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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to the GP with episodes of dizziness that began two weeks ago. These episodes occur randomly but are worsened when he changes the position of his head. His most recent episode lasted longer than a day and was particularly uncomfortable, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. During a cranial nerve examination, the GP observes horizontal nystagmus. The patient denies experiencing any aural symptoms like tinnitus. When asked about his overall health, the patient reports having had a viral upper respiratory tract infection the previous week.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral labyrinthitis
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Horizontal nystagmus is a common symptom of vestibular neuronitis, which is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve. This condition typically presents with vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and balance problems, but doesn’t cause hearing loss as the cochlear nerve is not affected. The presence of horizontal nystagmus helps to rule out a central cause of vertigo, such as a stroke.
Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, is characterized by a tumor that compresses the eighth cranial nerve, leading to symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. Meniere’s disease is another condition that causes sudden episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, but also involves a sensation of fullness in the ears due to an abnormal amount of endolymph in the inner ear. However, the absence of tinnitus in the patient in the vignette makes these diagnoses less likely.
A posterior circulation stroke can also cause nystagmus, vertigo, and nausea, but these symptoms typically come on suddenly and are accompanied by ataxia, unilateral limb weakness, and an altered mental state. In addition, a central cause of vertigo would result in vertical nystagmus rather than horizontal nystagmus.
Viral labyrinthitis is similar to vestibular neuronitis, but is more likely to cause hearing loss and tinnitus. In vestibular neuronitis, only the vestibular nerve is affected, while hearing is spared.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman urgently presented with a three-hour history of severe headache and diplopia.
Examination revealed her left eye to be 'down and out' on primary gaze, with a dilated left pupil.
What would be the best next step in managing this woman's condition?Your Answer: Refer to a neurosurgeon urgently
Explanation:Warning Signs of a Berry Aneurysm
The presence of severe headache and diplopia, accompanied by a dilated pupil and a misaligned eye on primary gaze, should raise concerns about a berry aneurysm located around the posterior communicating artery of the Circle of Willis. This condition requires immediate referral to a neurosurgeon for appropriate intervention. Once the danger phase has passed, the diplopia can be managed accordingly.
It is important to recognize the warning signs of a berry aneurysm, as this condition can be life-threatening if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Correct
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A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.
Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?Your Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
Explanation:When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children
Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.
It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the surgery complaining of a productive cough. Upon examination, he has a fever and bronchial breathing in the right lower zone. The working diagnosis is pneumonia and amoxicillin is prescribed with a chest x-ray scheduled for the following day. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone (20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?
Your Answer: Continue to take the same dose
Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40 mg mornings and 20 mg afternoon
Explanation:Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a routine medical check-up. He is in good health but has a history of sickle cell disease. According to his immunisation record, he received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine five years ago.
What is the recommended frequency for administering this vaccine to him?Your Answer: Every 5 years
Explanation:Individuals with sickle cell disease should be administered the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years to prevent pneumococcal infections, as they are at a heightened risk due to the hypofunction of their spleen caused by recurrent splenic infarction. Children should receive their first vaccine at 2 years of age, followed by subsequent doses every 5 years.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 who has recently discovered she is expecting. She has a medical history of epilepsy, familial hypercholesterolaemia, type 2 diabetes, and sciatica.
During her pregnancy, which medications should Sarah discontinue taking?Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Statin therapy should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks. However, paracetamol is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Lamotrigine is preferred over other anti-epileptics due to a lower risk of neurodevelopmental effects on the foetus, but all pregnant women on anti-epileptics should take 5mg folic acid before conception and during the first trimester. Metformin and insulin are commonly used to treat diabetes during pregnancy. It is important to note that all statins should be avoided during pregnancy as they have been associated with congenital anomalies.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has recently joined the practice after moving with his job from another region. He reports experiencing deteriorating vision and struggles with mobility, particularly at night. He was previously diagnosed with retinitis pigmentosa. During the examination, he wears thick glasses, and his visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes (meaning he can read most of the Snellen chart). What is the most suitable management option? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Register him as partially sight-impaired
Correct Answer: Refer to Ophthalmology for an assessment
Explanation:Understanding Retinitis Pigmentosa: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Retinitis pigmentosa is a hereditary condition that affects the photoreceptor and retinal pigment epithelium, leading to impaired night vision, constricted visual fields, and reduced visual acuity. The condition typically manifests between the ages of 10 and 30, with retinal hyperpigmentation in a bone-spicule configuration being a characteristic finding. While there is currently no cure for retinitis pigmentosa, referral to an ophthalmologist is advisable to monitor for exacerbating factors such as cataract, glaucoma, and cystic macular edema. It is important to note that peripheral vision is lost first, and any loss of central vision tends to occur later. Patients may be registered as partially sighted and put in touch with social services for low visual aids. Optometrists may not be able to improve vision beyond the best possible with lenses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents with dyspepsia and is found to have a gastric ulcer and H. pylori infection on endoscopy. He undergoes H. pylori eradication therapy but continues to experience symptoms six weeks later. What is the best test to confirm eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. A stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable substitute.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the doctor by his wife because of a 2-week history of increasing confusion. He has advanced prostate cancer. He reports constipation, passing urine more frequently and feeling nauseous. He has no signs of infection, and urine testing is negative. He is taking ibuprofen and paracetamol for backache and receives gonadorelin analogue injections for his cancer, but takes no other medications. The clinical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's clinical presentation?Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment Options
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including constipation, nausea, polyuria, confusion, depression, lethargy, weakness, and bone pain. In chronic cases, hypercalcaemia can lead to the formation of renal stones. If left untreated, calcium levels greater than 3.5 mmol/l can cause renal failure and arrhythmias.
