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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old male visits his GP accompanied by his wife who is anxious...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male visits his GP accompanied by his wife who is anxious about his recent memory decline. The patient's wife is worried as her mother had Alzheimer's disease and she fears her husband may be developing it too. Among the following causes of cognitive decline, which one is potentially reversible?

      Your Answer: Brain tumour

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus can be a reversible cause of dementia, while Pick’s disease is a degenerative form of frontotemporal dementia that cannot be reversed. Lewy body dementia is a progressive condition that is linked to parkinson’s and visual hallucinations. Multi-infarct dementia is associated with cardiovascular risk factors like smoking, diabetes, and atrial fibrillation, but the damage caused by infarcts is irreversible. A brain tumor is a potential cause of dementia that can be reversed.

      Understanding the Causes of Dementia

      Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.

      However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.

      It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).

      In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old man has been referred to the sleep clinic by his GP...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man has been referred to the sleep clinic by his GP due to reports from his partner of sleepwalking and appearing frightened during the night. Additionally, he has been known to scream while sleeping and recently experienced an episode of bedwetting. At which stage of sleep do these symptoms typically occur?

      Your Answer: Non-REM stage 3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Stages: The Sleep Doctor’s Brain

      Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages, each with its own unique characteristics. The Sleep Doctor’s Brain provides a simplified explanation of the four main sleep stages: N1, N2, N3, and REM.

      N1 is the lightest stage of sleep, characterized by theta waves and often associated with hypnic jerks. N2 is a deeper stage of sleep, marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes. This stage represents around 50% of total sleep. N3 is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by delta waves. Parasomnias such as night terrors, nocturnal enuresis, and sleepwalking can occur during this stage.

      REM, or rapid eye movement, is the stage where dreaming occurs. It is characterized by beta-waves and a loss of muscle tone, including erections. The sleep cycle typically follows a pattern of N1 → N2 → N3 → REM, with each stage lasting for different durations throughout the night.

      Understanding the different sleep stages is important for maintaining healthy sleep habits and identifying potential sleep disorders. By monitoring brain activity during sleep, the Sleep Doctor’s Brain can provide valuable insights into the complex process of sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      20.8
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 3-day history of headaches....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 3-day history of headaches. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.

      During the examination, it is observed that his left pupil is constricted with enophthalmos and ptosis of the left eyelid. However, the right side of his face appears to be unaffected.

      What could be the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Carotid artery dissection is the likely cause of the patient’s Horner’s syndrome, which presents with ptosis, enophthalmos, and miosis. This syndrome occurs when there is damage to the cervical sympathetic chain, resulting in the loss of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck. The patient’s history of hypertension and headache further support this diagnosis.

      Facial nerve schwannoma is an incorrect diagnosis, as it would present with facial nerve palsy rather than Horner’s syndrome.

      Microvascular oculomotor nerve palsy is also an incorrect diagnosis, as it typically presents with complete ptosis and an eye that is turned outwards and downwards, without pupil dilatation.

      Uncal herniation is another incorrect diagnosis, as it can cause an oculomotor nerve palsy with pupillary involvement, but typically presents with a ‘down and out’ facing eye, rather than Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      28.3
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  • Question 4 - Ben, an 18-year-old male, attends his follow up shoulder clinic appointment following a...

    Incorrect

    • Ben, an 18-year-old male, attends his follow up shoulder clinic appointment following a traumatic football injury.

      Dr. Patel, the orthopaedic surgeon, carries out a shoulder examination and notes winging of the right scapula.

      Which muscle is impacted?

      Your Answer: Deltoid

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The serratus anterior muscle is supplied by the long thoracic nerve.

      Muscle Innervation Action
      Accessory nerve Trapezius Upper fibres elevate scapula, middle fibres retract scapula, and lower fibres pull scapula inferiorly
      Axillary nerve Deltoid Major abductor of the arm
      Dorsal scapular nerve Levator scapulae Elevates scapula
      Dorsal scapular nerve Rhomboid major Rotate and retract scapula

      The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging

      The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.

