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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man was admitted to critical care with urinary sepsis. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man was admitted to critical care with urinary sepsis. He was intubated and ventilated and treated with intravenous fluids and antibiotics. About a week later, he developed an oxygen requirement, and the medical team observed crackles at the right base.

      What are the laboratory characteristics linked with Pseudomonas aeruginosa, as indicated by a sputum culture showing Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer: Pink colonies on MacConkey agar

      Correct Answer: Non-lactose fermenting

      Explanation:

      Lab findings that suggest the presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa include a gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenting, and positive for oxidase. In this case, the patient likely acquired a nosocomial infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which is a common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia or ventilator-acquired pneumonia. It is important to note that Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not cause haemolysis, unlike Group A Streptococcus, which exhibits beta-haemolysis. Streptococcus pneumoniae, on the other hand, is a gram-positive coccus that causes alpha-haemolysis and is a less likely cause of hospital/ventilator-acquired pneumonia.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the infections it causes include chest infections, skin infections such as burns and wound infections, otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.

      In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. The bacteria produce both an endotoxin and exotoxin A. The endotoxin causes fever and shock, while exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.

      Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins makes it particularly dangerous and difficult to treat. Proper hygiene and infection control measures can help prevent the spread of this bacteria.

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  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old man with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining...

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    • A 52-year-old man with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of breathlessness for the past three weeks, despite following his prescribed treatment. He reports difficulty breathing while lying down and has resorted to using three large pillows at night. His current medication includes ramipril, carvedilol, furosemide, and bendroflumethiazide. As a healthcare provider, you are contemplating adding a low dose of amiloride to his current regimen. Can you explain the mechanism of action of amiloride?

      Your Answer: Inhibits epithelial sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.

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  • Question 3 - An Afro-Caribbean woman in her 40s visits her doctor with complaints of exhaustion,...

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    • An Afro-Caribbean woman in her 40s visits her doctor with complaints of exhaustion, bone ache, and hair loss. The doctor conducts some blood tests and discovers that the patient is suffering from hypocalcaemia. To treat the condition, the doctor prescribes vitamin D supplements. After a few weeks, the patient reports feeling much better, and her calcium levels have returned to normal.

      What is the primary process responsible for the increase in the patient's serum calcium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An increase in calcium absorption from the gut

      Explanation:

      The primary way in which vitamin D increases serum calcium levels is by enhancing its absorption through the small intestine. This is achieved through the promotion of transcellular calcium absorption via the apical calcium receptor and TRPV6, as well as the intracellular movement of calcium using calbindin and the basolateral transfer of calcium out of cells via PMCA1b. While vitamin D also promotes calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and bone demineralisation, these mechanisms are not as significant as its effect on gut absorption. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to hypocalcaemia initially, but may eventually result in normal serum calcium levels or even hypercalcaemia due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Patients of Afro-Caribbean and South Asian descent are at a higher risk of vitamin D deficiency, and clinicians should therefore consider this possibility more readily in these populations.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

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  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old male presents with painful muscle cramp associated with early fatigue and...

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    • A 14-year-old male presents with painful muscle cramp associated with early fatigue and 'red urine' with strenuous exercise. Blood glucose and lactate levels are normal. He is diagnosed with glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle disease).

      What enzyme is deficient in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myophosphorylase

      Explanation:

      The deficiency of myophosphorylase causes glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle disease), resulting in increased glycogen levels in the muscle that cannot be broken down. Symptoms include muscle cramps during exercise and myoglobinuria (red urine).

      Other types of glycogen storage disease are caused by deficiencies in different enzymes. Glycogen storage disease type I (Von Gierke disease) is caused by a deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase, leading to fasting hypoglycemia and elevated lactate levels. Glycogen storage disease type II (Pompe disease) is caused by a deficiency in α-1,4-glucosidase, which affects the heart, liver, and muscles. Glycogen storage disease type III (Cori disease) is caused by a deficiency in α-1,6-glucosidase (debranching enzyme) and is a milder form of Von Gierke disease with normal blood lactate levels.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a hot and painful leg....

