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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing to investigate possible...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing to investigate possible COPD. The clinician observes that his breathing appears to be shallow even at rest.

      What specific lung volume would accurately describe the clinician's observation?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume (TV)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.1
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  • Question 2 - Which one of the following is not a cause of increased anion gap...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a cause of increased anion gap acidosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Causes of anion gap acidosis can be remembered using the acronym MUDPILES, which stands for Methanol, Uraemia, DKA/AKA, Paraldehyde/phenformin, Iron/INH, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, and Salicylates.

      Disorders of Acid-Base Balance

      The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.8
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  • Question 3 - A patient on the medical ward was waiting for a cardiac procedure. On...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on the medical ward was waiting for a cardiac procedure. On discussing the procedure with the consultant before the procedure, the patient started to feel anxious and had difficulty breathing. The resident obtained an arterial blood gas:

      pH 7.55
      pCO2 2.7kPa
      pO2 11.2kPa
      HCO3 24mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The respiratory alkalosis observed in the arterial blood gas results is most likely a result of hyperventilation, as indicated by the patient’s medical history.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach

      Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).

      The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.

      To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      82.6
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman is undergoing consent for a thyroidectomy due to failed medical...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is undergoing consent for a thyroidectomy due to failed medical treatment for Grave's disease. Radioiodine was not an option as she is the sole caregiver for her three young children. During the consent process, she is informed of the potential complications of thyroidectomy, including the risk of injury to the sensory branch of the superior laryngeal nerve. Can you identify which nerve branches off from the superior laryngeal nerve and is responsible for sensory function?

      Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The superior laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve, has two branches: the external laryngeal nerve, which is a motor nerve, and the internal laryngeal nerve, which is a sensory nerve. The recurrent laryngeal nerve, also a branch of the vagus nerve, supplies all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscles.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      39.6
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old female patient visits your clinic complaining of hearing loss. According to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits your clinic complaining of hearing loss. According to her, her hearing has been declining for about two years, with her left ear being worse than the right. She struggles to hear her partner when he is on her left side. Additionally, she has been experiencing tinnitus in her left ear for a year. She mentions that her mother also has hearing difficulties and uses hearing aids on both ears. During the examination, the Rinne test shows a negative result on the left and a positive result on the right. On the other hand, the Weber test indicates that the sound is louder on the left. What is the probable impairment?

      Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss on the right.

      Correct Answer: Conductive hearing loss on the left.

      Explanation:

      Based on the results of the Weber and Rinne tests, the patient in the question is likely experiencing conductive hearing loss on the left side. The Weber test revealed that the patient hears sound better on the left side, which could indicate a conductive hearing loss or sensorineural hearing loss on the right side. However, the Rinne test was negative on the left side, indicating a conductive hearing loss. This is further supported by the patient’s reported symptoms of hearing loss in the left ear. This presentation, along with a family history of hearing loss, suggests a possible diagnosis of otosclerosis, a condition that affects the stapes bone and can lead to severe or total hearing loss.

      Understanding the Different Causes of Deafness

      Deafness can be caused by various factors, with ear wax, otitis media, and otitis externa being the most common. However, there are other conditions that can lead to hearing loss, each with its own characteristic features. Presbycusis, for instance, is age-related sensorineural hearing loss that often makes it difficult for patients to follow conversations. Otosclerosis, on the other hand, is an autosomal dominant condition that replaces normal bone with vascular spongy bone, causing conductive deafness, tinnitus, and a flamingo tinge in the tympanic membrane. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss in children, while Meniere’s disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Drug ototoxicity, noise damage, and acoustic neuroma are other factors that can lead to deafness.

      Understanding the different causes of deafness is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition. By knowing the characteristic features of each condition, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate interventions to help patients manage their hearing loss. It is also important for individuals to protect their hearing by avoiding exposure to loud noises and seeking medical attention when they experience any symptoms of hearing loss. With proper care and management, people with deafness can still lead fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      76.6
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  • Question 6 - During a radical neck dissection, at what age would division of which of...

    Correct

    • During a radical neck dissection, at what age would division of which of the following fascial layers expose the ansa cervicalis?

      Your Answer: Pretracheal fascia

      Explanation:

      To access the ansa cervicalis, one must cut through the pretracheal fascia on the posterolateral side of the thyroid gland. This nerve is located in front of the carotid sheath. However, it should be noted that the pre vertebral fascia is situated further back and cannot be reached by dividing the investing layer of fascia.

      The ansa cervicalis is a nerve that provides innervation to the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid muscles. It is composed of two roots: the superior root, which branches off from C1 and is located anterolateral to the carotid sheath, and the inferior root, which is derived from the C2 and C3 roots and passes posterolateral to the internal jugular vein. The inferior root enters the inferior aspect of the strap muscles, which are located in the neck, and should be divided in their upper half when exposing a large goitre. The ansa cervicalis is situated in front of the carotid sheath and is an important nerve for the proper functioning of the neck muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      65.3
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  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early treatment, an arterial blood gas is taken, which shows the following results.

