaecal
Explanation:Anatomy of the Appendix
The appendix is a tube that is approximately 10 cm long and can be found in different positions in the body depending on the individual. It is most commonly located behind the caecum, which is retrocaecal, in about 65% of people. However, it can also be found in the pelvic area in around 30% of individuals. Other variations include being located below the caecum, which is subcaecal, or in front of the terminal ileum, which is pre-ileal. Additionally, it can be found behind the ileum, which is post-ileal. The position of the appendix can vary greatly from person to person, and it is important for medical professionals to be aware of these variations when diagnosing and treating conditions related to the appendix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A pair visits the clinic to inquire about the likelihood of their future offspring developing alpha thalassaemia. They both have thalassaemia trait. What is the accurate probability of their child being born with thalassaemia major?
Your Answer: 5% risk
Correct Answer: 25% risk
Explanation:Thalassaemia Trait and the Risk of Inheriting Thalassaemia Major
Thalassaemia trait individuals, who are heterozygous for the condition, do not have thalassaemia themselves. However, if their partner is also a carrier, there is a high risk of having a child born with thalassaemia major, which occurs when both parents pass on the thalassaemia gene. The risk of this happening is 1 in 4.
It is important to note that individuals with thalassaemia trait have a 50% chance of passing on the gene to their children, who will also be carriers. There is also a 1 in 4 chance of their children not inheriting the thalassaemia gene at all.
It is worth mentioning that the terminology used to describe thalassaemias has changed in recent years. People with beta thalassaemia can now be grouped into transfusion dependent or independent categories. the risk of inheriting thalassaemia major is crucial for individuals with thalassaemia trait who are planning to have children. Genetic counseling can help them make informed decisions about their family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI during the study period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:The Glycaemic Index Method is a commonly used tool by dieticians and patients to determine the impact of different foods on blood glucose levels. This method involves calculating the area under a curve that shows the rise in blood glucose after consuming a test portion of food containing 50 grams of carbohydrate. The rationale behind using the GI index is that foods that cause a rapid and significant increase in blood glucose levels can lead to an increase in insulin production. This can put individuals at a higher risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain.
High GI foods are typically those that contain refined sugars and processed cereals, such as white bread and white rice. These foods can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose levels, leading to a surge in insulin production. On the other hand, low GI foods, such as vegetables, legumes, and beans, are less likely to cause a significant increase in blood glucose levels.
Overall, the Glycaemic Index Method can be helpful in making informed food choices and managing blood glucose levels. By choosing low GI foods, individuals can reduce their risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain, while still enjoying a healthy and balanced diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old woman named Mrs. Smith visits her GP complaining of constant fatigue. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism and takes oral levothyroxine. Her routine blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 87 g/L (115-160), MCV 108 fL (76-96), Platelets 136 ×109/L (150-400), TSH 3.6 (0.3-5), and T4 88 (70-150). What is the appropriate treatment plan for Mrs. Smith?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation
Explanation:Pernicious Anaemia: An Autoimmune Disease
Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that occurs when the body produces antibodies against gastric parietal cells. These cells are responsible for producing intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Vitamin B12 is essential for the synthesis of thymine, which is required for effective DNA synthesis. As a result, patients with pernicious anaemia may experience symptoms related to other cell lines, such as diarrhoea caused by gut mucosa turnover.
The failure of DNA synthesis leads to a large mean cell volume in erythrocytes as they mature through the erythroid cell line. Treatment for pernicious anaemia involves the replacement of vitamin B12, usually through hydroxycobalamin injections. Blood transfusions are unnecessary unless the patient is severely compromised, as they do not address the underlying problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the typical size of an adult male's testicles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 ml
Explanation:Testicular Anatomy and Measurements
The testicles, or testes, are an important part of the male reproductive system. In healthy young men, the average volume of each testicle is around 20 ml. However, this volume tends to decrease as men age. The normal length of a testicle is approximately 4.5 to 5.1 cm. The testicular parenchyma, or tissue, is surrounded by a capsule that contains blood vessels, smooth muscle fibers, and nerve fibers that are sensitive to pressure. This capsule helps to protect and support the testicles, which are responsible for producing sperm and testosterone. the anatomy and measurements of the testicles is important for maintaining male reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the age of 60.