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    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a hot and painful leg. Upon examination, the lower right limb shows a distinct area of erythema that is warm to the touch. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications, but has a penicillin allergy. The GP decides to prescribe clindamycin. What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Clindamycin hinders bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, leading to the eventual death of bacterial cells. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin, prevent bacterial replication by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase, which is responsible for unwinding and duplicating bacterial DNA. Beta-lactam antibiotics, like penicillins and cephalosporins, impair the bacterial cell wall, causing damage that ultimately results in bacterial cell death. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase, which reduces the amount of purines available for DNA synthesis within the bacteria, thereby reducing bacterial replication. Tetracyclines, on the other hand, inhibit the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, which has a similar effect to inhibiting the 50S subunit, leading to reduced protein synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 6 - A child was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation with no labor complications....

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    • A child was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation with no labor complications. 24 hours after birth, the child seems lethargic and refuses to eat. The temperature is 38.2 ºC. The blood and cerebrospinal fluid cultures are negative, but the urine culture is positive for gram-negative rods. There are no other children in the hospital with similar symptoms. What is the most probable organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod and is frequently implicated in neonatal infections, with urine cultures being the most common method of detection.

      Staphylococcus aureus, a gram-positive cocci, does not align with the results of the urine culture.

      While group B streptococci, particularly Streptococcus agalactiae, are often responsible for postpartum neonatal infections, they stain as gram-positive.

      Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive anaerobe, also contradicts the findings of the urine culture.

      Answer 5 needs to be revised.

      Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations

      Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.

      One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.

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  • Question 7 - An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of...

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    • An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of a brief surgical procedure to reverse the effect of a muscle relaxant. However, no effect is observed. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants may have been used during induction of anaesthesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium is a type of skeletal muscle relaxant that causes depolarization. Unlike non-depolarizing agents such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, vecuronium, and rocuronium, it cannot be reversed by anticholinesterases because it is broken down by butyrylcholinesterase. Neostigmine, an anticholinesterase, prolongs the effects of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, but it cannot reverse the effects of suxamethonium since it is not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase.

      Cholinergic receptors are proteins found in the body that are activated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. They are present in both the central and peripheral nervous systems and can be divided into two groups: nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that allow the movement of sodium into the cell and potassium out, resulting in an inward flow of positive ions. Muscarinic receptors, on the other hand, are G-protein coupled receptors that exert their downstream effect by linking with different G-proteins.

      Nicotinic receptors are named after their binding capacity for nicotine, but they respond to acetylcholine. They are found in preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system and at neuromuscular junctions. At preganglionic neurons, they create a local membrane depolarization through the movement of sodium into the cell, while at neuromuscular junctions, they initiate a wave of depolarization across the muscle cell. Muscarinic receptors are found in effector organs of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system and are divided into five classes. They mediate various effects through different G-protein systems.

      Cholinergic receptors can be targeted pharmacologically using agonists and antagonists. For example, muscarinic antagonist ipratropium can be used to induce bronchodilation in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, antibodies are directed against the nicotinic receptor on the neuromuscular junction, resulting in skeletal muscle weakness. Understanding the effects associated with each type of cholinergic receptor is important in understanding physiological responses to drugs and disease.

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  • Question 8 - A 7-year-old girl comes to the hospital with symptoms indicating Turner syndrome. What...

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    • A 7-year-old girl comes to the hospital with symptoms indicating Turner syndrome. What is the underlying genetic cause of this disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant defect

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is typically the result of a random mutation and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that causes short stature due to abnormal cartilage development. It is caused by a mutation in the FGFR-3 gene and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The condition is characterized by short limbs with shortened fingers, a large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis. In most cases, it occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age being a risk factor.

      There is currently no specific treatment for achondroplasia. However, some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures, which involve the use of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures. It is important to have a clearly defined need and end point for these procedures in order to achieve success.

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  • Question 9 - You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific...

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    • You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific discomfort in the right upper quadrant. He denies any gastrointestinal symptoms but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon physical examination, the liver edge is palpable 6 cm below the costal margin and he has no fever.

