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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a lump on the side...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a lump on the side of his neck. He reports feeling exhausted and experiencing night sweats. Following a needle core biopsy, the patient is diagnosed with follicular lymphoma. Which chromosomes are linked to this condition through translocation?

      Your Answer: 9 and 22

      Correct Answer: 14 and 18

      Explanation:

      The translocation of chromosomes is associated with various types of lymphoma and leukaemia. For example, the t(14;18) translocation causes follicular lymphoma by increasing BCL-2 transcription. Similarly, the t(8;14) translocation causes Burkitt lymphoma, while the t(9;22) translocation leads to the Philadelphia chromosome and chronic myeloid leukaemia. Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the t(11;14) translocation. These translocations can help diagnose and classify these haematological malignancies.

      Genetics of Haematological Malignancies

      Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:

      – Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      – t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.

      – t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.

      – t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.

      – t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.

      Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old boy complains of muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise, along...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy complains of muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise, along with dark urine. He is diagnosed with McArdle's disease.

      What is the enzyme that limits the defective pathway in this condition?

      Your Answer: Glycogen synthase

      Correct Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase

      Explanation:

      Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for energy use and blood glucose maintenance. McArdle’s disease, a type V glycogen storage disease, is caused by a deficiency of myophosphorylase, which is involved in glycogenolysis in muscle. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the citric acid cycle, while phosphofructokinase-1 limits the rate of glycolysis. Glycogen synthase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenesis.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the medical assessment unit with sudden onset shortness...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the medical assessment unit with sudden onset shortness of breath. She reports no cough or fever and has no other associated symptoms. She recently returned from a hiking trip in France and takes the oral contraceptive pill but no other regular medications. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day but drinks no alcohol. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and tachycardic with an elevated JVP. Her calves are soft and non-tender with no pitting oedema. Initial blood tests show a positive D-dimer and elevated CRP. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      When a patient presents with risk factors for pulmonary embolism (PE) such as recent travel and oral contraceptive pill use, along with symptoms like tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia, it is important to consider the possibility of a significant PE. In such cases, treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be given promptly to prevent further complications. A low-grade fever is also common in venothromboembolic disease. Elevated JVP signifies significant right heart strain due to a significant PE, but maintained blood pressure is a positive sign.

      The most common ECG finding in PE is an isolated sinus tachycardia, while the CXR may be clear, but prominent pulmonary arteries reflect pulmonary hypertension due to clot load in the pulmonary tree. A D-dimer test is recommended if the Wells score for PE is less than 4.

      According to NICE guidelines on venous thromboembolic diseases, low molecular weight heparin is the appropriate initial treatment for suspected PE. It is important not to delay treatment to await CTPA unless it can be performed immediately. There is no evidence of pneumonia to warrant IV antibiotics. Unfractionated heparin may be considered for patients with an eGFR of less than 30, high risk of bleeding, or those undergoing thrombolysis, but this is not the case with this patient. Thrombolysis is not indicated unless there is haemodynamic instability, even in suspected large PEs.

      In summary, prompt treatment with low molecular weight heparin is crucial in suspected cases of PE, and other treatment options should be considered based on individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have been ongoing for six months. These symptoms include weight loss, diarrhea, heat intolerance, and irritability. Upon examination, a small goiter and exophthalmos are observed. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Grave's disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis and Its Causes

      Thyrotoxicosis is a medical condition characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, diarrhoea, heat intolerance, and irritability. These symptoms suggest an overactive thyroid gland, which produces too much thyroid hormone. The most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is Graves’ disease, an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system produces autoantibodies that stimulate the thyroid TSH receptor. This leads to an overproduction of thyroid hormone, resulting in thyrotoxicosis.

      While Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause thyrotoxic symptoms in its early stages, it is important to note that all symptoms except those caused by Graves’ disease are recognized as symptoms of thyroid insufficiency rather than thyrotoxicosis. In Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This can cause the thyroid gland to release excess thyroid hormone, leading to thyrotoxicosis. However, as the disease progresses, the thyroid gland becomes damaged and unable to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to hypothyroidism.

      In summary, the causes of thyrotoxicosis is important in diagnosing and treating this condition. While Graves’ disease is the most common cause, it is important to consider other potential causes such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During a speculum examination, an open cervical os and a small amount of bleeding are observed. An ultrasound confirms the presence of intrauterine fetal tissue, but no heartbeat is detected. The physician diagnoses an inevitable miscarriage and discusses management options with the patient. She opts for medical management using misoprostol. What is the purpose of this medication in the treatment of miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Destruction of rapidly dividing cells

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions

      Explanation:

      Misoprostol is a medication that mimics the effects of prostaglandins, leading to the contraction of the uterus and the expulsion of fetal tissue. It is commonly used in the medical treatment of miscarriage, but it does not have any pain-relieving properties. Pain during a miscarriage is typically managed with other medications like ibuprofen, paracetamol, and codeine. Misoprostol also does not have any effect on blood loss, which is usually light and does not require treatment. In contrast, methotrexate is a medication that destroys rapidly dividing cells and is used to manage ectopic pregnancies. Finally, it’s important to note that misoprostol does not stimulate the release of oxytocin.

      Drugs Used in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

      Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is utilized in the active management of the third stage of labor. It aids in the contraction of the uterus, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, it is used to induce labor. Ergometrine, an ergot alkaloid, is an alternative to oxytocin in the active management of the third stage of labor. It can decrease blood loss by constricting the vascular smooth muscle of the uterus. Its mechanism of action involves stimulating alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonergic receptors. However, it can cause coronary artery spasm as an adverse effect.

      Mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol to terminate pregnancies. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions. Mifepristone is a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist. Its mechanism of action involves blocking the effects of progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. However, it can cause menorrhagia as an adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman with thyroid cancer undergoes a total thyroidectomy. The histology report...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with thyroid cancer undergoes a total thyroidectomy. The histology report reveals a diagnosis of medullary thyroid cancer. What test would be most useful for screening for disease recurrence?