      ABG result - temperature 35.0 ÂșC:

      pH 7.30 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaCO2 3.5 kPa (4.7 - 6.0)
      PaO2 10 kPa (11 - 13)
      HCO3- 16 mEq/L (22 - 26)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      What physiological change is occurring in this patient?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis is causing a decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen

      Explanation:

      In acidosis, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right, indicating a decrease in affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. This is due to an increase in the number of [H+] ions, reflecting greater metabolic activity. Low [H+] levels cause a shift to the left. The low HCO3- in this patient can be explained by metabolic acidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. Hypokalaemia may be a result of treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. When temperature increases, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve also shifts to the right, causing a decrease in haemoglobin affinity for oxygen. Hypothermia causes a shift to the left, indicating an increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      16.4
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  • Question 8 - A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her wrist and small joints of the hand. She mentioned that her joints felt stiff in the morning but improved throughout the day. The doctor prescribed glucocorticoids and methotrexate, which helped alleviate her symptoms. After a year, she returned to her doctor with a dry cough and shortness of breath that had been bothering her for a month. She denied any recent weight loss or coughing up blood. She is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol moderately. The woman has no significant medical or surgical history and has been a homemaker while her husband works in a shipyard. Her father died of a heart attack at the age of 77. What is the most likely finding on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Central bronchial opacity around the hilar region

      Correct Answer: Intrapulmonary nodules

      Explanation:

      1. Caplan syndrome is a condition characterized by intrapulmonary nodules found peripherally and bilaterally in individuals with both pneumoconiosis and rheumatoid arthritis. The immune system changes associated with rheumatoid arthritis are thought to affect the body’s response to coal dust particles, leading to the development of nodules.
      2. A normal chest X-ray does not rule out the possibility of underlying respiratory disease. If there is a high clinical suspicion, further investigation should be pursued to confirm or rule out potential diagnoses, such as asthma.
      3. Chronic obstructive respiratory disease, which includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema, is characterized by hyperinflated lungs and a flattened diaphragm on chest X-ray. This is due to the loss of elastic recoil in the lungs and airway obstruction caused by inflammation of the bronchi.
      4. Silicosis is a restrictive lung disease that develops in individuals exposed to silica, such as sandblasters and those working in silica mines. Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes is a characteristic finding on chest X-ray.
      5. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lungs, a non-small cell type of lung cancer, is associated with a central bronchial opacity around the hilar region on chest X-ray. This type of cancer is more common in smokers and may be accompanied by hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome.

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      41.6
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  • Question 9 - Sophie, a 4-year-old patient with Down's syndrome, is brought to the general practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 4-year-old patient with Down's syndrome, is brought to the general practitioner by her father. He is worried as Sophie has been crying more than usual and has started holding her right ear. She is diagnosed with acute bacterial otitis media.

      What is the most probable bacteria responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae is a frequent culprit behind bacterial otitis media, a common ear infection.

      The majority of cases of acute bacterial otitis media are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, or Moraxella.

      Genital gonorrhoeae is caused by N. gonorrhoeae, a sexually transmitted infection that presents with discharge and painful urination.

      Meningococcal sepsis, a life-threatening condition, is caused by N. meningitides.

      Staph. aureus is responsible for superficial skin infections like impetigo.

      Syphilis, which typically manifests as a painless genital sore called a chancre, is caused by T. pallidum.

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no personal or family history of lung issues and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests.

      Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis can be diagnosed through various methods, including chest radiography, histopathology, and pulmonary function tests.

      Chest radiography can reveal thickened bronchial walls, cystic lesions with fluid levels, collapsed areas with crowded pulmonary vasculature, and scarring, which are characteristic features of bronchiectasis.

      Histopathology, which is a more invasive investigation often done through autopsy or surgery, can show irreversible dilation of bronchial airways and bronchial wall thickening.

      However, high-resolution computerised tomography is a more favorable imaging technique as it is less invasive than histopathology.

      Pulmonary function tests are commonly used to diagnose bronchiectasis, but they should be used in conjunction with other investigations as they are not sensitive or specific enough to provide sufficient diagnostic evidence on their own. An obstructive pattern is the most common pattern encountered, but a restrictive pattern is also possible.

      Understanding the Causes of Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic inflammation or infection. There are various factors that can lead to this condition, including post-infective causes such as tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, and pneumonia. Cystic fibrosis, bronchial obstruction caused by lung cancer or foreign bodies, and immune deficiencies like selective IgA and hypogammaglobulinaemia can also contribute to bronchiectasis. Additionally, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), ciliary dyskinetic syndromes like Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome, and yellow nail syndrome are other potential causes. Understanding the underlying causes of bronchiectasis is crucial in developing effective treatment plans for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (2/8) 25%
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