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  • Question 1 - A man in his 50s arrives at the emergency department exhibiting signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his 50s arrives at the emergency department exhibiting signs of a stroke. After undergoing a CT angiogram, it is revealed that there is a constriction in the artery that provides blood to the right common carotid.

      What is the name of the affected artery?

      Your Answer: Right subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic artery

      Explanation:

      The largest branch from the aortic arch is the brachiocephalic artery, which originates from it. This artery gives rise to both the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid arteries. The brachiocephalic artery is supplied by the aortic arch, while the coronary arteries are supplied by the ascending aorta. Additionally, the coeliac trunk is a branch that stems from the abdominal aorta.

      The Brachiocephalic Artery: Anatomy and Relations

      The brachiocephalic artery is the largest branch of the aortic arch, originating at the apex of the midline. It ascends superiorly and posteriorly to the right, lying initially anterior to the trachea and then on its right-hand side. At the level of the sternoclavicular joint, it divides into the right subclavian and right common carotid arteries.

      In terms of its relations, the brachiocephalic artery is anterior to the sternohyoid, sterno-thyroid, thymic remnants, left brachiocephalic vein, and right inferior thyroid veins. Posteriorly, it is related to the trachea, right pleura, right lateral, right brachiocephalic vein, superior part of the SVC, left lateral, thymic remnants, origin of left common carotid, inferior thyroid veins, and trachea at a higher level.

      The brachiocephalic artery typically has no branches, but it may have the thyroidea ima artery. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the brachiocephalic artery is important for medical professionals, as it is a crucial vessel in the human body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A couple in their late 30s come to the clinic seeking information about...

    Correct

    • A couple in their late 30s come to the clinic seeking information about the risk of their three children inheriting Huntington's disease. The husband has recently been diagnosed with the disease, while the wife is not affected. What is the likelihood, expressed as a percentage, that their children will inherit the disease?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically appears later in life and is characterized by symptoms such as chorea, cognitive decline, and personality changes. It is an autosomal dominant disease, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing it on to offspring. If the gene is inherited from an unaffected parent, the child will not be affected. This is different from autosomal recessive inheritance, where both parents must pass on the gene for it to affect their children.

      The disease is caused by an increase in the length of a repeating trinucleotide sequence (CAG) in the Huntington protein. This sequence can change in length through generations, and longer sequences are associated with earlier onset of symptoms (genetic anticipation). Since Huntington’s disease usually presents itself after people have already started their families, there are many issues associated with genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is rushed to the operating room for an urgent laparotomy. During the procedure, it is discovered that the affected portion of the bowel extends from the splenic flexure of the colon to the rectum. Can you determine the vertebral level at which the obstructed artery branches off from the aorta?

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The hindgut, which is a segment of the gut, receives its blood supply from the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery originates from the aorta at the L3 vertebrae.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who is worried about his facial expressions. The boy has been experiencing difficulty using the muscles in his face for the past month. He also reports weakness in his arms, but no pain.

      During the examination, the GP observes that the boy's facial muscles are weak, he struggles to puff out his cheeks, and has difficulty raising his arms in the classroom. Additionally, the boy has abnormally large gastrocnemius muscles and his scapulae are 'winged'.

      Which nerve is responsible for innervating the muscle that prevents the scapulae from forming a 'winged' position?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The Serratus Anterior Muscle and its Innervation

      The serratus anterior muscle is a muscle that originates from the first to eighth ribs and inserts along the entire medial border of the scapulae. Its main function is to protract the scapula, allowing for anteversion of the upper limb. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, which receives innervation from roots C5-C7 of the brachial plexus.

      Based on the patient’s clinical history, it is likely that they are suffering from muscular dystrophy, specifically facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. The long thoracic nerve is solely responsible for innervating the serratus anterior muscle, making it a key factor in the diagnosis of this condition.

      Other nerves of the brachial plexus include the axillary nerve, which mainly innervates the deltoid muscles and provides sensory innervation to the skin covering the deltoid muscle. The upper and lower subscapular nerves are branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provide motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve is also a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the latissimus dorsi.

      the innervation of the serratus anterior muscle and its relationship to other nerves of the brachial plexus is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A teenage boy gets into a brawl at a pub and is stabbed...