      Your Answer: Serum PTH levels

      Correct Answer: Serum calcitonin levels

      Explanation:

      The detection of sub clinical recurrence can be facilitated by monitoring the serum levels of calcitonin, which is often secreted by medullary thyroid cancers.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which muscle initiates abduction of the shoulder at an early age? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle initiates abduction of the shoulder at an early age?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The primary function of the intermediate deltoid muscle is to abduct the humerus, but it relies on the supraspinatus muscle to initiate this movement. Rotator cuff disease often involves damage to the supraspinatus tendon.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sudden-onset...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sudden-onset abdominal pain that has been ongoing for an hour. She describes the pain as intense and cramping, with a severity rating of 9/10.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and atrial fibrillation.

      After undergoing a contrast CT scan, a thrombus is discovered in the inferior mesenteric artery, and the patient is immediately scheduled for an urgent laparotomy.

      What structures are likely to be affected based on this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Distal third of colon and the rectum superior to pectinate line

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery is responsible for supplying blood to the hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum superior to the pectinate line. In this case, the patient’s sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and history of atrial fibrillation suggest acute mesenteric ischemia, with the affected artery being the inferior mesenteric artery. Therefore, if a thrombus were to block this artery, the distal third of the colon and superior rectum would experience ischaemic changes. It is important to note that the ascending colon, caecum, ileum, appendix, greater omentum, and stomach are supplied by different arteries and would not be affected by a thrombus in the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 17-year-old female comes to the doctor's office. She had unprotected sex five...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female comes to the doctor's office. She had unprotected sex five days ago and is now five days into her pregnancy. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?

      Your Answer: Trophoblast

      Correct Answer: Blastocyst

      Explanation:

      After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, the germinal vesicle breakdown is stimulated by the LH surge, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. Following fertilization, pronuclear and zygote formation occur, followed by rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.

      Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation occurs between days 5 and 6. On day 1, the zygote is formed, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. The 4-cell stage is reached early on day 2, the 8-cell stage early on day 3, and the 16-cell stage late on day 3. The morula is formed on day 4, and the blastocyst is formed on day 5.

      Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.

      As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after fainting. Prior to...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after fainting. Prior to losing consciousness, he experienced dizziness and heart palpitations. He was unconscious for less than a minute and denies any chest discomfort. Upon cardiac examination, no abnormalities are detected. An ECG is conducted and reveals indications of hyperkalaemia. What is an ECG manifestation of hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Narrow QRS complexes

      Correct Answer: Tall tented T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia can be identified on an ECG by tall tented T waves, small or absent P waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. In severe cases, the QRS complexes may form a sinusoidal wave pattern, and asystole may occur. On the other hand, hypokalaemia can be detected by ST segment depression, prominent U waves, small or inverted T waves, a prolonged PR interval (which can also be present in hyperkalaemia), and a long QT interval.

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.

      It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed by his pediatrician with a condition characterized by...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed by his pediatrician with a condition characterized by a slightly low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and a haemoglobin at the lower end of normal. Upon full investigation, it is discovered that he is missing a gene for one of his four alpha globin alleles. The doctor explains the condition to the boy and his parents, writing (aa/a-) to describe it. What is the name of this condition?

      Your Answer: Alpha thalassaemia major

      Correct Answer: Silent carrier (alpha(+) heterozygous)

      Explanation:

      There are five potential disease phenotypes of alpha thalassaemia based on the number of faulty or missing globin alleles in a patient’s genotype. These include silent carrier (alpha(+) heterozygous) for one missing allele, alpha thalassaemia trait: alpha(0) heterozygous for two missing alleles, alpha thalassaemia trait: alpha(+) homozygous for two missing alleles, haemoglobin H disease for three missing alleles, and (–/–) for four missing alleles.

      Understanding Alpha-Thalassaemia

      Alpha-thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that results from a deficiency of alpha chains in haemoglobin. The condition is caused by a mutation in the alpha-globulin genes located on chromosome 16. The severity of the disease depends on the number of alpha globulin alleles affected. If one or two alleles are affected, the blood picture would be hypochromic and microcytic, but the haemoglobin level would typically be normal. However, if three alleles are affected, it results in a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly, which is known as Hb H disease. In the case of all four alleles being affected, which is known as homozygote, it can lead to death in utero, also known as hydrops fetalis or Bart’s hydrops. Understanding the different levels of severity of alpha-thalassaemia is crucial in diagnosing and managing the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 9-month-old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her parents who...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her parents who recently moved from the Philippines. The baby has a noticeable mass in her abdomen, resembling a sausage shape. During questioning, the father mentions that the baby had vomited green substance a few hours ago. The baby is immediately referred to the hospital. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileocecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. Symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and bloodstained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, which may show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for intussusception is crucial for parents and healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to a...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to a significantly elevated level of creatine kinase in his blood. What is the role of creatine kinase in the body?

      Your Answer: To regenerate ATP for muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Creatine Kinase: An Enzyme for Muscle Contraction

      Creatine kinase (CK), also known as creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in muscle tissue. Its main function is to catalyze the regeneration of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and creatine phosphate after muscle contraction. This process allows for further muscle contraction and supports sustained exertion. CK is present in many tissues, but it is most active in striated and cardiac muscle. Other tissues with CK activity include the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.

      The body’s tissues contain a dimeric form of CK, which is made up of two subunits. Each subunit of CK can be made from a genetic area on chromosome 14 (CK-B) or chromosome 19 (CK-M). There are three dimeric forms (isoforms) of CK: CK-MM, CK-MB, and CK-BB. CK-MM is abundant in striated muscle tissue, while CK-MB is abundant in cardiac muscle tissue. CK-BB is abundant in the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.