      An ultrasound is ordered and reveals a solitary large cyst in the liver. Due to the cyst's size, the decision is made to perform surgical resection in conjunction with optimal medical therapy.

      What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echinococcus granulosus

      Explanation:

      On ultrasound, hepatic cysts are detected in a sheep farmer.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old man who is on tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisolone for a previous...

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    • A 27-year-old man who is on tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisolone for a previous kidney-transplant is planning to travel and seeks your advice on which vaccinations he can safely receive.

      Which vaccine should be administered with caution to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Yellow fever and intranasal influenzae vaccines are live attenuated, while hepatitis A and rabies vaccines are inactivated. Yellow fever vaccine should be used with caution in immune-deficient patients.

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenzae vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old male patient visits the neurology clinic for a routine follow-up of...

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    • A 67-year-old male patient visits the neurology clinic for a routine follow-up of his Parkinson's disease, which he has been diagnosed with for a few years now. Despite trying various medications, the patient's symptoms have been progressively deteriorating. The neurologist decides to add amantadine to his treatment regimen, in addition to other medications. Apart from its dopaminergic effects, the drug also possesses antiviral properties.

      What is the mechanism of action of amantadine's antiviral activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits uncoating of virus in cell

      Explanation:

      Amantadine inhibits the uncoating of viruses in cells by targeting the M2 protein channel. Although it is no longer commonly used to treat influenzae, its mechanism of action is still relevant for exams. Amantadine also has the ability to release dopamine from nerve endings.

      Interferon-alpha is an antiviral agent that inhibits mRNA synthesis and is used to treat chronic hepatitis B and C.

      Oseltamivir works by inhibiting neuraminidase and is used to treat influenzae.

      acyclovir and ganciclovir inhibit viral DNA polymerase and are used to treat various viral infections, including varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus.

      Ribavirin interferes with the capping of viral mRNA and is used to treat chronic hepatitis C.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer on his left foot. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer on his left foot. Blood cultures grow MRSA. Which antibiotic would you consider in addition to vancomycin to cover this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Other antibiotics may not be effective against MRSA due to its resistance.

      Understanding MRSA and its Screening and Treatment

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics. It is a dangerous organism that can cause hospital-acquired infections. To prevent the spread of MRSA, patients awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions are screened for the bacteria. The screening involves a nasal swab and examination of skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is identified as a carrier of MRSA, they can be treated with mupirocin for the nose and chlorhexidine gluconate for the skin. Antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, and linezolid are commonly used to treat MRSA infections. However, newer antibiotics like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to understand MRSA and its screening and treatment to prevent the spread of this dangerous organism.

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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt and intense eye...

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    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt and intense eye pain, a red eye, and a mid-dilated fixed pupil on the right side. The on-call ophthalmologist suspects acute angle closure glaucoma and prescribes several medications, including pilocarpine, to reduce intraocular pressure.

      What is the mechanism of action of pilocarpine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscarinic agonist

      Explanation:

      A muscarinic agonist, pilocarpine stimulates muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, which are categorized into 5 subtypes (M1-M5) and are G-protein coupled receptors.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man experiences septic shock after undergoing a Hartmans procedure for perforated...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man experiences septic shock after undergoing a Hartmans procedure for perforated diverticular disease. He is initiated on an adrenaline drip. What is the least probable outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary artery vasospasm

      Explanation:

      The β 1 receptors mediate its cardiac effects, while the β 2 receptors in the coronary arteries remain unaffected.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body

      Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.

      Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.

      Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.

      In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.

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  • Question 15 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with a...

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    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with a persistent pain in her neck over the past 6 months. She has also noticed a lump on the anterolateral aspect of her neck and has been experiencing a persistent cough. Upon conducting blood tests, her doctor has found that she has hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. Following an ultrasound and biopsy, Samantha has been diagnosed with medullary thyroid carcinoma. The tumour studies have shown that there has been no spread to local lymph nodes. Can you explain the reason for Samantha's abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of osteoclasts by calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts, leading to a decrease in plasma calcium and phosphate levels.