    Correct

    • A teenage boy gets into a brawl at a pub and is stabbed with a shattered bottle in his back, resulting in a spinal cord injury where half of the spinal cord is severed.

      What will be the impact on pain perception after this injury?

      Your Answer: Loss on the opposite side below the injury

      Explanation:

      When the spinothalamic tract is damaged on one side of the spinal cord, the pain sensation is lost on the opposite side of the body below the injury. This is because the spinothalamic tract crosses over (decusates) in the spinal cord one level above where the stimulus enters. The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting pain signals from the dorsal horns on the opposite side of the spinal cord where the primary sensory neuron enters. However, sensation above the injury remains unaffected. This can be a confusing concept, but in practice, it means that pain sensation is lost on one side of the body below the injury.

      The Spinothalamic Tract and its Function in Sensory Transmission

      The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting impulses from receptors that measure crude touch, pain, and temperature. It is composed of two tracts, the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts, with the former transmitting pain and temperature and the latter crude touch and pressure.

      Before decussating in the spinal cord, neurons transmitting these signals ascend by one or two vertebral levels in Lissaurs tract. Once they have crossed over, they pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus. This pathway is crucial in the transmission of sensory information from the body to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to various stimuli.

      Overall, the spinothalamic tract plays a vital role in our ability to sense and respond to our environment. Its function in transmitting sensory information is essential for our survival and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are evaluating a patient with Dupuytren's contracture in a pre-operative orthopaedic clinic....

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient with Dupuytren's contracture in a pre-operative orthopaedic clinic. You request the patient to flex their fingers at the distal interphalangeal joints.

      Which muscle's function is being evaluated in this case?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum longus

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The function of flexor digitorum profundus is to flex the fingers at both interphalangeal joints and the metacarpophalangeal joints, with a specific responsibility for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. In contrast, flexor digitorum superficialis only flexes the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers, and must be isolated from the action of flexor digitorum profundus to assess its function. Flexor hallucis longus, on the other hand, flexes the joints of the great toe but not the distal interphalangeal joints.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of...

    Incorrect

    • An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of a brief surgical procedure to reverse the effect of a muscle relaxant. However, no effect is observed. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants may have been used during induction of anaesthesia?

      Your Answer: Vecuronium

      Correct Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium is a type of skeletal muscle relaxant that causes depolarization. Unlike non-depolarizing agents such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, vecuronium, and rocuronium, it cannot be reversed by anticholinesterases because it is broken down by butyrylcholinesterase. Neostigmine, an anticholinesterase, prolongs the effects of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, but it cannot reverse the effects of suxamethonium since it is not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase.

      Cholinergic receptors are proteins found in the body that are activated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. They are present in both the central and peripheral nervous systems and can be divided into two groups: nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that allow the movement of sodium into the cell and potassium out, resulting in an inward flow of positive ions. Muscarinic receptors, on the other hand, are G-protein coupled receptors that exert their downstream effect by linking with different G-proteins.

      Nicotinic receptors are named after their binding capacity for nicotine, but they respond to acetylcholine. They are found in preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system and at neuromuscular junctions. At preganglionic neurons, they create a local membrane depolarization through the movement of sodium into the cell, while at neuromuscular junctions, they initiate a wave of depolarization across the muscle cell. Muscarinic receptors are found in effector organs of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system and are divided into five classes. They mediate various effects through different G-protein systems.

      Cholinergic receptors can be targeted pharmacologically using agonists and antagonists. For example, muscarinic antagonist ipratropium can be used to induce bronchodilation in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, antibodies are directed against the nicotinic receptor on the neuromuscular junction, resulting in skeletal muscle weakness. Understanding the effects associated with each type of cholinergic receptor is important in understanding physiological responses to drugs and disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old patient with schizophrenia visits the clinic. He has observed discharge on...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient with schizophrenia visits the clinic. He has observed discharge on his shirt twice and upon inspection, he noticed a milky fluid coming from his nipples. He recalls his psychiatrist mentioning that this could happen with his medication. What is the most probable reason for his discharge?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinaemia, which is characterized by high levels of prolactin, is a common side effect of certain atypical antipsychotics like risperidone. This medication can cause galactorrhoea, which is the abnormal secretion of milk due to the development of breast tissue and mammary glands.