      In patients with muscle diseases such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy, CK-MM is released and will be the main form of CK measured. CK-MB has been widely used in the past as an aid in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction and other diseases affecting the heart muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - After complaining of increasing irritability, difficulty concentrating and pain and weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • After complaining of increasing irritability, difficulty concentrating and pain and weakness in his limbs, a 45-year-old patient with a history of alcoholism is sent for blood tests. The results reveal a vitamin deficiency and the general practitioner explains he has a condition called beriberi. Which vitamin is this patient deficient in?

      Your Answer: Cobalamin (vitamin B12)

      Correct Answer: Thiamine (vitamin B1)

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 76-year-old man is undergoing a femoro-popliteal bypass graft. The surgery is not...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man is undergoing a femoro-popliteal bypass graft. The surgery is not going smoothly, and the surgeon is having difficulty accessing the area. Which structure needs to be retracted to improve access to the femoral artery in the groin?

      Your Answer: Adductor magnus

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      To enhance accessibility, the sartorius muscle can be pulled back as the femoral artery passes beneath it at the lower boundary of the femoral triangle.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient in their 50s complains of tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox following...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s complains of tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox following a fall. The tendons of the abductor pollicis longus are located along the radial (lateral) border of the anatomical snuffbox.

      What is the nerve that innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve supplies abductor pollicis longus, along with all the other extensor muscles of the forearm, including supinator. The main trunk of the radial nerve supplies triceps, anconeus, extensor carpi radialis, and brachioradialis. The anterior interosseous nerve supplies flexor digitorum profundus (radial half), flexor pollicis longus, and pronator quadratus. The median nerve supplies the LOAF muscles (lumbricals 1 and 2, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis). The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm has no motor innervation, and the ulnar nerve supplies most of the intrinsic muscles of the hand and two muscles of the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial flexor digitorum profundus.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following options does not result in lymphadenopathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options does not result in lymphadenopathy?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Causes of Generalised Lymphadenopathy

      Generalised lymphadenopathy refers to the enlargement of multiple lymph nodes throughout the body. There are various causes of this condition, including infectious, neoplastic, and autoimmune conditions. Infectious causes include infectious mononucleosis, HIV, eczema with secondary infection, rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV, tuberculosis, and roseola infantum. Neoplastic causes include leukaemia and lymphoma. Autoimmune conditions such as SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, graft versus host disease, and sarcoidosis can also cause generalised lymphadenopathy. Additionally, certain drugs like phenytoin and to a lesser extent allopurinol and isoniazid can also lead to this condition. It is important to identify the underlying cause of generalised lymphadenopathy to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.9
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old patient presents with muscle weakness in the proximal lower limbs. Following...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with muscle weakness in the proximal lower limbs. Following antibody tests, the diagnosis of Lambert-Eaton syndrome is confirmed. Which receptors are targeted by the autoimmune antibodies in this condition?

      Your Answer: Voltage-gated sodium channels

      Correct Answer: Voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      The antibodies involved in Lambert-Eaton syndrome attack the voltage-gated calcium channels. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by muscle weakness, but a unique aspect is that muscle strength improves with repeated contractions, unlike in myasthenia gravis.

      Understanding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that is often associated with small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. It can also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. The condition is caused by an antibody that attacks the presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

      The symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome include limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms such as dry mouth, impotence, and difficulty micturating. Unlike myasthenia gravis, ophthalmoplegia and ptosis are not commonly seen in this condition. Muscle strength may increase with repeated contractions, but this is only seen in 50% of patients and eventually decreases with prolonged muscle use.

      An incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation is seen on electromyography (EMG). Treatment of the underlying cancer is important, and immunosuppression with prednisolone and/or azathioprine may be beneficial. 3,4-diaminopyridine is currently being trialled as a treatment option. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy and plasma exchange may also be helpful in managing the symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      9
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man presents to the orthopaedic outpatient clinic 8 weeks after his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the orthopaedic outpatient clinic 8 weeks after his hip replacement surgery. His medical records indicate that he underwent a left hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach. He reports feeling generally well, but complains of lower back pain.

      During gait examination, the patient displays a left-sided gluteal lurch upon heel strike and exhibits a loss of hip extension on the same side. Based on these findings, which nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Sural nerve

      Correct Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscle, while the superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The sural nerve provides only sensory innervation to the lateral foot and posterolateral leg, with no motor function.

      The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.

      The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.4
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  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old man presents with biliary colic and an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with biliary colic and an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 4.8 cm is discovered. Which of the following statements regarding this condition is false?

      Your Answer: Aortoduodenal fistula is a recognised complication following repair.

      Correct Answer: The wall will be composed of dense fibrous tissue only

      Explanation:

      These aneurysms are genuine and consist of all three layers of the arterial wall.

      Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.

      Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16.3
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  • Question 21 - Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle?

      Your Answer: Median and musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial and musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The Brachialis Muscle: Anatomy and Innervation

      The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm and is located in the anterior half of the humerus and intermuscular septa. It attaches to the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna at the elbow joint. The main nerve supply for the brachialis muscle is the musculocutaneous nerve, with C6 and radial nerve also playing a role. Additionally, the lateral part of the brachialis muscle is supplied by branches from the C7 root. Overall, the brachialis muscle is an important muscle for forearm flexion and is innervated by multiple nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old male has been experiencing recurrent chest infections that are becoming more...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male has been experiencing recurrent chest infections that are becoming more frequent. Upon examination of a blood film, it was discovered that he has small mature lymphocytes with a dense nucleus, leading to a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. Which immune cells, derived from lymphoid progenitors, are typically found in higher numbers in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cells

      Explanation:

      Dendritic cells are derived from both myeloid and lymphoid lineages.

      Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells

      Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.

      The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.

      This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old male visits the GP after a soccer injury. During the game,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits the GP after a soccer injury. During the game, he received a blow to the lateral side of his left leg, causing valgus strain on the knee. The GP suspects an unhappy triad injury. What are the three injuries typically associated with this triad?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus and anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The unhappy triad refers to a set of knee injuries that happen when the knee experiences a lateral impact causing Valgus stress. This stress leads to tears in the medial collateral ligament and the medial meniscus, which are closely connected. Additionally, the anterior cruciate ligament is also affected and traumatized. However, the lateral collateral ligament, lateral meniscus, and posterior cruciate ligament are not involved in this triad.

      Knee Injuries and Common Causes

      Knee injuries can be caused by a variety of factors, including twisting injuries, dashboard injuries, skiing accidents, and lateral blows to the knee. One common knee injury is the unhappy triad, which involves damage to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and meniscus. While the medial meniscus is classically associated with this injury, recent evidence suggests that the lateral meniscus is actually more commonly affected.

      When the anterior cruciate ligament is damaged, it may be the result of twisting injuries. Tests such as the anterior drawer test and Lachman test may be positive if this ligament is damaged. On the other hand, dashboard injuries may cause damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. Damage to the medial collateral ligament is often caused by skiing accidents or valgus stress, and can result in abnormal passive abduction of the knee. Isolated injury to the lateral collateral ligament is uncommon.

      Finally, damage to the menisci can also occur from twisting injuries. Common symptoms of meniscus damage include locking and giving way. Overall, understanding the common causes and symptoms of knee injuries can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent further damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of persistent fatigue, weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of persistent fatigue, weight gain, and intolerance to cold. Upon conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers a haemoglobin level of 135 g/L, elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone, and decreased free T4. The patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism and prescribed levothyroxine.

      What is the mode of action of levothyroxine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of nuclear receptors

      Explanation:

      Increased or decreased gene transcription is typically the result of nuclear receptor activation.

      Levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroxine, primarily works by activating nuclear receptors. This activation leads to changes in transcription, resulting in an increase in metabolic rate in all tissues.

      Ion channels are proteins found on cell membranes that allow specific ions to enter or exit the cell. They are activated by certain compounds, such as GABA agonists, NMDA receptor antagonists, and nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonists. However, levothyroxine does not affect ion channels.

      G-protein coupled receptors work differently than ion channels, as they involve a cascade of events with secondary messengers. Medications that work on G-protein coupled receptors include beta agonists, muscarinic antagonists, and ACE inhibitors. However, levothyroxine does not affect G-protein coupled receptors.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to a sore throat. Upon examination, the doctor determines that it is probably caused by a viral infection.

      What structures will display antigens to activate cytotoxic T cells and initiate an immune response against this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MHC class I molecules

      Explanation:

      Cytotoxic T cells identify antigens that are displayed by MHC class I molecules. CD8 receptors, which are present on cytotoxic T cells, can bind with MHC class I molecules.

      On the other hand, MHC class II molecules can bind with CD4 receptors that are expressed on T helper cells. MHC class III molecules do not exist.

      Antibodies are generated by the body to aid the immune response and do not participate in presenting antigens to immune cells.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that there is a significant...

    Incorrect

    • While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that there is a significant family history of a particular disease. Diseases that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner typically manifest in early adulthood due to structural gene abnormalities, with both males and females being affected equally. Which of the following diseases does not follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Binding Proteins Resulting in Iron Deposition and Multiple Organ Dysfunction

      Iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can lead to various health complications. This condition is characterized by the deposition of iron in different organs, including the heart, liver, pancreas, and skin. The abnormality in binding proteins results in the accumulation of iron in these organs, leading to cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis, pancreatic failure, and skin pigmentation.

      This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the condition. The recessive form of this condition is also known as infantile polycystic kidney disease, which predominantly affects children.

      Overall, iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can cause multiple organ dysfunction and can be inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Early diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial to prevent further complications and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old man with Von Willebrand's disease is scheduled for an intravenous infusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with Von Willebrand's disease is scheduled for an intravenous infusion of desmopressin acetate. The medication works by triggering the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which enhances factor VIII and the creation of the platelet plug in clotting. What substance is responsible for maintaining blood solubility and preventing platelet activation in individuals without clotting disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the coagulation cascade is crucial, but it’s also important to know the substances that the body secretes to maintain normal blood vessel function and prevent excessive clotting. In primary haemostasis, the formation of a platelet plug is a critical step, and several substances in the blood vessels work against platelet activation to keep the blood flowing smoothly.

      Prostacyclin, which is produced from arachidonic acid, inhibits platelet activation. Nitric oxide prevents platelet adhesion to the vessel wall and also dilates blood vessels to increase blood flow. Endothelial ADPase inhibits ADP, which is a platelet activator.

      Fibrinogen, a large and soluble compound, is the precursor to fibrin, which forms an insoluble mesh to trap blood cells and platelets within a clot. This is the final step of the coagulation cascade, and the clot is further strengthened by fibrin-stabilising factor. Thromboxane, produced by activated platelets, increases platelet activation and constricts blood vessels, making it another thrombotic agent. Aggregated platelets produce ADP, which further enhances platelet aggregation.

      The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation

      The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.

      The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a witnessed fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a witnessed fall from standing. He is complaining of severe pain at his left hip.

      Examination of the lower limb reveals that he is unable to flex his left knee or mobilise his left ankle at all. His left knee reflex is present but he has an absent left-sided ankle jerk reflex. On the left side, sensation is lost below the knee. His right leg reveals no sensory or motor disturbance. An X-ray of both hips reveals a left-sided intracapsular neck of femur fracture.