      Understanding Calcitonin and Its Role in Regulating Calcium Levels

      Calcitonin is a hormone that is produced by the parafollicular cells or C cells of the thyroid gland. It is released in response to high levels of calcium in the blood, which can occur due to various factors such as bone resorption, vitamin D toxicity, or certain cancers. The main function of calcitonin is to decrease the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream.

      Calcitonin works by binding to specific receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, which reduces their ability to resorb bone. This leads to a decrease in the release of calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream, which helps to restore normal levels of these minerals. In addition to its effects on bone metabolism, calcitonin also has other physiological functions such as regulating kidney function and modulating the immune system.

      Overall, calcitonin plays an important role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body and preventing the development of conditions such as hypercalcemia, which can have serious health consequences. By inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation, calcitonin helps to maintain the structural integrity of bones and prevent fractures. Understanding the mechanisms of calcitonin action can provide insights into the pathophysiology of bone diseases and inform the development of new treatments for these conditions.

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  • Question 16 - A child who is a few months old has been diagnosed with Down...

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    • A child who is a few months old has been diagnosed with Down syndrome. The geneticist has confirmed the presence of two genetically distinct cell populations in the body, 46,XY and 47,XY,+21. What mechanism led to the development of Down syndrome in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mosaicism

      Explanation:

      Mosaicism is when there are two different populations of cells with distinct genetic makeup in the body. It is a rare cause of Down’s syndrome. The most common cause of Down’s syndrome is non-disjunction, which occurs when chromosomes do not separate correctly during cell division, resulting in gametes with an extra or missing chromosome. Robertsonian translocation is a type of chromosomal rearrangement where the long arms of two chromosomes fuse to form a single chromosome with one centromere. This can result in an abnormal karyotype if there is additional genetic material. Non-penetrance is when a genetic trait is present in the genotype but does not manifest in the phenotype.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

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  • Question 17 - A 93-year-old man presents to your clinic with knee pain. Upon inquiry, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old man presents to your clinic with knee pain. Upon inquiry, you suspect arthritis as the cause, and he reports the pain to be 7/10 in intensity. He has a history of left knee replacement surgery 15 years ago, as well as aortic stenosis, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease. He is currently taking 5 mg of ramipril once daily. What would be the most appropriate initial medication for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      When treating a patient with arthritic pain who is not currently taking any medications, the WHO pain ladder should be used, starting with Step 1. This step involves prescribing NSAIDs or paracetamol. Given the patient’s age and renal function, paracetamol would be a more appropriate choice. Alternatively, topical ibuprofen could also be considered. Opiates such as codeine and morphine would not be suitable at this stage, as they are higher up the ladder. Gabapentin, which is typically used for nerve pain, would not be indicated in this case.

      The WHO’s Analgesia Ladder for Pain Management

      The World Health Organisation (WHO) has created a guide for doctors to follow when treating patients who are experiencing pain. This guide is known as the ‘analgesia ladder’ and it consists of three steps. The first step involves the use of non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like aspirin. If the pain persists, the second step involves the use of mild opioid analgesics like codeine and dihydrocodeine. Finally, if the pain is still not managed, the third step involves the use of strong opioid analgesics like morphine.

      The purpose of the analgesia ladder is to provide doctors with a structured approach to pain management. By starting with non-opioid analgesics and gradually moving up the ladder, doctors can ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of pain relief without exposing them to unnecessary risks associated with opioid use. This approach also helps to minimise the potential for opioid dependence and addiction.

      Overall, the WHO’s analgesia ladder is an important tool for doctors to use when treating patients who are experiencing pain. By following this guide, doctors can provide effective pain relief while minimising the risks associated with opioid use.