      Different antipsychotics have their own unique side effect profiles, and the most likely culprits of hyperprolactinaemia are haloperidol (a conventional antipsychotic) and risperidone (an atypical antipsychotic). While it is uncommon for most atypical antipsychotics to cause galactorrhoea, risperidone is an exception.

      Other antipsychotics like clozapine are associated with agranulocytosis and myocarditis, while olanzapine is linked to dyslipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and weight gain.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman comes to your clinic with symptoms of depression, weight gain,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to your clinic with symptoms of depression, weight gain, and dry skin. You suspect that she might be experiencing hypothyroidism.

      What is the origin of the organ responsible for her symptoms, from an embryological perspective?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus glands are all derived from the endodermal layer of the germ layer. Conversely, the ectoderm gives rise to the nails and lens of the eye, while the neural crest tissue is responsible for the development of the nervous system. Finally, the mesoderm is responsible for the formation of muscle and connective tissues.

      Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives

      Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which bone is not part of the carpal bones? ...

    Correct

    • Which bone is not part of the carpal bones?

      Your Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      Trapezius is not related to the mnemonic for the carpal bones.

      Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks

      The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.

      In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to a pediatrician by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to a pediatrician by her mother due to a persistent runny nose and cough for the past six months. Despite being treated with antibiotics for an upper respiratory tract infection, the symptoms have not improved. During the examination, the pediatrician observes that the girl has frontal bossing, a flattened nasal bridge, and a protruding tongue. The child's growth is also below average, but there is no corneal clouding. Further investigation reveals low levels of iduronate sulfatase enzyme activity, confirming the diagnosis. The pediatrician informs the mother that this is a genetically inherited condition and that treatment will involve replacing the defective enzyme. What is the correct name of the condition that this girl is suffering from?

      Your Answer: This disease is transmitted by carrier mothers to half of their daughters and sons

      Correct Answer: This disease is transmitted by carrier mothers to half of their sons but not daughters

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a metabolic disease, specifically one of the lysosomal storage diseases such as Hurler syndrome or Hunter syndrome. Hurler syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and is characterized by corneal clouding due to low alpha-L-iduronidase activity. Hunter syndrome, on the other hand, does not involve corneal clouding and is diagnosed through low iduronate sulfatase activity.

      1: This transmission pattern is seen in mitochondrial myopathies, a group of genetically inherited diseases with a mitochondrial pattern of inheritance.
      2: Autosomal dominant diseases only require one affected parent to transmit the disease, examples include Huntington disease, Marfan syndrome, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis.
      3: X-linked dominant diseases are transmitted by affected mothers to half of their sons and daughters, but not by fathers. Examples include fragile X syndrome, Alport syndrome, and vitamin D-resistant rickets.
      4: X-linked recessive diseases are transmitted by carrier mothers to half of their sons, but not their daughters. Examples include Hunter syndrome, ocular albinism, G6PD deficiency, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
      5: Autosomal recessive diseases require both parents to be carriers of the defective gene for the disease to be transmitted. Examples include cystic fibrosis, Kartagener syndrome, sickle cell anemia, and Hunter syndrome.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following clotting factors is unaffected by warfarin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clotting factors is unaffected by warfarin?

      Your Answer: Factor XII

      Explanation:

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports that he has been experiencing constant dizziness for the past 2 days, which has prevented him from going to work. He also reports hearing difficulties and tinnitus in his right ear, as well as nausea and difficulty with balance. He notes that these symptoms are not related to changes in position. He has no significant medical history, except for a recent bout of flu that resolved on its own.

      During the examination, the man is observed to sway to the right while attempting to walk in a straight line. He also has a positive head thrust test to the right side. A complete neurological examination is performed, and aside from mild sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear, his neurological function is normal.