      One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.

      Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. According to him, she was watching TV when she suddenly complained of a tingling sensation on the left side of her body. She then reported that her leg had gone numb. Her father mentions that both he and his sister have epilepsy. Given her altered spatial perception and sensation, you suspect that she may have experienced a seizure. What type of seizure is most probable?

      Your Answer: Absence seizure

      Correct Answer: Parietal lobe seizure

      Explanation:

      Paresthesia is a symptom that can help identify a parietal lobe seizure.

      When a patient experiences a parietal lobe seizure, they may feel a tingling sensation on one side of their body or even experience numbness in certain areas. This type of seizure is not very common and is typically associated with sensory symptoms.

      On the other hand, occipital lobe seizures tend to cause visual disturbances like seeing flashes or floaters. Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations, which can affect the senses of hearing, taste, and smell. Additionally, they may cause repetitive movements like lip smacking or grabbing.

      Absence seizures are more commonly seen in children between the ages of 3 and 10. These seizures are brief and cause the person to stop what they are doing and stare off into space with a blank expression. Fortunately, most children with absence seizures will outgrow them by adolescence.

      Finally, frontal lobe seizures often cause movements of the head or legs and can result in a period of weakness after the seizure has ended.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old woman with a history of neurosarcoidosis treated with steroids visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman with a history of neurosarcoidosis treated with steroids visits her GP complaining of intense facial pain. The pain lasts only a few seconds but is unbearable and worsens with exposure to cold air and touch.

      Upon examination, there are no focal neurological signs. However, a few minutes after the examination, she experiences severe pain on her right cheek, which she describes as always being over her right zygoma.

      Through which opening in the skull does the affected cranial nerve pass?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Foramen rotundum, as the maxillary nerve passes through this foramen to exit the skull. This nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the upper teeth, gums, and palate. The patient’s trigeminal neuralgia is caused by irritation of the right-sided maxillary nerve.

      Cribriform plate is not the correct answer, as this area of the skull is where the olfactory nerve passes through to enable the sense of smell.

      Foramen ovale is also not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the mandibular nerve exits the skull to provide sensation to the lower face.

      Jugular foramen is not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the accessory nerve passes through to innervate the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?...

    Incorrect

    • As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?

      Your Answer: Deltoid

      Correct Answer: Teres major

      Explanation:

      The triangular space serves as a pathway for the radial nerve to exit the axilla. Its upper boundary is defined by the teres major muscle, which has a close association with the radial nerve.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      40
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  • Question 8 - An 88-year-old man is brought by his daughter to see his family physician....

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man is brought by his daughter to see his family physician. The daughter reports that her father has been getting lost while driving and forgetting important appointments. She also notices that he has been misplacing items around the house and struggling to recognize familiar faces. These symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past 6 months.

      Upon examination, the doctor finds that a recent MRI scan shows increased sulci depth consistent with Alzheimer's disease. The man has not experienced any falls or motor difficulties. He has no significant medical history.

      What is the most likely brain pathology in this patient?

      Your Answer: Intracellular amyloid plaques and extracellular neurofibrillary tangles

      Correct Answer: Extracellular amyloid plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein in cortical plaques and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein in intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. A patient presenting with memory problems and decreased ability to recognize faces is likely to have Alzheimer’s disease, with Lewy body dementia and vascular dementia being the main differential diagnoses. Lewy body dementia can be ruled out as the patient does not have any movement symptoms. Vascular dementia typically occurs on a background of vascular risk factors and presents with sudden deteriorations in cognition and memory. The diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is supported by MRI findings of increased sulci depth due to brain atrophy following neurodegeneration. Pick’s disease, now known as frontotemporal dementia, is characterized by intracellular tau protein aggregates called Pick bodies and presents with personality changes, language impairment, and emotional disturbances.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache rated at 10/10 in severity, which he describes as the worst headache he has ever had. During the examination, the doctor observes photophobia and a decreasing level of consciousness in the patient.

      What potential underlying risk factor could have contributed to this occurrence?

