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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her endocrinologist for follow-up. She has a medical history of primary hyperparathyroidism and prolactinoma. After undergoing genetic testing, she was diagnosed with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) syndrome. She is planning to start a family and wants to know the likelihood of her child inheriting MEN1. Her partner has no known medical conditions.
What is the mode of inheritance for MEN1 syndrome?Your Answer: It is not an inherited condition
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance Patterns of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Syndromes
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are a group of rare genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the development of tumors in multiple endocrine glands. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these syndromes is crucial for genetic counseling and early detection of tumors.
MEN1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the menin gene. This means that if one parent carries the mutation, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their children. Over 1000 mutations have been described in this gene, leading to a loss of tumor-suppressor function and an increased risk of tumors in the parathyroid, pancreas, and pituitary gland, as well as other organs.
Cystic fibrosis, on the other hand, is an example of an autosomal recessive condition. If both parents carry the mutation, there is a 25% chance of their child inheriting the condition.
X-linked dominant and recessive conditions are also possible, but they do not apply to MEN syndromes. In X-linked dominant conditions, affected mothers have a 50% chance of passing the condition to their children, while in X-linked recessive conditions, females can only be carriers but can still pass the condition to their sons.
It is important to note that while most MEN syndromes are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, sporadic cases can also occur. In these cases, a family history may be absent because the parent with the disease may have died before symptoms developed. Genetic testing and counseling can help identify individuals at risk and provide appropriate management and surveillance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A child who is 4 years old has a height measurement that falls below the third centile. What is the most probable cause of their stunted growth?
Your Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Causes of Short Stature
Short stature is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause of short stature is familial short stature, which is inherited from parents. Maternal deprivation and chronic illnesses such as congenital heart disease can also lead to short stature, but these are less frequent causes. On the other hand, Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with tall stature. This genetic disorder affects males and is characterized by an extra X chromosome.
Another factor that can cause short stature is poorly controlled chronic diabetes. This condition can lead to malnutrition, delayed growth, and puberty. It is important to note that short stature does not necessarily indicate a health problem, as some people are naturally shorter than others. However, if short stature is accompanied by other symptoms such as delayed puberty or growth failure, it is important to seek medical attention. Overall, the various causes of short stature can help individuals and healthcare providers identify and address any underlying health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old HIV-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness and is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis. During examination, he exhibits hypotension and hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further testing reveals a diagnosis of Addison's disease. What is the most common biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Increased potassium
Explanation:Biochemical Findings in Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by primary adrenocortical insufficiency, which is caused by the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. The most prominent biochemical findings in patients with Addison’s disease are hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and mild non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. This article discusses the various biochemical changes that occur in Addison’s disease, including increased potassium, increased glucose, increased bicarbonate, increased sodium, and reduced urea. These changes are a result of the loss of gland function, which leads to reduced glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The sodium-retaining and potassium and hydrogen ion-secreting action of aldosterone is particularly affected, resulting in the biochemical changes noted above. The article also highlights the most common causes of Addison’s disease, including tuberculosis, autoimmune disease, and removal of exogenous steroid therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are asked to review a 27-year-old man who has had two episodes of pancreatitis. On reviewing his notes, the surgeons noticed that he appeared to have had a serum calcium of 3.2 mmol/l when it was checked at the general practice surgery a few weeks before the latest episode. Urinary calcium excretion is markedly reduced.
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Paget’s disease
Correct Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Differentiating Hyper- and Hypocalcaemia Disorders
One young male patient has experienced two episodes of pancreatitis due to hypercalcaemia. However, his urinary calcium levels are reduced, which suggests that he may have familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia. On the other hand, pseudohypoparathyroidism would result in hypocalcaemia, while hyperparathyroidism would cause hypercalcaemia without reducing urinary calcium excretion. Hypoparathyroidism would also lead to hypocalcaemia, but the calcium levels would be raised. Finally, Paget’s disease would not affect urinary calcium excretion. Therefore, it is crucial to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient presents with decompensated liver disease due to hepatocellular carcinoma. She is currently encephalopathic and has an INR of 6. What low-dose medication can be safely administered?