      Which structures are most likely involved in this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Otoliths

      Correct Answer: Vestibular nerve and labyrinth

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of labyrinthitis, which affects both the vestibular nerve and labyrinth, resulting in vertigo and hearing impairment. In contrast, pure vestibular neuritis only causes vestibular symptoms without affecting hearing. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) involves otolith displacement and is triggered by head position changes, which is not the case for this patient’s constant vertigo. Facial nerve palsy primarily causes facial drooping and does not affect hearing or vestibular function, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Viral Labyrinthitis

      Labyrinthitis is a condition that affects the membranous labyrinth, which includes the vestibular and cochlear end organs. It can be caused by a viral or bacterial infection, or it may be associated with systemic diseases. Viral labyrinthitis is the most common form of the condition.

      It’s important to distinguish labyrinthitis from vestibular neuritis, which only affects the vestibular nerve and doesn’t cause hearing impairment. Labyrinthitis, on the other hand, affects both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth, resulting in both vertigo and hearing loss.

      The condition typically affects people between the ages of 40 and 70 and is characterized by an acute onset of symptoms, including vertigo, nausea and vomiting, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Patients may also experience gait disturbance and fall towards the affected side.

      Diagnosis is based on a patient’s history and examination, which may reveal spontaneous unidirectional horizontal nystagmus towards the unaffected side, sensorineural hearing loss, and an abnormal head impulse test.

      While episodes of labyrinthitis are usually self-limiting, medications like prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness. Understanding the symptoms and management of viral labyrinthitis can help patients seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old patient was recently admitted to hospital with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient was recently admitted to hospital with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight loss and abdominal pain. Upon blood tests, a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) and anaemia were observed. A stool test for faecal calprotectin was significantly raised. A colonoscopy was performed, revealing deep ulceration and skip lesions. The patient was diagnosed with Crohn's disease without complications and was promptly started on glucocorticoids to induce remission. Subsequently, the gastroenterologist prescribed a drug called azathioprine to maintain remission of symptoms.

      What is the correct mechanism of action for azathioprine?

      Your Answer: Its metabolite inhibits purine synthesis

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to maintain remission in Crohn’s disease. It is metabolized into mercaptopurine, which inhibits purine synthesis and helps to control inflammation.

      Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that is sometimes used to induce remission in refractory or fistulating Crohn’s disease. It works by binding to and neutralizing tumor necrosis factor, a key mediator of inflammation.

      Mesalazine is a second-line drug that is used to induce remission in Crohn’s disease after glucocorticoids. It belongs to the 5-aminosalicylate class of drugs and works by inhibiting prostaglandin secretion. It is also considered for use in maintaining remission in post-surgical Crohn’s patients.

      Methotrexate is another immunosuppressant that is used as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. It works by disrupting folic acid metabolism and accumulating the anti-inflammatory molecule adenosine.

      Metronidazole is an antibiotic that is used to treat isolated peri-anal Crohn’s disease. It works by forming radicals that disrupt the DNA of anaerobic bacteria.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What characteristic might indicate the presence of high-grade dysplasia? ...

    Correct

    • What characteristic might indicate the presence of high-grade dysplasia?

      Your Answer: High Ki67 index

      Explanation:

      Dysplasia and its Association with Malignancy

      Dysplasia refers to the cellular changes that occur during the development of malignancy. The degree of dysplasia in a cell is directly proportional to its likelihood of being found in an invasive cancer. Cells with higher-grade dysplasia have more genetic abnormalities than those with low-grade dysplasia.

      Progressive dysplasia is characterized by variations in the appearance of cells and their nuclei, which is not typical in most tissues where cells appear similar. The nuclei of dysplastic cells are larger, and there is an increase in the number of nucleoli. The Ki67 index is a marker of proliferation, and a higher Ki67 index indicates a higher rate of cell turnover.

      In most tissues, mitoses are rare, but malignant tissues made up of dysplastic cells show visible mitoses. dysplasia and its association with malignancy is crucial in the early detection and treatment of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Histology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During the repair of an atrial septal defect, the surgeons notice blood leakage...

    Correct

    • During the repair of an atrial septal defect, the surgeons notice blood leakage from the coronary sinus. What is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus?