The null hypothesis was that there was no difference between the two treatments.
The primary outcome was reduction of systolic blood pressure below 140 mmHg. This outcome was reached in 75% of patients taking treatment A and 80% of patients taking treatment B. The results were reported as being significant with a p-value of 0.05.
What is the correct interpretation of the P value?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a 5% probability of finding this result if there is no difference between the regimens
Explanation:The Misunderstood P Value
The P value is often misunderstood and over-interpreted. It is important to note that the P value only indicates the probability of obtaining the results by chance if there was no difference between the regimens being compared. It does not provide information on the actual difference between the regimens or the likelihood of one being better than the other. This confusion has led to the increased use of confidence intervals as a more informative measure.
Goodman SN’s article Toward Evidence-Based Medical Statistics delves deeper into this issue and highlights the fallacy of relying solely on P values. It is crucial to understand the limitations of the P value and to use it in conjunction with other statistical measures to draw accurate conclusions. By doing so, we can ensure that our research is evidence-based and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial and musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The Brachialis Muscle: Anatomy and Innervation
The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm and is located in the anterior half of the humerus and intermuscular septa. It attaches to the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna at the elbow joint. The main nerve supply for the brachialis muscle is the musculocutaneous nerve, with C6 and radial nerve also playing a role. Additionally, the lateral part of the brachialis muscle is supplied by branches from the C7 root. Overall, the brachialis muscle is an important muscle for forearm flexion and is innervated by multiple nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate dehydrogenase to operate during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA at the end of glycolysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Pyruvate Dehydrogenase and its Enzyme Complex
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is an enzyme complex that plays a crucial role in metabolism. It is composed of multiple copies of several enzymes, including E1, E2, and E3. E1, also known as pyruvate dehydrogenase, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires thiamine pyrophosphate, a derivative of the vitamin thiamine, to function properly. E2, a transacetylase enzyme, is situated in the core of the molecule and requires lipoamide to work effectively. Lipoamide contains a thiol group that enables it to participate in redox reactions. E3, a dehydrogenase enzyme, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires a molecule of FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) to function. Flavin structures are obtained from the vitamin riboflavin in the diet.
Thiamine is essential for normal pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and it must be obtained from the diet as the body can only store relatively small amounts. Thiamine deficiency is common and can lead to a range of potentially serious complications, including Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Korsakoff’s psychosis, and peripheral neurological symptoms. Overall, the pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme complex is under strict metabolic control and plays a critical role in energy production and metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are participating in a seminar about eating disorders. What renal alteration is common in individuals with extreme malnourishment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced glomerular filtration rate
Explanation:Renal Physiology Changes in Severe Malnutrition
Patients with severe malnutrition experience changes in their renal physiology due to reduced food intake. These changes include an increased secretion of aldosterone and a reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which alters the excretion patterns of many solutes, electrolytes, and drugs. As a result, there is an increased urinary excretion of potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, leading to a tendency for hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypophosphataemia over time.
Furthermore, the reduced muscle bulk in individuals with severe malnutrition causes low levels of production of urea and creatinine. However, reduced excretion causes plasma levels to remain normal or only slightly reduced. As muscle is broken down to provide substrates for gluconeogenesis, a negative nitrogen balance ensues. Additionally, urate excretion is reduced, causing a relative hyperuricaemia.
In summary, severe malnutrition affects renal physiology, leading to altered excretion patterns of various solutes, electrolytes, and drugs. These changes can result in imbalances in potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate levels. Furthermore, the breakdown of muscle tissue can cause a negative nitrogen balance, while reduced urate excretion can lead to hyperuricaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are a third year medical student assisting a plastic surgeon in theatre. The plastic surgeon hands you a surgical retractor and asks you to retract the latissimus dorsi muscle. Once you have successfully done so, the surgeon inquires about the nerve responsible for innervating this muscle.
What is the nerve that innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve
Explanation:The Functions of Different Nerves in the Brachial Plexus
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and provide innervation to the upper limb. Each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
One of the nerves in the brachial plexus is the thoracodorsal nerve, which originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Its primary function is to provide somatic innervation to the latissimus dorsi muscle, which is a large muscle in the posterior thorax involved in shoulder joint movement.