      Based on the above information, what nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      When the sciatic nerve is damaged, the ankle and plantar reflexes become lost, but the knee jerk reflex remains intact. This type of nerve injury can cause weakness in knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee and reduced ankle reflexes. A common cause of sciatic nerve damage is a neck of femur fracture.

      It’s important to note that the common fibular nerve, which is a branch of the sciatic nerve, is located too low to be affected by a neck of femur fracture. If this nerve is injured, it will result in weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion at the ankle, as well as extension at the digits, but knee flexion will not be affected.

      In contrast, damage to the femoral nerve will cause weakness in knee extension, not flexion. This type of nerve injury will also result in weakness in hip flexion and loss of sensation in the anteromedial thigh and medial leg and foot.

      Obturator nerve damage can occur after abdominal or pelvic surgery, or in rare cases, from a posterior hip dislocation. This type of nerve injury will cause weakness in thigh adduction and sensory loss in the medial thigh.

      Finally, a lesion in the superior gluteal nerve will result in the inability to abduct the hip, which will produce a positive Trendelenburg test.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae and divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. It is responsible for supplying the hamstring and adductor muscles. When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in a range of symptoms that affect both motor and sensory functions.

      Motor symptoms of sciatic nerve lesion include paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee. Sensory symptoms include loss of sensation below the knee. Reflexes may also be affected, with ankle and plantar reflexes lost while the knee jerk reflex remains intact.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesion, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of hand weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of hand weakness. He reports experiencing sensory loss in his little finger and ring finger, as well as weak finger flexion. Can you identify the dermatome responsible for his sensory loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C8

      Explanation:

      The patient has a cervical radiculopathy causing loss of the C8 dermatome located on the little and ring finger, and potentially finger flexion.

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.

      Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a severe headache on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a severe headache on both sides of her temples. Upon further inquiry, she reports a temporary loss of vision in one eye and pain in her jaw. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal/giant cell arteritis

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis, space occupying lesions, migraines, and tension headaches all cause headaches, but they differ in their specific symptoms and causes. Temporal arteritis causes pain in the inflamed temporal artery, which can also lead to jaw pain and temporary vision loss. Space occupying lesions can cause severe morning headaches with vomiting. Migraines are characterized by hours-long headache attacks preceded by an aura and changes in mood, appetite, and sleepiness. Tension headaches cause a band-like pain around the head and are often associated with stress.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 31 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic for a follow-up after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic for a follow-up after experiencing a stroke two weeks ago. His strength is 5/5 in all four limbs and his deep muscle reflexes are normal. He has no visual deficits, but he is having difficulty answering questions correctly and his speech is filled with newly invented words, although it is fluent. Additionally, he is unable to read correctly. Which blood vessel is most likely involved in his stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior division of the left middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that Wernicke’s area is supplied by the inferior division of the left middle cerebral artery. This type of stroke can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, which is characterized by poor comprehension but normal fluency of speech. Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal gyrus and is specifically supplied by the inferior division of the left middle cerebral artery.

      The other options provided are incorrect. A stroke in the basilar artery can result in the locked-in syndrome, which causes paralysis of the entire body except for eye movement. A stroke in the left anterior cerebral artery can cause behavioral changes, contralateral weakness, and contralateral sensory deficits. A stroke in the right posterior cerebral artery can cause visual deficits.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 32 - In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of...

    Incorrect

    • In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of charged particles or solutes in a liquid medium due to an electric field?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Electrophoresis: Separating Molecules Based on Charge and Mass

      Electrophoresis is a technique that separates solutes, molecules, or nucleic acids based on their mass and charge. It involves the migration of charged particles in a liquid medium under the influence of an electric field. The apparatus consists of two electrodes placed at either end of a support medium, or gel, which is suspended in a buffer solution. The sample is inserted into a well and a current is applied. Over time, positively charged solutes move towards the negative electrode, while negatively charged substances move towards the positive electrode. Once the migration is complete, the gel is removed and stained to color the substance being tested for, such as protein.

      This technique is widely used in medical testing, but it requires a higher degree of operational and interpretive skill than many other tests, which is why it often takes longer to get a result. Electrophoresis has various uses and adaptations, such as standard electrophoresis for protein detection in the diagnosis of myeloma, identification of unusual lipid fractions in patients with inherited diseases, and detection of viral DNA through Southern Blotting. There is also Northern blotting, primarily a research technique at present, which uses electrophoresis to separate RNA. Additionally, Western blotting is used to test for the presence of antibodies to DNA through protein separation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 33 - An 80-year-old patient, Gwyneth, is being examined by her physician for recurring dizziness...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient, Gwyneth, is being examined by her physician for recurring dizziness upon standing up, which is interfering with her daily activities. Gwyneth is in good health and does not take any regular medications. The physician diagnoses Gwyneth with orthostatic hypotension and prescribes fludrocortisone as a treatment.

      What is the most probable side effect that Gwyneth may encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid retention

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are a class of medications commonly prescribed for various clinical uses, such as treating allergies, inflammatory conditions, auto-immunity, and endogenous steroid replacement.

      There are different types of corticosteroids, each with varying levels of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Glucocorticoids mimic cortisol, which is involved in carbohydrate metabolism and the stress response, while mineralocorticoids mimic aldosterone, which regulates sodium and water retention in response to low blood pressure.

      The clinical uses and side effects of corticosteroids depend on their level of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Fludrocortisone, for example, has minimal glucocorticoid activity and high mineralocorticoid activity.

      Therefore, fluid retention is the most associated side effect with mineralocorticoid activity, while depression, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, and peptic ulceration are side effects associated with glucocorticoid activity.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 34 - A study examines the impact of age on male cardiologists. A group is...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines the impact of age on male cardiologists. A group is chosen and divided into four categories based on their age. The first group is under 30, the second is between 30 and 45, the third is between 45 and 60, and the fourth is over 60. The group is monitored for the next ten years, and the incidence of heart disease is documented.