      Your Answer: Great cardiac vein

      Explanation:

      The largest tributary of the coronary sinus is the great cardiac vein, which runs in the anterior interventricular groove. The heart is drained directly by the Thebesian veins.

      The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old man is scheduled for open surgery to treat a popliteal artery...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is scheduled for open surgery to treat a popliteal artery aneurysm. What is the structure that forms the supero-lateral boundary of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Lateral head of gastrocnemius

      Correct Answer: Tendon of biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The Polpiteal Fossa and Sartorius Muscle

      The area behind the knee is known as the polpiteal fossa. It is bordered by the tenodon of biceps femoris on the superolateral side, and the tendons of semimembranous and semitendinosus on the superomedial side. The medial head of gastrocnemius forms the inferomedial border, while the lateral head of gastrocnemius forms the inferolateral border.

      The sartorius muscle is attached to the medial surface of the tibia. This muscle is located in the thigh and runs from the hip to the knee. It is responsible for flexing and rotating the hip joint, as well as flexing the knee joint. The sartorius muscle is one of the longest muscles in the body and is important for maintaining proper posture and movement. the anatomy of the polpiteal fossa and the sartorius muscle can be helpful in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old man presents to your clinic with painful swellings in his groin....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to your clinic with painful swellings in his groin. He reports that he first noticed the swellings 3 days ago and has been experiencing pain, tenesmus, and blood on defecation for the past week. He denies any other symptoms.

      You inquire about his sexual history. He reports having had unprotected sex with a new partner 2 weeks ago.

      What is the probable cause of his symptoms, considering his clinical presentation and sexual history?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3 and can present with proctitis and swollen lymph nodes in the groin. This sexually transmitted infection can affect various parts of the body, including the rectum, mouth/throat, and genitals, and is typically contracted through unprotected sexual activity.

      Hepatitis B can also be transmitted through sexual contact, but its symptoms are often non-specific, such as anorexia, fever, arthralgia, vomiting, and dark urine.

      Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, typically presents with a painless ulcer, fatigue, headaches, joint pain, and lymphadenopathy in men, but it is unlikely to cause proctitis.

      HIV, a virus that can lead to AIDS if left untreated, is a risk factor for LGV but usually presents with flu-like symptoms and remains asymptomatic for many years.

      Understanding Lymphogranuloma Venereum

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3. This infection is commonly found in men who have sex with men and those who have HIV. While historically it was more prevalent in tropical regions, it is now seen in developed countries as well.

      The infection typically progresses through three stages. The first stage involves a small, painless pustule that later forms an ulcer. In the second stage, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy occurs, which may occasionally form fistulating buboes. The third stage involves proctocolitis.

      LGV is treated using doxycycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman presents with an unknown cause of jaundice. She noticed the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with an unknown cause of jaundice. She noticed the yellowing of her skin and eyes in the mirror that morning. Upon examination, a palpable mass is found in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her lab results show a total bilirubin level of 124 umol/L and high levels of conjugated bilirubin in her urine. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary colic

      Correct Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      To correctly diagnose this patient, knowledge of Courvoisier’s sign is necessary. This sign indicates that a palpable gallbladder in the presence of painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. Therefore, biliary colic is an incorrect answer as it is a painful condition. Haemolytic anaemia is also an incorrect answer as the blood test results would differ from this patient’s results. The correct answer is cholangiocarcinoma, which is a cancer of the biliary tree that can cause painless obstructive jaundice. Gilbert’s syndrome is not the most appropriate answer as it only presents with a raised bilirubin and does not cause an increase in ALP.

      Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma

      Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a serious medical condition that can be caused by primary sclerosing cholangitis. This disease is characterized by persistent biliary colic symptoms, which can be accompanied by anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. In some cases, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant may be present, which is known as the Courvoisier sign. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen.

      One of the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma is primary sclerosing cholangitis. This condition can cause inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which can lead to the development of cancer over time. To detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis, doctors often use a blood test to measure CA 19-9 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old semi-professional rugby player is playing a game when he is tackled...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old semi-professional rugby player is playing a game when he is tackled by other players and experiences a dislocation at the glenohumeral joint.