Another nerve in the brachial plexus is the upper subscapular nerve, which innervates the subscapularis muscle. The long thoracic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the serratus anterior muscle, and damage to this nerve can cause a winging effect on the scapula.
The axillary nerve is another nerve in the brachial plexus that originates from the posterior cord. Its primary motor supply is to the deltoid muscle, which is involved in shoulder abduction.
Lastly, the lateral pectoral nerve is a branch of the lateral cord and innervates the pectoralis major muscle. The pectoralis major muscle also receives innervation from the medial pectoral nerve, which is a branch of the median cord of the brachial plexus.
In summary, each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma pigmentosum. What is the defective biochemical mechanism in this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DNA excision repair
Explanation:DNA and its Processes
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found in the epidermal cells absorbs UV light, which results in the formation of pyrimidine dimers. These dimers are then removed through the process of excision repair, where the DNA is copied and re-annealed. Failure in this process can lead to mutations in tumour suppressor genes or oncogenes, which can cause malignancy.
DNA polymerisation is the process of synthesizing DNA from nucleotides, which is driven by the enzyme DNA polymerase. On the other hand, mRNA splicing is the removal of introns from RNA to allow for exons to join together before coding. Lastly, nucleotide transition refers to a point mutation of nucleotides, such as in sickle cell anaemia. these processes is crucial in comprehending the role of DNA in the body and how it can affect our health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a skin rash and tremors. Upon conducting a urine chromatography test, it is found that he has elevated levels of neutral amino acids. The diagnosis is Hartnup disease. Can you identify which of the following options is an essential neutral amino acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tryptophan
Explanation:Essential Amino Acids
Essential amino acids are those that the body cannot produce in sufficient quantities to meet the needs of cells. Therefore, they must be obtained through the diet. The essential amino acids include isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. During childhood, arginine and histidine are also considered essential amino acids. Mnemonics can be used to help remember these essential amino acids. Aspartate and serine are not essential amino acids, while arginine and histidine are positively charged and therefore not essential. The only essential amino acid that is both neutral and essential is tryptophan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which statement about the internal jugular vein and its relations is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lies lateral to the common carotid artery
Explanation:The Path of the Internal Jugular Vein
The internal jugular vein begins at the jugular foramen and is initially located behind the carotid artery. As it descends in the carotid sheath, it moves to the side of the internal and common carotid arteries. Eventually, it passes in front of the subclavian artery and joins with the subclavian vein to form the brachiocephalic vein. The left and right brachiocephalic veins then come together to create the superior vena cava. At the point where the internal jugular vein meets the subclavian vein, it receives a lymphatic trunk. The external jugular vein, on the other hand, drains into the subclavian vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the process by which B cells can produce epitope-specific antibodies with extremely high affinity through random mutations of their existing receptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatic hypermutation
Explanation:The Process of B Cell Activation and Germinal Center Formation
When an antigen activates a naïve B cell and receives appropriate signals from a Th2 CD4+ T cell, the B cell undergoes proliferation and gene mutation to form a germinal center. This process involves the formation of B-blasts and centroblasts, which insert new mutations into the variable regions of the light- and heavy-chain loci of their existing B cell receptor (BCR) through somatic hypermutation. This allows the production of a new BCR based on a receptor that is already known to bind antigen. The new BCRs are then tested against antigen by follicular dendritic cells to find a BCR with higher affinity.
Simultaneously, class switching occurs, which refers to the exchange of heavy chain constant domain to move from IgM to any other Ig class. In the production of naïve lymphocytes in the thymus, negative and positive selection are involved. Somatic gene segment recombination is the process that allows the production of a random T cell or B cell receptor when cells are made in the bone marrow.
Overall, the process of B cell activation and germinal center formation is a complex and intricate process that involves multiple steps and mechanisms. However, it is essential for the production of high-affinity antibodies and the development of an effective immune response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An aged patient is brought to the ER from a nursing home due to severe diarrhea and dehydration. She had received broad-spectrum antibiotics a week ago for a catheter-related infection, and it is suspected that she has been infected with Clostridium difficile. What would be the microscopic appearance of this organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram positive spore-forming rod
Explanation:Clostridium difficile and Gram Positive Bacteria
Clostridium difficile is becoming a more frequent cause of iatrogenic infection, leading to pseudomembranous colitis or antibiotic-associated colitis. This anaerobic rod can be identified through selective media as a motile, spore-forming Gram positive bacteria. However, it is easier and quicker to detect through immunoassay of toxin in a fresh stool sample.