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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after experiencing multiple episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after experiencing multiple episodes of vomiting following a night of heavy drinking. During the clinical examination, the doctor observes dry mucous membranes and reduced skin turgidity. As part of the diagnostic process, an arterial blood gas test is conducted, and the results are as follows:

      pH 7.49
      PaO2 9 kPa
      PaCO2 5.5kPa
      Bicarbonate 30mM

      What could be the possible cause of this patient's arterial blood gas findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by hypokalaemia, which occurs when there is a low level of potassium in the blood. Vomiting is another cause of metabolic alkalosis, as it leads to the loss of acid from the stomach. However, vomiting was not provided as an option. On the other hand, hypokalemia can also cause metabolic acidosis, as the body tries to replace potassium by exchanging it for hydrogen ions through the H+K+ATPase transporter in the alpha-intercalated cells of the cortical collecting duct. Uraemia, methanol toxicity, and aspirin toxicity are known causes of metabolic acidosis with raised anion gap. Aspirin can also cause respiratory alkalosis by directly stimulating the respiratory centres in the brainstem.

      Understanding Metabolic Alkalosis and Its Causes

      Metabolic alkalosis is a condition that occurs when there is a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate in the body. This condition is mainly caused by problems in the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Some of the common causes of metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, diuretics, liquorice, carbenoxolone, primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing’s syndrome, and Bartter’s syndrome.

      The mechanism of metabolic alkalosis is primarily due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system. This system is responsible for the reabsorption of sodium ions in exchange for hydrogen ions in the distal convoluted tubule. When there is a loss of sodium and chloride ions due to vomiting or diuretics, the RAA system is activated, leading to an increase in aldosterone levels.

      In cases of hypokalaemia, where there is a shift of potassium ions from cells to the extracellular fluid, alkalosis occurs due to the shift of hydrogen ions into cells to maintain neutrality. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of metabolic alkalosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.

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  • Question 19 - A researcher wants to determine if amoxicillin is more effective than azithromycin in...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher wants to determine if amoxicillin is more effective than azithromycin in treating pneumonia in elderly patients. A randomized controlled trial has been designed.

      What is the null hypothesis for this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin and azithromycin are equally effective in empirically treating pneumonia

      Explanation:

      The null hypothesis proposes that there is no difference between two treatments in terms of their effectiveness, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference. For example, the statement There is no significant difference in the efficacy of amoxicillin and azithromycin for treating pneumonia represents the null hypothesis.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of vaginal discharge and symptoms suggestive of a thrush infection. You decide to prescribe fluconazole.

      What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ergosterol production

      Explanation:

      Azoles prevent the production of ergosterol by inhibiting 14 alpha-demethylase.

      Terbinafine hinders the function of squalene epoxidase.

      Nystatin and amphotericin B attach to ergosterol.

      Griseofulvin interacts with microtubules.

      Caspofungin obstructs the synthesis of beta-glucan, a crucial component of the fungal cell wall.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a painless, enlarged lymph node....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a painless, enlarged lymph node. After conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers an elevated white cell count and refers the patient to an oncologist. Subsequent testing reveals that the patient has follicular lymphoma. Which gene is commonly mutated in this type of cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BCL-2

      Explanation:

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after experiencing difficulty speaking and breathing for the past hour. The man had recently returned from a one-week vacation and had been feeling well. Before heading out for his regular Saturday football game, he had some homemade pineapple jam. The man has no significant medical history and has not been hospitalized recently. There is no significant family history. The attending physician recognizes the condition and begins treatment immediately. The emergency medicine resident explains the situation to the roommate. What is the most likely mechanism that has been affected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Release of the acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

      Explanation:

      The symptoms presented by this man are consistent with a diagnosis of Clostridium botulinum toxicity, which occurs when contaminated food is ingested. The bacteria responsible for this condition, Clostridium botulinum, thrive in the anaerobic environment of home-canned food. The toxin produced by these bacteria prevents the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in neuromuscular impairment.

      1: The Clostridium botulinum toxin does not affect the muscarinic or nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Autoantibodies to the muscarinic receptors are responsible for the destruction of these receptors in myasthenia gravis.
      2: The spread of depolarization along the myelinated axon at the nodes of Ranvier is not affected by the Clostridium botulinum toxin.
      3: The influx of calcium ions into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated calcium channels triggers the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. Autoantibodies to these calcium channels are responsible for the Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.
      4: The Clostridium botulinum toxin prevents the release of acetylcholine by cleaving the SNARE protein complex, which is necessary for the fusion of the pre-formed synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane.
      5: The process of loading, docking, priming, fusion, and endocytosis of synaptic vesicles is not affected by the Clostridium botulinum toxin.

      Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.

      The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system. Symptoms of botulism include diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. Patients are usually fully conscious with no sensory disturbance, but they experience flaccid paralysis.

      Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. However, the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention immediately if botulism is suspected.

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  • Question 23 - You are giving a lecture to a group of nursing students on aspirin...

    Incorrect

    • You are giving a lecture to a group of nursing students on aspirin overdose and its characteristics.

      As you discuss the pathophysiology of the metabolic acidosis observed in patients with aspirin overdose, you address the root cause of the metabolic acidosis in these individuals.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uncoupling of the electron transport chain in the mitochondria leading to reduced ATP production

      Explanation:

      Inhibiting the electron transport chain in mitochondria, aspirin overdose leads to a decline in ATP production. This decrease in ATP is counterbalanced by an upsurge in anaerobic respiration, which generates lactate – an acidic byproduct. The accumulation of lactate leads to a decrease in pH, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of fatigue and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of fatigue and a general feeling of being unwell, which is uncommon for him. He also reports experiencing widespread polyarthralgia. The patient has a history of a scaphoid fracture six years ago and regularly engages in gym workouts and weekend hikes. During the examination, the physician observes a bullseye rash on the patient's left calf and a fever. What is the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochaete.

      The patient’s history suggests Lyme disease and indicates possible exposure to its vector.

      Walking through tall grass can lead to tick bites, which can transmit Borrelia spp. through the bloodstream.

      Malaria is caused by the plasmodium parasite P. falciparum.
      Meningitis is caused by the bacteria N. meningitidis.
      Cellulitis can be caused by the bacteria S. aureus.
      Endocarditis can be caused by the bacteria S. epidermidis.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old patient attends the diabetic clinic with an HbA1c of 58mmol/mol. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient attends the diabetic clinic with an HbA1c of 58mmol/mol. Despite his efforts to lose weight, his blood sugar levels remain high. You adjust his metformin dosage and schedule a follow-up appointment in 4 months. During the consultation, he confides in you about his difficulty in achieving and maintaining an erection, which has caused strain in his relationship. To address this issue, you prescribe a course of sildenafil. How does sildenafil improve erectile function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased penile blood due to vasodilation through an increase in cGMP

      Explanation:

      PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, promote vasodilation by elevating the levels of cGMP. Sildenafil works by inhibiting the cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down cGMP in the corpus cavernosum surrounding the penis. Sexual stimulation triggers the release of nitric oxide (NO) from nerve terminals and endothelial cells, leading to the synthesis of cGMP in smooth muscle cells. This results in the relaxation of penile arteries and corpus cavernosal smooth muscle, leading to increased blood flow and penile erection. By enhancing the amount of cGMP, sildenafil improves erectile function. This is achieved by reducing intracellular calcium concentration, which causes smooth muscle relaxation. The other options are incorrect because vasoconstriction, corpus cavernosal smooth muscle contraction, and increased intracellular calcium concentration would worsen erectile dysfunction.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman was referred to gastroenterology to investigate unresolved dyspepsia. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was referred to gastroenterology to investigate unresolved dyspepsia. She has been receiving NSAID treatment to manage a flare-up of osteoarthritis. Endoscopy reveals the presence of a gastric ulcer.

      What factors may have contributed to the endoscopy findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced PGE2 (prostaglandin)

      Explanation:

      The use of NSAIDs can lead to the formation of peptic ulcers by reducing the production of PGE2, which is responsible for increasing gastric mucus secretion. NSAIDs inhibit the COX enzymes that convert arachidonic acid into endoperoxides, which then form PGE2. PGI2 is another product of endoperoxides that causes vasodilation, reduces platelet aggregation, and has no effect on gastric mucus production. Thromboxane A2 is also a product of endoperoxides, but it causes vasoconstriction and increases platelet aggregation without affecting gastric mucus production. Inhibition of COX enzymes does not result in a deficiency of arachidonic acid, which is a precursor for prostaglandins. NSAID use does not affect leukotriene production, which is independent of COX enzymes and causes bronchoconstriction but does not impact gastric mucus production.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 27 - A research group evaluating the effectiveness of a new exercise program in reducing...

