-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man is admitted from the angiography suite after the cardiologist discovered severe triple vessel disease. He awaits transfer to a tertiary hospital for a coronary artery bypass graft. After 48 hours of admission, you receive a call to see him as he has become confused, sweaty, tremulous, and agitated.
Upon reviewing his record, you note a history of asthma, variceal bleed, and cirrhosis secondary to alcohol excess. His observations show a pyrexia at 37.9ºC, heart rate of 105 bpm, and blood pressure 175/98 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate immediate intervention given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pabrinex
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are effective treatments for delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can include confusion, agitation, tremors, hallucinations, and autonomic dysfunction such as high blood pressure, sweating, and fever.
Chlordiazepoxide is the most appropriate answer for this scenario. While confusion, sweating, and agitation can be signs of infection, the patient’s alcohol history suggests that delirium tremens is the more likely diagnosis. IV antibiotics would not address the primary issue of alcohol withdrawal. The patient’s high blood pressure also suggests that infection is not the cause of their symptoms.
Intravenous hydration may be necessary if the patient is experiencing excessive fluid loss due to sweating, but it would not be the best treatment for alcohol withdrawal in this case.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol due to a recent breakup with her partner. She expresses remorse for her actions, denies any suicidal thoughts, and requests to be discharged. Her parents and a friend arrive at the hospital soon after. Paracetamol levels at 4 hours are below the treatment limit.
What should be the next course of action in managing her case?Your Answer: Arrange review by mental health liaison team prior to discharge
Explanation:Importance of Mental Health Liaison Team Review Prior to Discharge for Paracetamol Overdose Patients
Paracetamol overdose is a common presentation of self-harm in emergency departments. While medical management is crucial, patients may also require mental health support. A hospital-based mental health liaison team can provide advice on discharge and arrange follow-up if necessary. Discharging a patient without follow-up increases the risk of further self-harm. However, temporary compulsory detention under the Mental Health Act is not appropriate for low-risk patients. Prescribing N-acetyl-L-cysteine is unnecessary if the paracetamol levels are below treatment threshold. Emergency admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit is only necessary for high-risk patients. Therefore, mental health liaison team review prior to discharge is crucial for appropriate management of paracetamol overdose patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
You are working in a GP surgery and your next patient is John, a 35-year-old man with a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). He is currently prescribed sertraline 200mg daily.
During the review of his symptoms today, John reports that he does not feel like the sertraline is helping, and he remains anxious almost all of the time. He experiences frequent episodes where he feels his heart pounding in his chest and his head is spinning. Additionally, he notes that he often struggles to get to sleep and can lie awake for hours at night.
As you observe John, he appears visibly distressed. He seems unable to sit still in his chair and is trembling slightly.
What would be the next step in John's management?Your Answer: Change the prescription to mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Change the prescription to duloxetine
Explanation:If sertraline is not effective or not well-tolerated in the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), an alternative SSRI or SNRI should be prescribed. In this case, duloxetine is the recommended option as it is an SNRI. Mirtazapine, although it has been shown to have an effect on anxiety symptoms, is not part of the NICE guidance for GAD treatment. Pregabalin may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate SSRI or SNRI treatment, but this is not yet necessary for Susan. Increasing the dose of sertraline is not an option as she is already on the maximum dose. Benzodiazepines should not be offered for the treatment of GAD except as a short-term measure during a crisis, according to NICE guidelines.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old is brought to the on-call psychiatry team at a hospital after being found wandering aimlessly on the streets. The patient had a breakdown in a local convenience store where they were caught stealing cigarettes and had a violent outburst when confronted by the store clerk. When asked about their behavior, they state that they do not care about the consequences of their actions and that they have stolen many times before. They also admit to enjoying hurting others in the past and have a history of animal cruelty. Although they report self-harming in the past, there are no visible scars.