Gram positive bacteria can be classified into rods or cocci. Rods include Bacillus, Listeria, and Clostridium species, which can be spore-forming or non-spore-forming. On the other hand, cocci species include Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species, while diplococcus includes Streptococcus and Enterococcus. the different types of Gram positive bacteria and their characteristics is crucial in identifying and treating infections caused by these microorganisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female has been diagnosed with iron deficiency while pregnant.
What is the primary role of iron in the human body?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin synthesis
Explanation:The Importance of Iron in the Human Body
Iron plays a crucial role in maintaining a healthy human body. One of its primary functions is to transport oxygen throughout the body via haemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells. Additionally, iron is an essential component of cytochromes, which are necessary for the production of ATP and drug metabolism. Iron is also required for the production of myoglobin, which is necessary for normal muscle function.
Unfortunately, iron deficiency is prevalent, especially in children, menstruating women, and pregnant patients. Vegetarians are also at a higher risk of deficiency since animal sources of iron are more easily absorbed than plant sources. To combat iron deficiency, it is recommended to consume foods rich in iron, such as liver, chicken, pulses, leafy green vegetables, and fish. By ensuring adequate iron intake, individuals can maintain optimal health and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is undergoing a selective neck dissection of the posterior triangle of the neck. What structures will be identified during the dissection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The inferior belly of omohyoid
Explanation:Anatomy of the Posterior Triangle of the Neck
The posterior triangle of the neck is an anatomical region that contains various nerves, arteries, veins, and lymph nodes. The nerves found in this area include the spinal accessory nerve (Xi) and the cervical plexus, which consists of the lesser occipital, greater auricular, transverse cervical, and supraclavicular nerves. The arteries present in the posterior triangle of the neck include the 3rd part of the subclavian artery, the transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries (both branches of the thyrocervical trunk), and the occipital artery. The external jugular vein is also located in this region. Additionally, there are lymph nodes located in the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle.
It is important to note that the brachial plexus lies deep to the prevertebral fascia in this area. the anatomy of the posterior triangle of the neck is crucial for medical professionals, as it can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions that may affect this region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the alternative name for vitamin A?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin A
Explanation:The Different Types and Roles of Vitamin A
Vitamin A comes in various forms, including retinol, retinal, and retinoic acid. Retinol is found in food and is converted to retinal or retinoic acid in the body. It is commonly found in meat, milk, and dairy products. Retinal is crucial for vision, while retinoic acid plays a role in gene expression and protein production within cells. Beta carotene, which is present in foods like carrots, can also be converted to vitamin A by the body.
Vitamin A has several important roles in the body. Retinal is highly concentrated in the rod and cone cells of the retina, where it plays a crucial role in vision. Vitamin A also boosts the immune system by increasing antibody production and T cell activity. It helps maintain the integrity of the skin and mucous membranes, creating a barrier against infection. High doses of vitamin A can even be used to treat certain skin conditions. Additionally, vitamin A is involved in the production of steroid hormones and is essential for growth and development in children.
However, a deficiency in vitamin A can have negative consequences on nerve function, fertility, and fracture healing. It is important to consume enough vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A neonatal hearing screening program screened 10,000 newborns by measuring otoacoustic emissions (OAE). Out of these, 200 newborns failed the screening test and were invited for a test of brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP), which is considered the gold standard for diagnosing hearing impairment in newborns. Among these 200 newborns, 100 were confirmed to have hearing impairment by BAEP. What is the correct statement regarding this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The accuracy of the screening test cannot be determined
Explanation:Limitations of Screening Test Results
In the study, 200 out of 10,000 subjects were found to have hearing impairment through a screening test. However, for the 9,800 subjects who tested negative, no further testing was conducted to confirm if they truly did not have hearing impairment. This means that we cannot determine the accuracy of the screening test from the data provided, nor can we calculate the sensitivity, specificity, or negative predictive values. The only value that can be calculated is the positive predictive value, which is 50%. It is important to note the limitations of screening test results and the need for further testing to confirm diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A study recruits a random sample of 5,000 individuals over the age of 50 and asks about their use of herbs and other health supplements. Participants are then followed-up for five years. The study aims to compare the incidence of colon cancer among participants to see if the use of herbs or health supplements has any effect.