      Your Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Explanation:

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a potential complication for individuals with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a group of connective tissue disorders characterized by joint hypermobility, hyper-extensive skin, and easy bruising. It should be noted that acute kidney injury is not a risk factor, but adult polycystic kidney disease may increase the likelihood of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage where blood is present in the subarachnoid space, which is located deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges. Spontaneous SAH is caused by various factors such as intracranial aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, arterial dissection, mycotic aneurysms, and perimesencephalic. The most common symptom of SAH is a sudden-onset headache, which is severe and occipital. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and sudden death. SAH can be confirmed through a CT head scan or lumbar puncture. Treatment for SAH depends on the underlying cause, and most intracranial aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, vasospasm, hyponatraemia, seizures, hydrocephalus, and death. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and the amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old patient visits his GP with complaints of fatigue and weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient visits his GP with complaints of fatigue and weight loss. He reports pain in his right shoulder area and tingling sensations in his fourth and fifth fingers on the right hand. Upon diagnosis, it is revealed that he has an apical lung tumor that is pressing on the C8-T1 nerve roots of the brachial plexus. Which nerve in the upper limb is primarily affected?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The pressure applied by the tumour on the inferior roots of the brachial plexus (C8-T1) explains the pain in the shoulder region, as the ulnar nerve, which innervates the palmar surface of the fifth digit and medial part of the fourth digit, originates from these roots.

      The axillary nerve’s cutaneous branches supply the skin surrounding the inferior part of the deltoid muscle around the shoulder joint.

      The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is the only sensory branch of the musculoskeletal nerve and innervates the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Although the radial nerve has the most extensive cutaneous innervation of the nerves in the upper limb, it does not supply the palmar surface of the hand but rather its dorsal side.

      The median nerve supplies the lateral part of the palm and the palmar surface of the three most lateral fingers, and is partially comprised of the C8-T1 roots of the brachial plexus. Therefore, altered sensations of the thumb or index finger would be more typical of median nerve impairment than the fourth or fifth digits.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old male presents to the GP with back pain. He tells you...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male presents to the GP with back pain. He tells you the pain started three weeks ago after helping a friend move where he was lifting lots of heavy boxes. He says the pain radiates down the lateral aspect of his right thigh and often feels a tingling sensation in this area. On clinical examination you find reduced sensation below the right knee but the knee reflex is intact. You suspect he may have damaged his sciatic nerve.

      Which other feature are you most likely to find?

      Your Answer: Absent plantar reflex

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences a loss of ankle and plantar reflexes but retains their knee jerk reflex, it may indicate a sciatic nerve lesion. The sciatic nerve is responsible for innervating the hamstring and adductor muscles and is supplied by L4-5 and S1-3. Other symptoms of sciatic nerve damage include paralysis of knee flexion and sensory loss below the knee.

      If a patient presents with a Trendelenburg sign, it may indicate an injury to the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for thigh abduction by gluteus medius, and damage to it can cause weakness and a compensatory tilt of the body to the weakened gluteal side.

      Tinel’s sign is a feature of carpel tunnel syndrome and occurs when the median nerve is tapped at the wrist, causing tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve.

      Damage to the obturator nerve can result in sensory loss at the medial thigh. This nerve is typically damaged in an anterior hip dislocation.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae and divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. It is responsible for supplying the hamstring and adductor muscles. When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in a range of symptoms that affect both motor and sensory functions.

      Motor symptoms of sciatic nerve lesion include paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee. Sensory symptoms include loss of sensation below the knee. Reflexes may also be affected, with ankle and plantar reflexes lost while the knee jerk reflex remains intact.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesion, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old woman is referred to neurology clinic by her GP due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is referred to neurology clinic by her GP due to a 2-month history of gradual onset numbness in both feet. She has a medical history of well-controlled Crohn's disease on a vegan diet.

      During examination, the patient's gait is ataxic and Romberg's test is positive. There is a loss of proprioception and vibration sense to the mid shin bilaterally. Bilateral plantars are upgoing with absent ankle jerks.