The treatment of hypercalcaemia involves identifying and removing the underlying causes, rehydration, and, if necessary, the use of bisphosphonates. In cases where primary hyperparathyroidism is the cause, surgical treatment may be necessary.
In summary, hypercalcaemia is a serious medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist.
What is an example of a medication that falls under the category of muscarinic antagonist?Your Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act due to a decline in his mental health. During his inpatient stay, it was decided that Clozapine would be the most appropriate Antipsychotic for him and he was started on this medication. After his mental state stabilized, he was transferred to a rehabilitation unit. However, it was discovered that he had missed his Clozapine doses for two consecutive days. What is the recommended course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?
Your Answer: To continue Clozapine at the current dose & request a Clozapine plasma level assay
Correct Answer: Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly
Explanation:If a patient misses their clozapine doses for more than 48 hours, they will need to slowly restart their dose as if they were starting the medication for the first time. This process should be supervised by a Psychiatrist. Restarting clozapine after a break of more than 48 hours can exacerbate side effects such as changes in blood pressure, drowsiness, and dizziness. If the treatment gap exceeds 72 hours, the patient may require more frequent blood tests for a brief period.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with schizophrenia becomes highly agitated while shopping in a supermarket and begins to yell and hurl canned goods off the shelves. The authorities are promptly notified. Which section of the Mental Health Act can be utilized?
Your Answer: Section 136
Explanation:If a person with a mental health condition poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, they can be assessed under the Mental Health Act. Section 136 of the Act permits the police to detain the individual at their current location or take them to a safe place, such as their home or a police station, if they refuse to cooperate.
During this time, the patient should undergo a formal mental health assessment. The Section 136 detention lasts for 24 hours, but it can be extended for an additional 12 hours. After this period, the patient may either be discharged or transferred to a different section of the Mental Health Act.
Understanding Sectioning under the Mental Health Act
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse to be admitted voluntarily for mental health treatment. This process involves different sections, each with its own set of rules and regulations.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP, along with two doctors who have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is a 72-hour assessment order used in emergencies when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for 72 hours, while Section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a, also known as Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order), can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety, while Section 136 allows the police to take someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to a Place of Safety for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the legal process of sectioning and ensure that they receive the necessary treatment and support for their mental health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
Select the single most suitable preparation for her to apply.Your Answer: Coal tar lotion 1%
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Treatment of Facial Psoriasis: Precautions and Options
When it comes to treating psoriasis on the face, it is important to keep in mind that the skin in this area is particularly sensitive. While various preparations can be used, some may cause irritation, staining, or other unwanted effects. For instance, calcipotriol can irritate the skin, betamethasone can lead to skin atrophy, and coal tar and dithranol can cause staining. Therefore, milder options are typically preferred, such as hydrocortisone or clobetasone butyrate. These may also be combined with an agent that is effective against Candida for flexural psoriasis.