    Incorrect

    • A research group evaluating the effectiveness of a new exercise program in reducing blood pressure. A group of 200 volunteers was recruited. Half of the volunteers were over the age of 50 and were given the exercise program. The other half of the volunteers were under the age of 50 and were not given the exercise program.

      The group was followed-up over the next 6 months. Blood pressure readings were taken at the beginning and end of the study. Results were divided into 2 categories: volunteers who had a decrease in blood pressure and volunteers who did not have a decrease in blood pressure.

      At the end of the study, the results obtained were as follows:

      Outcome Exercise program No exercise program
      Decrease in blood pressure (over 50 years old) 25 10
      Decrease in blood pressure (under 50 years old) 20 15
      No decrease in blood pressure (over 50 years old) 10 15
      No decrease in blood pressure (under 50 years old) 30 30

      The researchers are unsure of the significance of the results obtained.

      Which of the following statistical tests would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pearson's chi-square test

      Explanation:

      The paired t-test is a statistical test used to compare the means of two related groups, such as before and after measurements of the same individuals. It is appropriate when the data is continuous and normally distributed.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old, nursing student arrives at the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old, nursing student arrives at the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. The bleeding is controlled with silver nitrate cautery.

      Coincidentally, the doctor attending to her is also her nursing instructor. During their conversation about bleeding and clot formation, the nursing instructor explains that platelet disorders or a deficiency in thromboxane, a type of eicosanoid that aids in platelet aggregation and halts bleeding, can cause bleeding. Additionally, the nursing instructor mentions that thromboxane has another crucial role.

      What is another function of thromboxane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Thromboxane, which is produced by the action of thromboxane-A synthase on prostaglandin H2, not only promotes platelet aggregation but also acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor and hypertensive agent. By causing vasoconstriction, thromboxane reduces blood flow to the area where a clot has formed. It should be noted that thromboxane does not activate antithrombin or promote platelet degradation, contrary to the given incorrect answers.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a breast cancer diagnosis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a breast cancer diagnosis. The malfunction causing malignancy is related to the inability of apoptosis. Where are the receptors that trigger apoptosis located in cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membrane

      Explanation:

      The process of apoptosis is triggered when a membrane receptor binds to a ligand, which then leads to a series of intracellular reactions that ultimately culminate in apoptosis.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of constant fatigue. She has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of constant fatigue. She has no medical history. During the examination, her heart rate is found to be 56 beats per minute and regular. There is thinning of the lateral third of the eyebrows on both sides. Proximal myopathy is evident, with shoulder power of 4+/5. Her body mass index is elevated at 36 kg/m². The doctor prescribes medication, which successfully resolves her symptoms and signs. What type of receptor does this medication target, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nuclear receptor

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine exerts its effects through nuclear receptors, which are located inside the cell. This is the correct answer. The patient’s symptoms suggest hypothyroidism, which is commonly associated with fatigue, bradycardia, thinning of the outer third of eyebrows and proximal myopathy, and weight gain. To interact with a nuclear receptor, the substance must be lipid soluble.

      G protein-coupled receptors are not involved in the mechanism of action of levothyroxine. This answer is incorrect. Adrenaline is an example of a substance that acts through this receptor.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors are also not involved in the mechanism of action of levothyroxine. This answer is incorrect. Hormones such as atrial natriuretic peptide (BNP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) act through this receptor by cyclizing guanylate into cyclic GMP.

      Ion channel receptors are not involved in the mechanism of action of levothyroxine. This answer is incorrect. These receptors typically mediate fast responses, such as those mediated by GABA. Zolpidem is an example of a medication that acts through this receptor.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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