      Based on these findings, you suspect the patient has subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Which part of the nervous system is affected?

      Your Answer: The dorsal column and ventral spinothalamic tracts of the spinal cord

      Correct Answer: The dorsal column and lateral corticospinal tracts of the spinal cord

      Explanation:

      Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is absorbed in the terminal ileum along with intrinsic factor. Individuals at high risk of vitamin B12 deficiency include those with a history of gastric or intestinal surgery, pernicious anemia, malabsorption (especially in Crohn’s disease), and vegans due to decreased dietary intake. Medications such as proton-pump inhibitors and metformin can also reduce absorption of vitamin B12.

      SACD primarily affects the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts of the spinal cord, resulting in the loss of proprioception and vibration sense, followed by distal paraesthesia. The condition typically presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs, including extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. Treatment with vitamin B12 can result in partial to full recovery, depending on the extent and duration of neurodegeneration.

      If a patient has both vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency, it is important to treat the vitamin B12 deficiency first to prevent the onset of subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 47-year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism and her serum PTH...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism and her serum PTH levels are elevated. She undergoes a parathyroidectomy performed by an endocrine surgeon. How long does it typically take for serum PTH levels to decrease after successful removal of the functioning adenoma?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Correct Answer: 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he...

    Correct

    • A young man presents after multiple episodes of optic neuritis, during which he develops unilateral eye pain. Upon examination, he is found to have decreased visual acuity and colour saturation on his affected eye. His doctor suspects multiple sclerosis. What features would be expected on a T2-weighted MRI?

      Your Answer: Multiple hyperintense lesions

      Explanation:

      MS is characterized by the spread of brain lesions over time and space.

      Dementia is often linked to cortical atrophy.

      If there is only one hyperintense lesion, it may indicate a haemorrhage rather than other conditions.

      A semilunar lesion on one side may indicate a subdural haemorrhage.

      Raised intracranial pressure, which can be caused by space-occupying lesions and haemorrhages, can be indicated by midline shift.

      Investigating Multiple Sclerosis

      Diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS) requires the identification of lesions that are disseminated in both time and space. There are several methods used to investigate MS, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, and visual evoked potentials (VEP).

      MRI is a commonly used tool to identify MS lesions. High signal T2 lesions and periventricular plaques are often observed, as well as Dawson fingers, which are hyperintense lesions perpendicular to the corpus callosum. CSF analysis can also aid in diagnosis, as it may reveal oligoclonal bands that are not present in serum and an increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG.

      VEP testing can also be used to diagnose MS. This test measures the electrical activity in the visual pathway and can reveal a delayed but well-preserved waveform in MS patients.

      Overall, a combination of these methods is often used to diagnose MS and demonstrate the dissemination of lesions in time and space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash. Despite being vaccinated, they are experiencing these symptoms. During a lumbar puncture, the fluid obtained is turbid, with low glucose and an elevated opening pressure. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is also the likely pathogen in this patient’s case. His symptoms and lumbar puncture results suggest bacterial meningitis, with turbid fluid, raised opening pressure, and low glucose. While Escherichia coli is a common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months, it is less likely in a 29-year-old. Haemophilus influenzae B is also an unlikely cause in this patient, who is up-to-date with their vaccinations and beyond the age range for this pathogen. Staphylococcus pneumoniae is a rare but serious cause of pneumonia, but not as likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults

      Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to you by her father who complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to you by her father who complains that his daughter has been vomiting for the past few weeks, especially in the morning, and has complained of double vision for the past week. You suspect the child may have increased intracranial pressure, and order a CT brain to rule out an intracranial mass.

      If the underlying cause of her symptoms turned out to a medulloblastoma, what histological finding would be most characteristic?

      Your Answer: Perivascular pseudorosettes

      Correct Answer: Small, blue cells with rosette patterns

      Explanation:

      The histological appearance of a medulloblastoma is small, blue cells with rosette patterns, which is the most common malignant primary tumour in the paediatric population and frequently found in the infratentorial region.