      What is the dependent variable in this research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rates of liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variables in Research

      Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.

      The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.

      Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.

      Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue. She reports feeling weak...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue. She reports feeling weak for the past few months, especially towards the end of the day. She denies any changes in her sleep patterns, mood, diet, or weight. Additionally, she mentions experiencing double vision at times.

      During the examination, the doctor observes partial ptosis in both eyes, with the left eye being more affected. The patient's other cranial nerves appear normal, and her limbs have a power of 4/5. Her sensation and reflexes are intact.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by the body producing antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, leading to dysfunction at the neuromuscular junction.

      Cerebral infarction typically presents with sudden onset, unilateral neurological symptoms that do not fluctuate.

      While multiple sclerosis (MS) involves demyelination of the central nervous system, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with myasthenia gravis. MS typically presents with optic neuritis, which causes painful vision loss.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome involves demyelination of the peripheral nervous system and typically presents with progressive weakness and diminished reflexes.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 36 - A 50-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by an ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by an ambulance after she was found collapsed on the street by a bystander. Within a few minutes of arrival she developed severe abdominal pain and became severely agitated.

      Her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute, heart rate 110 beats per minute, temperature 39.3ºC. Her prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are increased, and her fibrinogen levels are lower than normal. Her D-dimer is positive.

      Hb 96 g/l
      Platelets 85 * 109/l
      WBC 14 * 109/l

      Blood smears are sent to the laboratory.

      What is most likely to be seen in the blood smears?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistocytes

      Explanation:

      DIC, also known as consumptive coagulopathy, is a condition where the coagulation cascade is overactivated, leading to unchecked bleeding. This is due to the depletion of clotting mechanisms. Normally, clot formation and breakdown are balanced, with thrombin playing a key role in both processes. In DIC, patients may have prolonged coagulation times, thrombocytopenia, high levels of fibrin degradation products, elevated D-dimer levels, and microangiopathic pathology on peripheral smears. The excess fibrin strands in the intravascular circulation cause mechanical damage to red blood cells, resulting in schistocyte formation, thrombocytopenia, and consumption of clotting factors. Bite cells are abnormally shaped red blood cells with semicircular portions removed from the cell margin, seen in G6PD deficiency. Dacrocytes are teardrop-shaped cells seen in myelofibrosis and marrow disorders, while elliptocytes are red cells varying in shape from elongated to oval, seen in various disorders.

      Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Condition of Simultaneous Coagulation and Haemorrhage

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a medical condition characterized by simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage. It is caused by the initial formation of thrombi that consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding. DIC can be caused by various factors such as infection, malignancy, trauma, liver disease, and obstetric complications.

      Clinically, bleeding is usually the dominant feature of DIC, accompanied by bruising, ischaemia, and organ failure. Blood tests can reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. The treatment of DIC involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supportive management.

      In summary, DIC is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and management, patients with DIC can recover and regain their health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 37 - A 20-year-old male patient complains of lethargy and night sweats. During examination, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient complains of lethargy and night sweats. During examination, left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is detected. A biopsy of the left supraclavicular lymph node is performed by a surgical registrar, and the pathologist identifies Reed-Sternberg cells on the subsequent histology sections. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in histological examination.

      Causes of Generalised Lymphadenopathy

      Generalised lymphadenopathy refers to the enlargement of multiple lymph nodes throughout the body. There are various causes of this condition, including infectious, neoplastic, and autoimmune conditions. Infectious causes include infectious mononucleosis, HIV, eczema with secondary infection, rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV, tuberculosis, and roseola infantum. Neoplastic causes include leukaemia and lymphoma. Autoimmune conditions such as SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, graft versus host disease, and sarcoidosis can also cause generalised lymphadenopathy. Additionally, certain drugs like phenytoin and to a lesser extent allopurinol and isoniazid can also lead to this condition. It is important to identify the underlying cause of generalised lymphadenopathy to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 38 - What is the location of pancreatic beta-cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the location of pancreatic beta-cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the centre of islets of Langerhans

      Explanation:

      The Pancreas and its Beta-Cells

      The pancreas is a gland with both exocrine and endocrine functions. The exocrine part of the pancreas is made up of acini and ducts that secrete digestive enzymes into the small intestine. The endocrine part of the pancreas is composed of the islets of Langerhans, which are clusters of cells scattered throughout the pancreas. These islets contain alpha-cells, beta-cells, and delta-cells.

      Beta-cells are the most abundant cells in the islets of Langerhans and are located in the center of the islets. They are responsible for producing and secreting insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels. Alpha-cells, on the other hand, produce glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels. Delta-cells produce somatostatin, which inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon.

      In summary, the pancreas is a gland with both exocrine and endocrine functions. The endocrine part of the pancreas is made up of the islets of Langerhans, which contain alpha-cells, beta-cells, and delta-cells. Beta-cells are the most numerous cells in the islets and are responsible for producing and secreting insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 39 - A 70-year-old male is referred to a haematologist for an elevated white blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male is referred to a haematologist for an elevated white blood cell count and an increased quantity of mature myeloid cells on his blood film. The diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia is confirmed with the presence of an oncogene. He is promptly treated with chemotherapy and a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. What is the oncogene associated with chronic myeloid leukaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ABL

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia is often associated with the oncogene ABL, which is frequently amplified following the translocation t:(9;22), also known as the Philadelphia chromosome. Other oncogenes commonly found in different types of cancer include n-MYC in neuroblastoma, c-MYC in Burkitt’s lymphoma, and BCL-2 in follicular lymphoma.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 40 - A 48-year-old man visits his local doctor complaining of chest pain that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man visits his local doctor complaining of chest pain that occurs during physical activity and subsides with rest. He first noticed it 10 months ago and feels that it has gradually worsened. He now experiences this pain while climbing a few stairs. Previously, he could walk down to the newsagent and back, a distance of 200 yards, without any discomfort. He has a medical history of hypertension and appendectomy.