Your Answer: Codeine
Explanation:Adjusting Drug Dosages for Patients with Hepatic Impairment
Patients with hepatic impairment may require adjustments to their medication regimen to prevent further liver damage or reduced drug metabolism. Certain drugs should be avoided altogether, including paracetamol, carbamazepine, oral contraceptive pills, ergometrine, and anticoagulants or antiplatelets like aspirin or warfarin due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Other medications, such as opiates, methotrexate, theophylline, and phenytoin, may still be prescribed but at a reduced dose to minimize potential harm to the liver. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of each medication and adjust dosages accordingly for patients with hepatic impairment. Proper medication management can help improve patient outcomes and prevent further liver damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease?
Your Answer: Adrenaline
Correct Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Explanation:Cushing’s Disease
Cushing’s disease is a condition characterized by excessive cortisol production due to adrenal hyperfunction caused by an overproduction of ACTH from a pituitary corticotrophin adenoma. This results in both adrenal glands producing more cortisol and cortisol precursors. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary hypercortisolaemia, which can be done by measuring ACTH levels in the blood. If ACTH levels are not suppressed, it indicates secondary hypercortisolaemia, which is driven by either pituitary or ectopic ACTH production. the underlying cause of hypercortisolaemia is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for individuals with Cushing’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is a factor that can lead to a delay in bone maturation?
Your Answer: Obesity
Correct Answer: Newly diagnosed growth hormone deficiency in a 6-year-old girl
Explanation:Factors affecting bone age in children
Bone age, which refers to the degree of maturation of a child’s bones, can be influenced by various factors. In a child with normal thyroid function, bone age would be expected to be normal if they are receiving adequate treatment. However, in cases of growth hormone deficiency, bone age may be delayed. On the other hand, in cases of exogenous obesity resulting from over-nutrition and lack of exercise, bone age may be advanced.
If a child has an underlying endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism, their bone age may be delayed. Turner’s syndrome, a genetic disorder affecting females, is also associated with delayed bone age by approximately 2 years during childhood. Conversely, congenital adrenal hyperplasia and central precocious puberty can cause advanced bone age.
In summary, bone age can be affected by various factors, including thyroid function, growth hormone deficiency, obesity, endocrine disorders, and genetic conditions. these factors can help healthcare providers assess a child’s growth and development and provide appropriate treatment if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient presents to her doctor with complaints of excessive sweating and feeling very warm. Upon examination, no significant thyroid nodule is observed. The patient's blood tests reveal the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.1 µU/l 0.4–4.0 µU/l
Free thyroxine (T4) 30 pmol/l 10–20 pmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Graves’ disease
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Symptoms
Thyroid disorders are common and can cause a range of symptoms. Here are some of the most common thyroid disorders and their associated symptoms:
1. Graves’ disease: This is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in the UK. Symptoms include a low TSH and an elevated T4.
2. De Quervain’s thyroiditis: This is a subacute thyroiditis that can cause hypothyroidism.
3. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: This is an autoimmune disorder that is associated with hypothyroidism.
4. Toxic multinodular goitre: There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient has this condition.
5. Thyroid adenoma: Patients usually present with a neck lump, which is not seen in this case.
If you are experiencing any symptoms of a thyroid disorder, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is referred by his GP to the endocrine clinic after a blood test revealed hypercalcaemia. The man originally presented to his GP following episodes of abdominal pain and loin pain.
A thorough history from the patient reveals that his father had similar symptoms which started at the age of 49 but he later passed away from a pancreatic tumour. The patient’s grandfather also had a high calcium level, but the patient does not remember what happened to him. The Endocrinologist explains to the patient that he suffers from a disease which runs in the family and part of his treatment would involve the surgical removal of the majority of the parathyroid glands.