It is important to note that corticosteroids should only be used for a limited time (1-2 weeks per month) to treat facial psoriasis. If short-term moderate potency corticosteroids do not provide satisfactory results or if continuous treatment is needed, a calcineurin inhibitor such as pimecrolimus cream or tacrolimus ointment may be used for up to 4 weeks. However, it is worth noting that these options do not have a license for this particular indication. Overall, caution and careful consideration of the options are key when treating psoriasis on the face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal pain. He has had this issue before and has treated it with over-the-counter remedies. He sometimes experiences food sticking. He smokes 20 cigarettes daily. During the examination, there is some epigastric tenderness, but only upon deep palpation. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Lifestyle advice with a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)
Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease with Red-Flag Symptom
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a common condition that can be managed with lifestyle advice and medication. However, when red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia are present, urgent investigation is necessary to rule out oesophageal cancer.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends urgent direct-access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within two weeks for people with dysphagia. Long-term reflux disease may lead to Barrett’s oesophagus, which requires surveillance endoscopy every two years.
Lifestyle advice is a key element in managing GORD, including weight loss, alcohol and smoking cessation, small regular meals, avoiding food and hot drinks before bedtime, and raising the head of the bed at night. Antacids are available over the counter but are not sufficient for red-flag symptoms. H2-antagonists are not the first-line treatment for reflux disease, and proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are more effective in relieving heartburn.
For a new episode of reflux disease, a full dose of PPI is given for a month, and the dose is stepped down or a low-dose PPI is used for recurrent symptoms as required. PPIs are highly effective in symptom relief, but urgent endoscopy is necessary for red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia.
In summary, the management of GORD involves lifestyle advice and medication, but red-flag symptoms require urgent investigation to rule out oesophageal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter into surgery complaining that she is having trouble passing urine. She describes 'ballooning' of the labia when she urinates. She doesn't complain of any pain, is well in herself and has no past medical history. You examine her and find that her labia doesn't separate. What is the next most appropriate plan of management?
Your Answer: Same day referral to paediatric surgeons
Correct Answer: Expectant approach and reassure
Explanation:Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment
Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment may be necessary.
It is important to note that treatment should only be considered in cases where the child is experiencing discomfort or complications. Forcing the foreskin to retract can cause pain and damage to the penis, so it is best to wait and monitor the situation. If the child is experiencing symptoms, a doctor should be consulted to determine the best course of action. With proper care and attention, most cases of phimosis can be resolved without the need for medical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her worried parent who has observed a significant space between her ankles and is anxious as her knees seem to be close together while standing. The parent mentions that the girl has a balanced diet and gets enough exposure to sunlight and is healthy otherwise.
What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer: Reassure the parent that knock knees are a usual variant and usually resolve by the age of 15 years
Correct Answer: Reassure the parent that knock knees are a usual variant and usually resolve by the age of 8 years
Explanation:Genu valgum, commonly known as knock knees, is a typical condition that typically resolves on its own by the age of 8 years. As such, there is no need to refer the patient to an orthopaedic clinic or provide specific physiotherapy. Supportive shoes or leg braces are not recommended.
Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children
Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.
One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.
Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.
Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.
In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?
Your Answer: doesn't improve with tonsillectomy
Correct Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction
Explanation:Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A child presents with an inability to swallow, a ‘hot potato’ voice and an asymmetrical tonsillitis.
What is the most effective treatment?Your Answer: Drainage of abscess
Explanation:Treatment for Quinsy: Drainage, Antibiotics, and Corticosteroids
Quinsy, also known as peritonsillar abscess, is a serious complication of tonsillitis that requires urgent treatment. Symptoms include a displaced uvula, enlarged oropharynx, and a hot potato voice. The recommended treatment involves drainage of the abscess via needle and scalpel incision, followed by antibiotics such as penicillin, cephalosporins, co-amoxiclav, or clindamycin. In some cases, intravenous corticosteroids may also be beneficial. Watchful waiting is not recommended, as the infection can spread and lead to serious complications. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent aspiration, airway obstruction, and other life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 19
Correct
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An overweight 62-year-old woman presents with a two-day history of an acutely painful, tender right knee associated with erythema and a temperature of 37.7°C. She is usually well and suffers only from hypertension, for which she takes bendroflumethiazide. She admits to drinking 20 units of alcohol per week. There is nothing else of significance in the medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gout
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful and Swollen Knee
When a patient presents with a painful and swollen knee, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, gout is a likely possibility, especially given the patient’s weight, alcohol consumption, and use of a diuretic. Gout typically causes severe pain, tenderness, and redness in the affected joint, and can be accompanied by fever and leukocytosis. Aspiration of joint fluid can help distinguish gout from septic arthritis, which is another possible diagnosis. Haemarthrosis, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis are less likely causes, as they present differently and have different associated symptoms. Septic arthritis is also a possibility, but is typically associated with fever, impaired range of motion, and other symptoms. Overall, a thorough evaluation and consideration of all possible diagnoses is necessary to properly diagnose and treat a painful and swollen knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.