      His close friend had similar symptoms that were relieved by sublingual glyceryl nitrates. He asks the doctor to prescribe something similar.

      What is the mechanism by which nitrates work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrates cause a decrease in intracellular calcium which results in smooth muscle relaxation

      Explanation:

      The reason why nitrates cause a decrease in intracellular calcium is because nitric oxide triggers the activation of smooth muscle soluble guanylyl cyclase (GC) to produce cGMP. This increase in intracellular cGMP inhibits calcium entry into the cell, resulting in a reduction in intracellular calcium levels and inducing smooth muscle relaxation. Additionally, nitric oxide activates K+ channels, leading to hyperpolarization and relaxation. Furthermore, nitric oxide stimulates a cGMP-dependent protein kinase that activates myosin light chain phosphatase, which dephosphorylates myosin light chains, ultimately leading to relaxation. Therefore, the correct answer is the second option.

      Understanding Nitrates and Their Effects on the Body

      Nitrates are a type of medication that can cause blood vessels to widen, which is known as vasodilation. They are commonly used to manage angina and treat heart failure. One of the most frequently prescribed nitrates is sublingual glyceryl trinitrate, which is used to relieve angina attacks in patients with ischaemic heart disease.

      The mechanism of action for nitrates involves the release of nitric oxide in smooth muscle, which activates guanylate cyclase. This enzyme then converts GTP to cGMP, leading to a decrease in intracellular calcium levels. In the case of angina, nitrates dilate the coronary arteries and reduce venous return, which decreases left ventricular work and reduces myocardial oxygen demand.

      However, nitrates can also cause side effects such as hypotension, tachycardia, headaches, and flushing. Additionally, many patients who take nitrates develop tolerance over time, which can reduce their effectiveness. To combat this, the British National Formulary recommends that patients who develop tolerance take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for 4 hours and maintains effectiveness. It’s important to note that this effect is not seen in patients who take modified release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 41 - A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with a multidrug-resistant urinary tract...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with a multidrug-resistant urinary tract infection. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and a previous cerebrovascular accident. After three days, she experiences an altered sensorium and her urine output has been 100 ml over the past 12 hours. Her creatinine level has increased from 1 mg/dl to almost 5 mg/dl, and her blood pressure is currently 180/100 mmHg. The patient is currently taking amikacin, insulin, atorvastatin, atenolol, ramipril, and clopidogrel.

      Which medication, other than ramipril, should be discontinued for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amikacin

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they may be experiencing acute kidney injury (AKI) as a result of a severe urinary tract infection and potential sepsis. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors such as ramipril should not be used in cases of AKI, and aminoglycosides like amikacin should also be discontinued. Beta-blockers like atenolol, on the other hand, are generally safe to use in AKI patients and may be preferred over ACE inhibitors and ARBs as antihypertensives. While statins like atorvastatin are generally safe in AKI, they can rarely cause rhabdomyolysis, which can worsen renal function and lead to renal failure. Therefore, patients who experience muscle pain should be evaluated further to rule out the possibility of rhabdomyolysis.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 42 - A 27-year-old man comes to his doctor for a routine check-up before participating...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his doctor for a routine check-up before participating in a local 20-mile cycling race. He has been training for over a year and is determined to win. He has been experiencing occasional headaches on both sides of his head for the past three weeks, but they come and go and are not accompanied by aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. He has some redness and tenderness on his abdomen, but no masses are felt. His bowel and bladder function are normal. He had flu-like symptoms last week but is feeling much better now. His blood test results are as follows, and his hematocrit level is higher than normal:

      Hemoglobin: 198 g/L
      Platelets: 250 * 10^9/L
      White blood cells: 6 * 10^9/L

      Which of the following best explains his symptoms and blood test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary polycythemia due to erythropoietin use

      Explanation:

      Athletes who use EPO are at risk of developing polycythemia. Cyclists are known to frequently use EPO, which can cause localized erythema on the abdomen from repeated injections. The patient’s headaches are not migrainous as they lack associated symptoms such as aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. Renal cell carcinoma is the primary type of kidney cancer in adults and typically presents with flank pain, haematuria, and a flank mass. Other symptoms may include weight loss, night sweats, fever, and malaise.

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 43 - You are participating in a seminar about eating disorders. What renal alteration is...

    Incorrect

    • You are participating in a seminar about eating disorders. What renal alteration is common in individuals with extreme malnourishment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced glomerular filtration rate

      Explanation:

      Renal Physiology Changes in Severe Malnutrition

      Patients with severe malnutrition experience changes in their renal physiology due to reduced food intake. These changes include an increased secretion of aldosterone and a reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which alters the excretion patterns of many solutes, electrolytes, and drugs. As a result, there is an increased urinary excretion of potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, leading to a tendency for hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypophosphataemia over time.

      Furthermore, the reduced muscle bulk in individuals with severe malnutrition causes low levels of production of urea and creatinine. However, reduced excretion causes plasma levels to remain normal or only slightly reduced. As muscle is broken down to provide substrates for gluconeogenesis, a negative nitrogen balance ensues. Additionally, urate excretion is reduced, causing a relative hyperuricaemia.

      In summary, severe malnutrition affects renal physiology, leading to altered excretion patterns of various solutes, electrolytes, and drugs. These changes can result in imbalances in potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate levels. Furthermore, the breakdown of muscle tissue can cause a negative nitrogen balance, while reduced urate excretion can lead to hyperuricaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a significant swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a significant swelling in his abdomen. He confesses to consuming more alcohol since losing his job five years ago, but he has no other significant medical history.

      During the examination, the doctor observes shifting dullness. To confirm the suspicion of portal hypertension, the doctor orders liver function tests and an ascitic tap (paracentesis).