Which of the following characteristics would be more indicative of a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder rather than borderline personality disorder?Your Answer: Concurrently low mood
Correct Answer: Male gender
Explanation:Men are more commonly affected by antisocial personality disorder, while borderline personality disorder is more frequently diagnosed in young women. However, there can be some overlap in the symptoms of both disorders, such as impulsivity. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by unstable emotions, fluctuating self-image, and recurrent thoughts of self-harm or suicide. On the other hand, antisocial personality disorder is marked by a repeated failure to follow social norms or rules, reckless behavior that endangers oneself and others, and a lack of remorse for these actions. If there are persistent mood changes or psychotic symptoms present, it may indicate a different primary diagnosis than a personality disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man is seen in the geriatric clinic for review. He has developed a symmetrical tremor and bradykinesia. His general practitioner is concerned that he may have developed Parkinson’s disease. He has a long medical history and is on various medications. You are concerned that his presentation may be related to a drug-induced effect, rather than a primary neurological disease.
Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?Your Answer: Gabapentin
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Drug-Induced Parkinsonism: Understanding the Effects of Common Medications
Drug-induced parkinsonism is a condition that can be caused by certain medications. One such medication is metoclopramide, which acts as a dopamine antagonist and can prevent dopamine from binding to receptors in the basal ganglia, leading to Parkinsonian-like symptoms. Other medications that can cause this condition include typical and atypical anti-psychotics, as well as certain antiemetics.
However, not all medications have this effect. Cyclizine, for example, is a H1-histamine receptor blocker and is not implicated in the development of drug-induced parkinsonism. Similarly, gabapentin, simvastatin, and tramadol are not known to cause this condition.
It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to differentiate between drug-induced parkinsonism and Parkinson’s disease, as the former can present with bilateral symptoms. By being aware of the effects of common medications, healthcare professionals can better manage their patients’ conditions and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman 25 weeks into her first pregnancy comes in with vaginal bleeding. What distinguishing characteristic would suggest a diagnosis of placenta praevia instead of placenta abruption?
Your Answer: Tender, tense uterus
Correct Answer: No pain
Explanation:Differentiating Placental Abruption from Placenta Praevia in Antepartum Haemorrhage
Antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of pregnancy but before delivery of the fetus. It is important to determine the cause of the bleeding to provide appropriate management. Two common causes of antepartum haemorrhage are placental abruption and placenta praevia.
Placental abruption is characterized by shock that is not proportional to the visible loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, a normal lie and presentation, and an absent or distressed fetal heart. Coagulation problems may also be present, and healthcare providers should be cautious of pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
On the other hand, placenta praevia is characterized by shock that is proportional to the visible loss, no pain, a uterus that is not tender, an abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before a large one. It is important to note that vaginal examination should not be performed in primary care for suspected antepartum haemorrhage, as women with placenta praevia may experience bleeding.
In summary, distinguishing between placental abruption and placenta praevia is crucial in managing antepartum haemorrhage. Healthcare providers should carefully assess the patient’s symptoms and perform appropriate diagnostic tests to determine the cause of the bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with complaints of lower back pain. He used to be an active soccer player but has had to give up due to the pain.
During the examination, there is no skin rash or history of gastrointestinal or genitourinary symptoms. The patient reports difficulty standing straight and walking in a stooped position for hours each morning before being able to stand up straight. Additionally, there is redness and pain around the right heel, and Schober's test is positive.
What abnormalities may be found on the patient's ECG?Your Answer: P-pulmonale
Correct Answer: A-V dissociation, deep S in V1 and tall R in V5
Explanation:Ankylosing Spondylitis and Cardiac Manifestations
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a systemic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. One of the extra-articular manifestations of AS is cardiac involvement, which can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation. Chronic aortic regurgitation can cause left ventricular hypertrophy, resulting in deep S in V1 and tall R in V5. A-V dissociation is the ECG manifestation of heart block. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death.