      What is the structure responsible for deepening the glenoid fossa?

      Your Answer: Conoid ligament

      Correct Answer: Glenoid labrum

      Explanation:

      The Glenoid Labrum and Other Shoulder Joint Structures

      The glenoid labrum is a type of cartilage that helps to deepen the glenoid cavity, which is a shallow depression on the lateral border of the scapula bone. This cavity forms the glenohumeral joint with the humerus bone, and the labrum helps to stabilize this joint. If the labrum is injured, it can lead to recurrent dislocations of the shoulder joint.

      Another important structure in the shoulder joint is the conoid ligament, which is an extension of the coracoclavicular ligament. This ligament helps to connect the clavicle bone to the scapula bone and provides additional stability to the joint.

      The inferior and superior angles are two points on the scapula bone that refer to the lower and upper corners of the bone, respectively. These angles are important landmarks for identifying the position and orientation of the scapula in relation to other bones in the shoulder joint.

      Overall, the glenoid labrum, conoid ligament, and angles of the scapula are all important structures that contribute to the stability and function of the shoulder joint. these structures can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat injuries and conditions that affect the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells?

      Your Answer: Process of proteins

      Explanation:

      The Golgi Apparatus, Cell Division, and Homeostasis

      The Golgi apparatus is a structure found in eukaryotic cells that consists of flattened membrane stacks. Its primary function is to modify proteins that have been synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, preparing them for secretion or transport within the cell. However, the Golgi apparatus is not directly involved in cell division, which is controlled by the nucleus.

      Cell homeostasis, on the other hand, is primarily maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump. This mechanism ensures that the cell’s internal environment remains stable. The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport mechanism that involves the binding of three intracellular sodium ions to the protein. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) donates a phosphate group to the protein, which causes it to change shape and release the sodium ions out of the cell.

      The protein then accepts two extracellular potassium ions, and the donated phosphate group detaches, causing the protein to revert to its original shape. This allows the potassium ions to enter the cell, increasing the intracellular potassium concentration and decreasing the intracellular sodium concentration. This process is in contrast to the extracellular conditions.

      In summary, the Golgi apparatus modifies proteins for secretion or transport, while cell division is controlled by the nucleus. Cell homeostasis is maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports ions to stabilize the cell’s internal environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice since birth. Despite one week of phototherapy, the yellowing has not improved. The mother reports that the baby was born at 39 weeks' gestation without any birth trauma or injury. Newborn screening tests, including a thyroid function test, were normal. The mother and baby are both blood group O and Rh-negative, with no known family history of haematological conditions or liver problems. The mother has also noticed that the baby has been passing pale stools and dark urine.

      On examination, the baby appears healthy and has no fever, with scleral icterus present. The baby is moving all four limbs and has symmetrical Moro's reflex. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses.

      What is the likely condition affecting this four-week-old baby boy?

      Your Answer: Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Correct Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

      Explanation:

      If a newborn has jaundice for more than 14 days, it is likely due to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This type of prolonged neonatal jaundice is usually caused by post-hepatic factors, such as biliary atresia or choledochal cysts. Haemolysis may also cause jaundice, but in this case, it is unlikely due to the absence of conjunctival pallor, no family history of haematological conditions, and both the mother and baby being blood group O and Rh-negative. Congenital infections, like cytomegalovirus infection, may also cause jaundice, but the baby appears healthy and does not show any signs of TORCH infections.

      Understanding Jaundice in Newborns

      Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.

      Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.

      Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the past few weeks. He reports experiencing heavy night sweats, fatigue, and shortness of breath. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of intravenous drug use for many years and has been using methadone exclusively for the last 2 months. During the physical examination, the GP observes splinter haemorrhages. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of infective endocarditis and has a past of using intravenous drugs. Infective endocarditis can be caused by various factors, but in developed countries, S. aureus is the most prevalent cause. This is especially true for individuals who use intravenous drugs, as in this case.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What type of juvenile arthritis is most frequently seen? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of juvenile arthritis is most frequently seen?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor positive oligoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody positive oligoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) and its Characteristics

      Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is a condition characterized by persistent joint swelling in children under 16 years of age without any known cause. It is not the same as rheumatoid arthritis, as only 5% of JIA cases are rheumatoid factor positive polyarthritis. Instead, 60% of JIA cases are ANA+ oligoarthritis. Children with JIA may also experience systemic symptoms, such as chronic anterior uveitis, which requires regular screening. Chronic inflammation can lead to secondary amyloidosis, while poor growth, anorexia, and anaemia are common due to chronic disease and steroid therapy.