What type of study is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cohort study
Explanation:Different Types of Studies
When it comes to conducting research, it is important to understand the characteristics of different types of studies as they serve different purposes. For instance, a cohort study is typically used to investigate risk factors of diseases. On the other hand, a case-control study begins with identifying cases of a particular disease and controls who are not affected. Unlike a cohort study, a case-control study does not require waiting for the occurrence of the disease.
Qualitative studies, on the other hand, are used to explore variables that are not easily quantifiable, such as opinions and thoughts of patients. These studies are not suitable for studying the incidence and risk of diseases. Lastly, a randomized controlled trial involves researchers assigning treatment instead of participants choosing their own treatment.
In summary, the characteristics of different types of studies is crucial in selecting the appropriate research method for a particular research question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the likely arrangement of openings in the cellular membrane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A protein molecule in the membrane with a channel through it
Explanation:Composition and Structure of the Cell Membrane
The cell membrane is made up of a lipid matrix that primarily consists of phospholipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides. This lipid matrix is interspersed with large protein molecules that have channels running through them, which act as tiny pores. These pores allow for the selective transport of molecules in and out of the cell. The cell membrane is a crucial component of all living cells, as it serves as a barrier between the cell and its environment, regulating the flow of substances in and out of the cell. Its composition and structure are essential for maintaining the integrity and function of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a mid-diastolic murmur is detected and the patient has a flushed face. What past infection could have caused these symptoms 10-20 years ago?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Rheumatic Heart Disease and Mitral Stenosis
Rheumatic heart disease is the leading cause of mitral stenosis, a condition characterized by shortness of breath and a mid-diastolic murmur in the heart. This disease is an immune response to a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, such as streptococcus pyogenes. Acute rheumatic fever can occur within two weeks of the initial infection and can lead to a pan carditis, along with other symptoms like erythema marginatum and arthritis. If left untreated, chronic carditis may develop, which can result in mitral stenosis.
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diptheriae, while Enterococcus faecalis is a group G streptococcal organism that can cause urinary tract and intra-abdominal infections. Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis, and Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin, bone, and joint infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the hormone that can be synthesized from cholesterol in the adrenal glands?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cortisol
Explanation:The Role of Cholesterol in Hormone Production
Cholesterol plays a crucial role in the production of steroid hormones, which are essential for various bodily functions. These hormones are produced in the adrenal glands and include progesterone, cortisol, aldosterone, oestrogens, and androgens. Progesterone is important in pregnancy, while cortisol and other glucocorticoids are required by all body cells and play a role in the fight-or-flight response and glucose homeostasis. Aldosterone regulates salt and water balance, while oestrogens and androgens are required for the development of female and male characteristics, respectively.
The production of steroid hormones is a complex process that involves multiple pathways and is influenced by various factors such as the body’s metabolic needs and the abundance of hormones already present in the cell. Enzyme mutations or deficiencies in this pathway can lead to disorders that affect salt and water balance and reproductive function, such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
In addition to steroid hormones, other hormones such as antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are produced in the posterior pituitary gland, while thyroid hormone is made in the thyroid gland in the neck and parathyroid hormone is made in the parathyroid glands located behind the thyroid gland. the role of cholesterol in hormone production is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has undergone surgery to repair a perforated tympanic membrane and is experiencing a change in her sense of taste. Which nerve is responsible for this alteration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The chorda tympani nerve
Explanation:Nerves of the Ear and Tongue
The ear and tongue are innervated by several important nerves. One such nerve is the chorda tympani, which runs between the layers of the tympanic membrane and over the handle of the malleus. This nerve can be damaged during middle ear surgery and is responsible for supplying taste fibers to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
Another important nerve is the glossopharyngeal nerve, which provides motor innervation to the pharynx and sensation to the root of the tongue, tympanic cavity, and auditory tube. The greater petrosal nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland and the mucosal glands lining the nasal cavity and palate.
The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for supplying motor innervation to the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Lastly, the lesser petrosal nerve is a component of the glossopharyngeal nerve that carries parasympathetic fibers from the tympanic plexus to the parotid gland.
Overall, these nerves play crucial roles in the function of the ear and tongue, and any damage to them can have significant consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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