On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.
The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?Your Answer: The patient can return to daycare immediately because he feels well
Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare
Explanation:Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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You are conducting an annual health check on a 65-year-old female patient who has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She takes ramipril in the morning and metformin twice a day, and has made lifestyle modifications including dietary changes. Her HbA1C level is 53 mmol/mol. When should a second medication be considered in combination with metformin to lower her HbA1c?
Your Answer: If the HbA1c is greater than 58 mmol/mol
Explanation:To intensify the drug treatment for this patient, a second agent should be added if her HbA1c level reaches 58 mmol/mol. It is recommended to advise adults with type 2 diabetes to maintain their HbA1c level below their target if they are not experiencing hypoglycaemia.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and difficulty moving for the past three days. She denies any chest or abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, sweating, or fever. This patient is known to be a private individual and can be difficult to deal with. She has no family except for a daughter whom she has not spoken to in 20 years. On examination, she appears pale and mildly short of breath, with crackles at both lung bases and an intermittent ventricular gallop. Her blood pressure is 126/70 mm Hg sitting and 119/65 mmHg standing. Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 90 g/L, plasma glucose of 5.3 mmol/L, urea of 7 mmol/L, serum creatinine of 100 µmol/L, sodium of 135 mmol/L, potassium of 4.0 mmol/L, and bicarbonate of 24 mmol/L. Despite your recommendation for hospital admission, she refuses and asks that you not contact her daughter. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe furosemide, 40 mg orally, and visit her again the next day
Explanation:Managing Heart Failure Related Peripheral Oedema in Primary Care
This patient is not incompetent and has clearly expressed her wishes, which should be respected. She has requested that her daughter not be contacted. Additionally, a physical examination has revealed heart failure, likely exacerbated by her anaemia. The most appropriate initial therapy would be diuretics, which should be prescribed and the patient closely monitored. While hospitalization may be suggested, it is important to approach this with sensitivity and attempt to gain the patient’s agreement. In managing heart failure related peripheral oedema in primary care, it is crucial to prioritize patient autonomy and provide appropriate medical interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high blood pressure. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 142/88 mmHg and you believe that he requires a higher level of treatment. The patient's blood test results are as follows: Serum Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144), Serum Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Creatinine 75 µmol/L (60-110). Based on the most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136), what would be your next course of action?
Your Answer: Add prazosin
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
Managing hypertension is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s role, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the latest NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136). Step 4 of the guidelines recommends seeking expert advice or adding low-dose spironolactone if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/l, and an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker if the blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/l. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled on optimal tolerated doses of four drugs, expert advice should be sought.
It is important to note that hypertension management is a topic that may be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. Therefore, it is crucial to have a good understanding of the NICE guidelines on hypertension to perform well in the exam. By following the guidelines, general practitioners can provide optimal care to their patients with hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.
The neurologist decides to observe him off treatment but two months later he has another seizure.
What percentage of people who have two seizures will go on to have a third if they do not receive any treatment?Your Answer: >90%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Likelihood of Successive Seizures
Once a person experiences a second seizure, there is a high probability that they will have a third event, with around 75% of untreated individuals experiencing this. As a result, it is crucial to consider treatment options at this stage. This question aims to test a candidate’s understanding of the likelihood of successive seizures by providing broad ranges of percentages. This knowledge is essential for GPs who often counsel patients on their management and need to make informed decisions about whether to escalate treatment based on the likelihood of recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went smoothly. She reports feeling fine and has no issues to report. During the examination, linear, clearly defined abrasions are observed on her forearms and scalp. The patient appears unconcerned about these lesions and has a history of severe anxiety and depression. A punch biopsy is performed, which reveals nonspecific results.
What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern from the patient may indicate dermatitis artefacta, a condition where the lesions are self-inflicted. A punch biopsy has ruled out other potential causes, and the patient’s history of psychiatric disorders supports this diagnosis. Atopic dermatitis is a possibility, but typically presents with additional symptoms such as pruritus and scaly erythematous plaques. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma cannot be ruled out without a biopsy, and lichen planus is unlikely due to the patient’s lack of distress from pruritus.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man mentions that he has a family history of glaucoma. Which from the list is most likely to give evidence of primary open-angle glaucoma?