      Overall, JIA is a complex condition that can have a significant impact on a child’s health and wellbeing. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the various characteristics of JIA and to provide appropriate care and support to affected children and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following options in relation to the liver is true...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following options in relation to the liver is true for individuals?

      Your Answer: The portal triad comprises the hepatic artery, hepatic vein and tributary of the bile duct

      Correct Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      The ligamentum venosum and caudate lobe are located on the same side as the posterior vena cava. Positioned behind the liver, the ligamentum venosum is situated in the portal triad, which includes the portal vein (not the hepatic vein). The coronary ligament layers create a bare area of the liver, leaving a void. Additionally, the porta hepatis contains both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old man who had mitral valve surgery three months ago comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who had mitral valve surgery three months ago comes in with worsening dyspnea. An echocardiogram reveals vegetations on the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve. What is the probable causative agent?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis and Common Causative Organisms

      Endocarditis is a condition where the inner lining of the heart, particularly the valves, becomes infected. Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent cause of endocarditis within six months of cardiac surgery. A woman who presents with cardiac failure due to acute endocarditis can be diagnosed through echocardiography, which shows vegetation, and other clinical parameters. However, blood cultures are also necessary to identify the organism responsible for the infection. Given the recent history of valvular surgery, Staphylococcus aureus contamination during the operation is the most likely cause. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus should also be considered. Streptococcus pyogenes is the second most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it tends to cause subacute disease with symptoms such as fever, weight loss, general malaise, and anemia. Although all other organisms can cause infective endocarditis, they are less common causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the...

    Incorrect

    • A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the surgeon decides to enter the abdominal cavity to resect small bowel. A transverse incision is made two thirds of the way between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis. Which of the structures listed below will remain intact?

      Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: Posterior lamina of the rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      At this level, the incision is situated beneath the arcuate line and there is a lack of posterior wall in the rectus sheath.

      The rectus sheath is a structure formed by the aponeuroses of the lateral abdominal wall muscles. Its composition varies depending on the anatomical level. Above the costal margin, the anterior sheath is made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, with the costal cartilages located behind it. From the costal margin to the arcuate line, the anterior rectus sheath is composed of the external oblique aponeurosis and the anterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis. The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the posterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis. Below the arcuate line, all the abdominal muscle aponeuroses are located in the anterior aspect of the rectus sheath, while the transversalis fascia and peritoneum are located posteriorly. The arcuate line is the point where the inferior epigastric vessels enter the rectus sheath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 83-year-old man is on the stroke ward after suffering a total anterior...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man is on the stroke ward after suffering a total anterior circulation stroke of the left hemisphere. He is receiving assistance from the physiotherapists to mobilize, but the speech and language team has determined that he has an unsafe swallow. On the 6th day of his hospital stay, he begins to feel unwell.

      Upon examination, his temperature is 38.4ÂșC, heart rate of 112/min, respiratory rate of 18, and his blood pressure is 100/76 mmHg. Aspiration pneumonia is suspected. Which area of the body is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Left middle lobe

      Correct Answer: Right middle lobe

      Explanation:

      Aspiration pneumonia is a common occurrence in stroke patients during the recovery phase, with a higher likelihood of affecting the right lung due to the steeper course of the right bronchus. This type of pneumonia is often caused by unsafe swallowing and can lead to prolonged hospital stays and increased mortality rates. The right middle and lower lobes are the most susceptible to aspirated gastric contents, while the right upper lobe is less likely due to gravity. It’s important to consider aspiration pneumonia as a differential diagnosis when assessing stroke patients, especially those with severe pathology.

      Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that occurs when foreign substances, such as food or saliva, enter the bronchial tree. This can lead to inflammation and a chemical pneumonitis, as well as the introduction of bacterial pathogens. The condition is often caused by an impaired swallowing mechanism, which can be a result of neurological disease or injury, intoxication, or medical procedures such as intubation. Risk factors for aspiration pneumonia include poor dental hygiene, swallowing difficulties, prolonged hospitalization or surgery, impaired consciousness, and impaired mucociliary clearance. The right middle and lower lung lobes are typically the most affected areas. The bacteria involved in aspiration pneumonia can be aerobic or anaerobic, with examples including Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella, Bacteroides, Prevotella, Fusobacterium, and Peptostreptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. During the initial evaluation, he complains of difficulty breathing. A portable chest X-ray shows a 3 cm gap between the right lung margin and the chest wall, indicating a significant traumatic pneumothorax. The medical team administers high-flow oxygen and performs a right-sided chest drain insertion to drain the pneumothorax.

      What is a potential negative outcome that could arise from the insertion of a chest drain?

      Your Answer: Hospital-acquired pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Winging of the scapula

      Explanation:

      Insertion of a chest drain poses a risk of damaging the long thoracic nerve, which runs from the neck to the serratus anterior muscle. This can result in weakness or paralysis of the muscle, causing a winged scapula that is noticeable along the medial border of the scapula. It is important to use aseptic technique during the procedure to prevent hospital-acquired pleural infection. Chylothorax, pneumothorax, and pyothorax are all conditions that may require chest drain insertion, but they are not known complications of the procedure. Therefore, these options are not applicable.

      Anatomy of Chest Drain Insertion

      Chest drain insertion is necessary for various medical conditions such as trauma, haemothorax, pneumothorax, and pleural effusion. The size of the chest drain used depends on the specific condition being treated. While ultrasound guidance is an option, the anatomical method is typically tested in exams.

      It is recommended that chest drains are placed in the safe triangle, which is located in the mid axillary line of the 5th intercostal space. This triangle is bordered by the anterior edge of the latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of pectoralis major, a line superior to the horizontal level of the nipple, and the apex below the axilla. Another triangle, known as the triangle of auscultation, is situated behind the scapula and is bounded by the trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and vertebral border of the scapula. By folding the arms across the chest and bending forward, parts of the sixth and seventh ribs and the interspace between them become subcutaneous and available for auscultation.

      References:
      – Prof Harold Ellis. The applied anatomy of chest drains insertions. British Journal of hospital medicine 2007; (68): 44-45.
      – Laws D, Neville E, Duffy J. BTS guidelines for insertion of chest drains. Thorax, 2003; (58): 53-59.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 2-year-old child is brought back to the hospital following a seizure. The...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child is brought back to the hospital following a seizure. The medical team suspects that the child may have an enzyme deficiency affecting fructose-1,6 bisphosphatase, an essential enzyme for gluconeogenesis. What are the possible symptoms that may result from this enzyme defect?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Gluconeogenesis and its Differences from Glycolysis

      Gluconeogenesis is a process that is similar to glycolysis, but it occurs in reverse. While most of the reactions in glycolysis are reversible, there are some that are essentially irreversible. During gluconeogenesis, these reactions are bypassed by using different enzymes. For example, hexokinase in glycolysis is reversed by glucose 6 phosphatase during gluconeogenesis. Phosphofructokinase in glycolysis is reversed by fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase during gluconeogenesis. Pyruvate kinase in glycolysis is reversed by pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) carboxykinase during gluconeogenesis.

      If there is an enzyme defect or deficiency affecting fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase, it can have a profound effect on the body’s ability to perform gluconeogenesis. This means that in times of fasting, blood sugar levels cannot be maintained by gluconeogenesis, leading to hypoglycaemia, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly, and ketone production. Children with this condition often present in infancy, when there is a relatively low tolerance for fasting for even a few hours. While individual episodes can be treated fairly easily with glucose infusion, recurrent or severe episodes can cause an increased risk of cognitive dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (2/4) 50%
Basic Sciences (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/4) 25%
Neurological System (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/3) 67%
General Principles (2/5) 40%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (0/3) 0%
Histology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/3) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
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