      Brain tumours can be classified into different types based on their location, histology, and clinical features. Metastatic brain cancer is the most common form of brain tumours, which often cannot be treated with surgical intervention. Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis. Meningioma is the second most common primary brain tumour in adults, which is typically benign and arises from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges. Vestibular schwannoma is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve, while pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common primary brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment, while ependymoma is commonly seen in the 4th ventricle and may cause hydrocephalus. Oligodendroma is a benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes, while haemangioblastoma is a vascular tumour of the cerebellum. Pituitary adenoma is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that can be either secretory or non-secretory, while craniopharyngioma is a solid/cystic tumour of the sellar region that is derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the child assessment unit by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the child assessment unit by her father. She has been experiencing lower leg pain for over 3 weeks. He reports that she has been tripping more than usual but attributes it to her new carpet. Lately, she has been having difficulty getting out of bed and sometimes complains of feeling tired. The child appears to be in good health but has a runny nose. During the examination, she falls off the bed and lands on the floor. She uses her arms and legs to help herself up as she tries to stand.

      What is the observed sign in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Horner's sign

      Correct Answer: Gower's sign

      Explanation:

      Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy typically exhibit a positive Gower’s sign, which is due to weakness in the proximal muscles, particularly those in the lower limbs. This sign has a moderate sensitivity and high specificity. While idiopathic toe walking may also be present in DMD, it is more commonly associated with cerebral palsy and does not match the description in the given scenario. The Allis sign, also known as Galeazzi’s test, is utilized to evaluate for hip dislocation, primarily in cases of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Tinel’s sign is a method used to identify irritated nerves by tapping lightly over the nerve to elicit a sensation of tingling or ‘pins and needles’ in the nerve’s distribution.

      Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It connects the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy may also exhibit calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when they use their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that typically develops after the age of 10 years. It is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene, which preserves both binding sites. Intellectual impairment is much less common in individuals with Becker muscular dystrophy.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old male, John, visits his doctor with complaints of right-sided facial weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male, John, visits his doctor with complaints of right-sided facial weakness. He reports no other symptoms. Upon further examination and imaging, John is diagnosed with a unilateral parotid tumor. What cranial nerve lesion could be responsible for John's presentation?

      Your Answer: Lesion of left trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Extracranial lesion of right facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve palsy can be caused by a tumour in the parotid gland, which is an example of an extracranial lesion of the facial nerve.

      The facial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression, so any damage to the nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles. Although the trigeminal nerve does not pass through the parotid gland, the facial nerve does.

      When the facial nerve is affected outside of the cranium, it is considered an extracranial lesion. Since the parotid gland is located outside of the cranium, a tumour in this gland that causes facial nerve damage is classified as an extracranial lesion.

      An extracranial palsy on the same side as the lesion is caused by a parotid gland lesion. Therefore, June’s right-sided facial weakness indicates that she has an extracranial lesion of the right facial nerve.

      Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 19 - A young man comes to the clinic with difficulty forming meaningful sentences following...

    Correct

    • A young man comes to the clinic with difficulty forming meaningful sentences following treatment for a right middle cerebral artery infarction. He struggles to complete his sentences and frequently pauses while speaking. However, his comprehension of spoken language remains intact. The physician suspects a neurological origin. Which area of his brain is likely affected?

      Your Answer: Broca's area

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is experiencing Broca’s aphasia, which results in impaired language production but preserved comprehension. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, would result in impaired comprehension but preserved language production. Both Broca’s and Wernicke’s aphasia are typically caused by a stroke and affect areas in the left hemisphere, not involving the occipital lobe. Therefore, the options that suggest specific anatomical landmarks are incorrect.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old woman presents with profuse rectal bleeding leading to hemodynamic instability. Upper...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with profuse rectal bleeding leading to hemodynamic instability. Upper GI endoscopy shows no abnormalities, but a mesenteric angiogram reveals a contrast blush in the sigmoid colon region. The radiologist opts for vessel embolization. What is the spinal level at which the vessel exits the aorta?