P-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, but it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension when the right atrium is enlarged. Pulmonary fibrosis, which can occur in AS, can theoretically lead to pulmonary hypertension and p-pulmonale. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur without any heart disease or in conditions such as atrial septal defect, ischemic heart disease, or pulmonary embolism.
In conclusion, AS is a systemic disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body, including the heart. Cardiac involvement can lead to heart block and aortic regurgitation, which can cause left ventricular hypertrophy. Mortality rates are higher in patients with AS, with circulatory disease being the most common cause of death. While p-pulmonale is not a typical manifestation of AS, it can occur in cases of pulmonary hypertension. Right bundle branch block is a non-specific ECG finding that can occur in various conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department after being referred by his primary care physician due to experiencing abdominal distension and difficulty passing stool or flatus for the past four days. The patient denies any nausea or vomiting, but reports irregular bowel movements with occasional bleeding and recent weight loss. During the examination, tinkling bowel sounds are heard and a digital rectal exam reveals the presence of hard feces. The patient also mentions that his mother had a history of recurrent bowel adhesions requiring multiple surgeries. What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Correct Answer: Large bowel obstruction
Explanation:The patient’s presentation suggests a large bowel obstruction, as indicated by the abdominal distension, inability to pass stool or flatus, and presence of hard faeces on digital rectal examination. The history of rectal bleeding and weight loss further support this diagnosis. Acute mesenteric ischemia is unlikely due to the absence of severe pain and nausea/vomiting. Paralytic ileus is a possibility, but the presence of bowel sounds suggests a mechanical obstruction. A small bowel obstruction is unlikely given the patient’s family history and lack of vomiting.
Understanding Large Bowel Obstruction
Large bowel obstruction occurs when the passage of food, fluids, and gas through the large intestines is blocked. The most common cause of this condition is a tumor, accounting for 60% of cases. Colonic malignancy is often the initial presenting complaint in approximately 30% of cases, particularly in more distal colonic and rectal tumors. Other causes include volvulus and diverticular disease.
Clinical features of large bowel obstruction include abdominal pain, distention, and absence of passing flatus or stool. Nausea and vomiting may suggest a more proximal lesion, while peritonism may be present if there is associated bowel perforation. It is important to consider the underlying causes, such as any recent symptoms suggestive of colorectal cancer.
Abdominal x-ray is still commonly used as a first-line investigation, with a diameter greater than the normal limits being diagnostic of obstruction. CT scan has a high sensitivity and specificity for identifying obstruction and its underlying cause.
Initial management includes NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Conservative management for up to 72 hours can be trialed if the cause of obstruction does not require surgery. Around 75% of cases will eventually require surgery. IV antibiotics will be given if perforation is suspected or surgery is planned. Emergency surgery is necessary if there is any overt peritonitis or evidence of bowel perforation, which may involve irrigation of the abdominal cavity, resection of perforated segment and ischaemic bowel, and addressing the underlying cause of the obstruction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
What was the life expectancy for a woman in the UK during the second decade of the twenty-first century, given the significant increase in life expectancy due to reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state over the past century?
Your Answer: 77–82 years
Explanation:The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for UK Men
At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a man in the UK was only 55 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, UK men now have an average life expectancy of 79.5 years according to the World Health Organization. This increase in life expectancy is truly remarkable and highlights the progress made in healthcare and social welfare over the past century.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives birth to a healthy baby girl. What treatment should be provided to the newborn?
Your Answer: Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and a further vaccine at 6 months
Explanation:When babies are born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive or are at high risk of developing hepatitis B, they should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth. Additionally, babies born to surface antigen positive mothers should receive 0.5 millilitres of hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. The second and third doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should be given at 1-2 months and 6 months, respectively.
Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention
During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a mother is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, it is important that her baby receives a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Currently, studies are being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.
There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the risk of vertical transmission of hepatitis B. However, it is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. It is crucial for pregnant women to undergo screening for hepatitis B to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. With proper prevention and treatment, the risk of transmission can be greatly reduced.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)