      What result from the tests would provide the strongest indication of portal hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) of 13.1 g/L

      Explanation:

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 45 - A 45-year-old woman is scheduled to have an axillary lymph node dissection as...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is scheduled to have an axillary lymph node dissection as a component of her breast cancer treatment. During the surgical approach to the axilla, which fascial layer will be cut?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      The clavipectoral fascia is located beneath the clavicular part of the pectoralis major muscle and serves as a protective barrier for the axillary vessels and nodes. In cases of breast cancer requiring axillary node clearance, the clavipectoral fascia is incised to allow access to the nodal stations. These stations include level 1 nodes located below the pectoralis minor muscle, level 2 nodes situated behind it, and level 3 nodes above it. In some cases, such as during a Patey Mastectomy, surgeons may need to divide the pectoralis minor muscle to access level 3 nodes. However, with the use of sentinel node biopsy and improved techniques, this procedure is becoming less common.

      Anatomy of the Axilla

      The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.

      One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.

      The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 46 - A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with intense abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with intense abdominal pain and a decreased Glasgow coma score (GCS). Over the past few weeks, he has been experiencing excessive urination, abnormal thirst, and weight loss. Laboratory results reveal:

      Ketones 4.2 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L)
      Glucose 20 mmol/L
      pH 7.25

      What is the probable cause of the acidosis and hyperketonemia in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uncontrolled lipolysis

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of the patient’s condition is diabetic ketoacidosis, which is a result of uncontrolled lipolysis. This process leads to an excess of free fatty acids that are eventually converted into ketone bodies. It is important to note that proteolysis, the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides, does not yield ketone bodies and is not the cause of this condition. While glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis are increased due to the lack of insulin and rise of glucagon, they do not result in acidosis or elevated levels of ketone bodies. It is ketogenesis, not ketolysis, that leads to the increased levels of ketone bodies.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old male patient presents at the clinic with a confirmed diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient presents at the clinic with a confirmed diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. He has also been diagnosed with liver cirrhosis and has a history of pseudogout. Based on his medical history, you suspect that he may be suffering from haemochromatosis. Can you identify the most frequently occurring genetic abnormality associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C282Y mutation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Mutations and Their Effects

      HFE is a gene responsible for binding to transferrin, and when a mutation occurs in this gene, it can lead to haemochromatosis. The most common mutation in this gene is the C282Y allele, which is a point mutation resulting in the replacement of a cysteine residue with a tyrosine amino acid. On the other hand, the delta-F508 mutation is a deletion mutation that causes the loss of phenylalanine at position 508 in the CFTR protein, leading to the development of cystic fibrosis. Trinucleotide repeats are another type of mutation that can cause inherited neurological disorders, such as Huntington’s disease and spinocerebellar ataxia. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the XP-21 gene, while phenylketonuria is caused by a mutation in phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 48 - A 5-year-old male is referred to a paediatrician for recurrent seizures. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old male is referred to a paediatrician for recurrent seizures. He is observed to have poor cognitive performance and is significantly lagging behind his peers in school. During chest examination, a pansystolic murmur is detected on the left sternal edge, and he displays an unusual facial appearance. Blood tests reveal hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and low parathyroid hormone levels. The paediatrician suspects Di George syndrome and orders a test to determine the total number of T cells. Which cell surface marker is used to quantify the total T cell count?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD3

      Explanation:

      The presence of CD3 on the surface of all T cells makes it a useful marker for determining the total number of T cells. Individuals with Di George syndrome, which is characterized by underdevelopment of the thymus, typically have low CD3 counts. CD4 is a cell surface marker specific to T helper cells, while CD5 is commonly found in mantle cell lymphomas. CD8, on the other hand, is a cell surface marker present on cytotoxic T cells.

      Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions

      Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.

      Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 49 - Samantha is a 65-year-old alcoholic who has come to her doctor with worries...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 65-year-old alcoholic who has come to her doctor with worries about the feeling in her legs. She is experiencing decreased light-touch sensation and proprioception in both legs. Her blood work reveals a deficiency in vitamin B12.

      What signs are most probable for you to observe in Samantha?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive Babinski sign

      Explanation:

      The presence of a positive Babinski sign may indicate subacute degeneration of the spinal cord, which is typically caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. This condition primarily affects the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, which are responsible for fine-touch, proprioception, and vibration sensation. In addition to the Babinski sign, patients may also experience spastic paresis. However, hypotonia is not typically observed, as this is a characteristic of lower motor neuron lesions. It is also important to note that temperature sensation is not affected by subacute degeneration of the spinal cord, as this function is mediated by the spinothalamic tract.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 50 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute onset pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute onset pain in her hands for the past 2 hours. She has a history of recurrent infections. Physical examination shows tender diffuse swelling of her hands bilaterally.

      Her blood tests show:
      Hb 85 g/L Male: (119-150)
      Female: (119-150)
      Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90 fL (80-100)

      Peripheral smear examination shows numerous sickled red blood cells (RBC) and Howell-jolly bodies. Haemoglobin electrophoresis confirms sickle cell disease.

      Which of the following is a beneficial prophylactic drug for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyurea

      Explanation:

      Hydroxyurea is utilized in the prophylactic management of sickle cell anemia to prevent painful episodes by increasing the levels of HbF. The management of sickle cell disease involves two aspects: acute episodes and chronic management. Acute episodes are treated with adequate hydration and effective analgesia, while chronic management aims to prevent acute episodes and treat complications. Hydroxyurea has been proven to reduce the frequency of painful crises and the need for blood transfusions by increasing HbF levels, which has a higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin A. Acetaminophen is an analgesic that inhibits the cyclooxygenase enzyme and is only useful in mild pain cases. Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic agent that has no role in sickle cell disease management.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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