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The left colon and sigmoid are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery, which departs from the aorta at the level of L3. The marginal artery serves as the link between the inferior mesenteric artery and the middle colic artery.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 21 - A 46-year-old man was in a car accident a week ago and suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man was in a car accident a week ago and suffered a concussion. He now experiences ongoing diplopia, which is more noticeable when looking down at a book or going downstairs. Upon examination, his right eye is rotated upwards and inwards, with limited movement in depression and adduction. Both pupils are equal and reactive. What is the probable cause of his diplopia?

      Your Answer: 3rd nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: 4th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      If you experience worsened vision while going down stairs, it may be a sign of 4th nerve palsy. This condition is characterized by limited depression and adduction of the eye, as well as persistent diplopia when looking down. It is often caused by head trauma, which can damage the long course of the trochlear nerve.

      People with 4th nerve palsy may tilt their heads away from the affected eye to compensate for the condition. This helps supply the superior oblique nerve, which aids in adduction and intorsion.

      Other conditions that can cause eye movement problems include 3rd nerve palsy, which may be caused by aneurysms or diabetes complications, and 6th nerve palsy, which prevents the affected eye from abducting. Horner syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, may also affect eye movement and is often associated with Pancoast tumors.

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old man visits an after-hours medical facility in the late evening with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits an after-hours medical facility in the late evening with a complaint of a severe headache that is focused around his left eye. He mentions experiencing haloes in his vision and difficulty seeing clearly. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and diabetes. During the examination, the sclera appears red, and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is an urgent ophthalmological emergency. They are experiencing a headache with unilateral eye pain, reduced vision, visual haloes, a red and congested eye with a cloudy cornea, and a dilated, unresponsive pupil. These symptoms may be triggered by darkness or dilating eye drops. Treatment should involve laying the patient flat to relieve angle pressure, administering pilocarpine eye drops to constrict the pupil, acetazolamide orally to reduce aqueous humour production, and providing analgesia. Referral to secondary care is necessary.

      It is important to differentiate this condition from other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. Central retinal vein occlusion, for example, would cause sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. Migraines typically involve a visual or somatosensory aura followed by a unilateral throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. Subarachnoid haemorrhages present with a sudden, severe headache, rather than a gradually worsening one accompanied by eye signs. Temporal arteritis may cause pain when chewing, difficulty brushing hair, and thickened temporal arteries visible on examination. However, the presence of a dilated, fixed pupil with conjunctival injection should steer the clinician away from a diagnosis of migraine.

      Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, haloes around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of vision changes, including deteriorating visual...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of vision changes, including deteriorating visual acuity, colour perception, and distorted images. After conducting tests, the diagnosis of dry age-related macular degeneration (Dry-AMD) is confirmed. What retinal sign is typical of Dry-AMD?

      Your Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Drusen, which are yellow deposits on the retina visible during fundoscopy, can indicate the severity of dry-AMD based on their distribution and quantity. Wet-AMD is more commonly associated with retinal hemorrhages and neovascularization. While painless vision loss can be caused by papilledema, this condition is typically linked to disorders that directly impact the optic disc.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of waking...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of waking up in the morning with a sudden loss of sensation on the left side of his body. He has a medical history of hypertension and reports no pain. There are no changes to his vision or hearing.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lacunar infarct

      Explanation:

      Hemisensory loss in this patient, along with a history of hypertension, is highly indicative of a lacunar infarct. Lacunar strokes are closely linked to hypertension.

      Facial pain on the same side and pain in the limbs and torso on the opposite side are typical symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome.

      Contralateral homonymous hemianopia is a common symptom of middle cerebral artery strokes.

      Lateral pontine syndrome is characterized by deafness on the same side as the lesion.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old male who has been newly diagnosed with giant cell arteritis presents...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male who has been newly diagnosed with giant cell arteritis presents with a positive relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) in his right eye during examination.