Your Answer: Examination of pupillary responses
Correct Answer: Visual field testing
Explanation:Visual Field Testing for Glaucoma
Primary open-angle (chronic) glaucoma is a condition that often goes undetected, with up to 50% of cases remaining unnoticed. By the time symptoms arise, up to 90% of optic nerve fibers may have already been irreversibly damaged. However, routine optician checks can help identify abnormal discs, raised intraocular pressure, or reduced visual fields, which are all potential indicators of glaucoma.
Visual field testing is a crucial tool in detecting glaucoma. Perimetry machines objectively document what a patient perceives in their peripheral vision. This is more reliable than simple field testing, such as moving wiggling fingers or the end of a hatpin across each quadrant towards the center of the eye.
Other tests, such as examination of pupillary responses, cover tests, and palpation of the eyes for hardness, are not reliable indicators of glaucoma. Visual acuity testing is also not a reliable indicator, as visual field loss from glaucoma typically spares fixation and visual acuity is preserved until the condition is advanced.
In conclusion, visual field testing is a crucial tool in detecting glaucoma, and routine optician checks can help identify potential indicators of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Olive is 12 weeks pregnant. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners for the past 6 months and is concerned about the potential impact of a sexually transmitted infection on her unborn child. Which of the following STIs is typically included in the antenatal screening program in the UK?
Your Answer: Chlamydia
Correct Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:During the booking visit for prenatal care, healthcare providers typically test for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can have serious consequences for the mother and/or the developing fetus. These include syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV. Testing for hepatitis C is usually only done for women who are at high risk, such as those who use intravenous drugs. Other STIs, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, trichomonas, bacterial vaginosis, genital herpes, and genital warts, are not routinely tested for during pregnancy unless the patient has symptoms or is considered to be at risk. It is important to identify and treat STIs during pregnancy to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently been initiated on insulin therapy. He has a history of a heart attack 3 years ago and is currently taking a beta-blocker, calcium channel blocker, ace-inhibitor, statin, and GTN-spray. Which of his medications may cause a decreased recognition of hypoglycemic symptoms after starting insulin treatment?
Your Answer: Beta-blocker
Explanation:Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.
Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a follow-up on her Antihypertensive medication. She is currently prescribed bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily and atenolol 50 mg daily for her hypertension, and atorvastatin for her dyslipidaemia. She also has a history of gout. What is a commonly known side effect of bendroflumethiazide?
Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Thiazides: Risks and Adverse Effects
Thiazides are a type of medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure and edema. However, they are associated with several adverse effects. One of the most common is metabolic alkalosis, which occurs when the body’s pH becomes too alkaline. Thiazides can also cause hypokalaemia, a condition where there is a low level of potassium in the blood, and hypercalcaemia, where there is too much calcium in the blood.
Another potential risk of thiazides is an increase in insulin resistance, which can lead to type 2 diabetes. Meta-analyses have shown that combining thiazides with beta-blockers may further increase this risk. Additionally, thiazides are known to precipitate gout, a painful form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints.
Hypertriglyceridaemia, a condition where there are high levels of triglycerides in the blood, is also associated with hyperuricaemia, which is an excess of uric acid in the blood. Thiazides can exacerbate this condition, leading to an increased risk of gout. It is important to be aware of these potential risks and to discuss them with a healthcare provider before starting thiazide therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 30
Correct
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A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) test returns positive. On examination, he is feeling well with no signs of liver disease. He has no other comorbidities.
What is the most important next test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Explanation:Common Tests for Hepatitis C and Co-Infections
Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several tests available to diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as to screen for co-infections with other viruses. Here are some of the most common tests used:
1. HCV RNA: This test detects the presence of HCV ribonucleic acid in the blood, which is the most sensitive way to diagnose HCV infection. It can detect the virus within 1-2 weeks after infection and can confirm ongoing infection if antibodies are positive.
2. HBV DNA: This test measures the amount of hepatitis B virus deoxyribonucleic acid in the blood, which can help monitor the viral load of hepatitis B. Since HBV and HCV can coexist, it’s important to screen for both viruses.
3. Anti-HIV antibodies: HIV and HCV share many of the same risk factors, so patients with HCV should be screened for HIV. However, it’s important to first confirm the diagnosis of HCV before testing for HIV.
4. AST and ALT: These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the liver is damaged, which can indicate HCV infection. However, they are nonspecific and cannot confirm a diagnosis on their own.
5. IgM anti-HAV: This test detects recent infection with hepatitis A, which can coexist with HCV. However, confirming the diagnosis of HCV is the first priority.
Overall, these tests can help diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as screen for co-infections with other viruses. It’s important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best testing strategy for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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