      What is the significance of RAPD in this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: The left and right eye appears to dilate when light is shone on the left eye

      Explanation:

      When there is a relative afferent pupillary defect, shining light on the affected eye causes both the affected and normal eye to appear to dilate. This occurs because there are differences in the afferent pathway between the two eyes, often due to retinal or optic nerve disease, which results in reduced constriction of both pupils when light is directed from the unaffected eye to the affected eye.

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.

      The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fall....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fall. She has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, and is a smoker with a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her family history includes high cholesterol in her father and older sister, who both passed away due to a heart attack.

      The patient denies any head trauma from the fall and has a regular pulse of 78 bpm. Upon conducting a full neurological examination, it is discovered that her left arm and left leg have a power of 3/5. Additionally, her smile is asymmetrical and droops on the left side.

      What is the most probable underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Emboli caused by atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Intracerebral haemorrhage is not the most probable cause of all strokes. Hence, it is crucial to conduct a CT head scan to eliminate the possibility of haemorrhagic stroke before initiating treatment.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A patient in their 50s complains of tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox following...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s complains of tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox following a fall. The tendons of the abductor pollicis longus are located along the radial (lateral) border of the anatomical snuffbox.

      What is the nerve that innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve supplies abductor pollicis longus, along with all the other extensor muscles of the forearm, including supinator. The main trunk of the radial nerve supplies triceps, anconeus, extensor carpi radialis, and brachioradialis. The anterior interosseous nerve supplies flexor digitorum profundus (radial half), flexor pollicis longus, and pronator quadratus. The median nerve supplies the LOAF muscles (lumbricals 1 and 2, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis). The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm has no motor innervation, and the ulnar nerve supplies most of the intrinsic muscles of the hand and two muscles of the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial flexor digitorum profundus.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old motorcyclist is seeking treatment at your clinic after a bike accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old motorcyclist is seeking treatment at your clinic after a bike accident that occurred 10 months ago. The patient suffered a significant pelvic fracture, which has since healed. However, he is worried about the persistent numbness in his right leg. During the examination, he experiences difficulty in adducting his right hip against resistance and has reduced sensation around the medial aspect of his right thigh. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Ilio-inguinal

      Correct Answer: Obturator

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing decreased sensation in the inner thigh and weakened adductor muscles, which are both controlled by the obturator nerve.

      Meanwhile, the femoral nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the front of the thigh, while the sciatic nerve is responsible for sensation in the back of the thigh.

      Additionally, the ilio-inguinal nerve is responsible for sensation in certain areas of the genital region, and the tibial nerve controls the movement of ankle muscles.

      Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve

      The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.

      The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.

      The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.

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  • Question 29 - A 15-year-old boy presents with diplopia and headache. Imaging reveals acute hydrocephalus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with diplopia and headache. Imaging reveals acute hydrocephalus and a space occupying lesion in the base of the 4th ventricle. What type of cell proliferation would be expected on biopsy?

      Your Answer: Astrocytes

      Correct Answer: Ependymal cells

      Explanation:

      Childhood tumours of the central nervous system (CNS) frequently develop at the base of the 4th ventricle. Oligodendrocytes are accountable for creating the myelin sheath in the CNS. The formation of the blood-brain barrier is a crucial function of astrocytes. Schwann cells are responsible for creating the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system.

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 30 - You are obtaining a medical history from a 60-year-old man who is currently...

    Incorrect

    • You are obtaining a medical history from a 60-year-old man who is currently admitted to the stroke ward. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolaemia and has experienced a myocardial infarction in the past. An MRI scan taken three days ago when he presented to the emergency department reveals ischaemia in the ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus.

      What area of the brain is most likely to have been impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Body sensation

      Explanation:

      The ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus plays a crucial role in processing body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Damage to the lateral portion of this nucleus, as seen in a thalamic stroke, can result in altered body sensation.

      Other areas of the thalamus are also responsible for processing different types of sensory information. The lateral geniculate nucleus is involved in visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus processes auditory signals. Damage to the medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus can affect facial sensation, and damage to the ventral anterior nucleus can impact motor function.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

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