Which of the following should this patient also be considered at risk of?Your Answer: Thyroid medullary carcinoma
Correct Answer: Pancreatic islet cell tumour
Explanation:The patient’s hypercalcaemia is due to a parathyroid gland issue, not a germ cell tumour of the testis, which is not related to the MEN syndromes. Pineal gland tumours can cause sleep pattern abnormalities, but this is not the case for this patient. Phaeochromocytoma, a tumour of the adrenal glands, typically presents with headaches, high blood pressure, palpitations, and anxiety, and is part of MEN 2a and 2b, but not MEN 1. Thyroid medullary carcinoma, which is part of MEN 2a and 2b, presents with diarrhoea and often metastasises by the time of diagnosis, but is not associated with MEN 1. Pancreatic islet cell tumours, also known as pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours, are part of MEN 1 and can cause hypoglycaemia if they arise from insulin-producing cells. These tumours can be benign or malignant, with the majority being benign. MEN syndromes are rare and characterised by adenomas and adenocarcinomas, with specific pathologies varying depending on the type of MEN syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female with a two year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a two day history of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. She has been relatively anorexic and has cut down on her insulin today as she has not been able to eat that much.
On examination she has a sweet smell to her breath, has some loss of skin turgor, has a pulse of 102 bpm regular and a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally soft with some epigastric tenderness.
BM stix analysis reveals a glucose of 19 mmol/L (3.0-6.0).
What investigation would be the most important for this woman?Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: Blood gas analysis
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Diagnosis and Investigations
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. Symptoms include ketotic breath, vomiting, abdominal pain, and dehydration. To confirm the diagnosis, it is essential to prove the presence of acidosis and ketosis. The most urgent and important investigation is arterial or venous blood gas analysis, which can reveal the level of acidosis and low bicarbonate.
Other investigations that can be helpful include a full blood count (FBC) to show haemoconcentration and a raised white cell count, and urinalysis to detect glucose and ketones. However, venous or capillary ketones are needed to confirm DKA. A plasma glucose test is also part of the investigation, but it is not as urgent as the blood gas analysis.
An abdominal x-ray is not useful in diagnosing DKA, and a chest x-ray is only indicated if there are signs of a lower respiratory tract infection. Blood cultures are unlikely to grow anything, and amylase levels are often raised but do not provide diagnostic information in this case.
It is important to note that DKA can occur even if the plasma glucose level is normal. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A floppy 1-month-old infant presented with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrated hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirmed metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician noticed that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of genetic conditions that affect the production of hormones and steroids from the adrenal glands. The most common cause is a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This leads to overactivity of the steroid-producing cells and inadequate cortisol production, resulting in an excess of mineralocorticoids and androgens/oestrogens. Symptoms can include ambiguous genitalia at birth in females, hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement in males, and biochemical abnormalities such as hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy. Addisonian crisis is a potentially fatal episode caused by glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood and precipitated by stress. It presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia and hypercalcaemia, and is managed with urgent administration of glucocorticoids. Conn syndrome is associated with primary hyperaldosteronism and presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. Cushing syndrome is due to cortisol excess and presents with weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia and skin pigmentation. Thyrotoxic crisis is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones, presenting with a range of symptoms including tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures and coma. Prompt treatment is essential to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in the endocrine system?
Your Answer: Anterior pituitary
Explanation:The Thyroid Hormone Axis
The thyroid hormone axis is a complex system that involves the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland. The hypothalamus produces a hormone called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and tri-iodothyronine (T3).
Both T4 and T3 are primarily bound to proteins in the bloodstream, but it is the free, unbound hormones that are biologically active. The secretion of TSH is inhibited by the presence of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream. This negative feedback loop helps to regulate the levels of thyroid hormones in the body.
In summary, the thyroid hormone axis is a tightly regulated system that involves multiple hormones and glands working together to maintain proper levels of thyroid hormones in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of cold intolerance, constipation, weight gain, hair loss, and irregular periods. Her thyroid function tests reveal low levels of both serum T4 and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Despite administering thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), there is no expected increase in TSH. What is the most probable reason for the patient's hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes and Indicators of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by low levels of thyroid hormones in the body. There are several causes and indicators of hypothyroidism, including secondary hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, tertiary hypothyroidism, and T4 receptor insensitivity.
Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when there is a pituitary defect or a hypothalamic defect, resulting in decreased levels of both serum T4 and serum TSH. A pituitary defect can be indicated by the failure of TSH to increase after injection of TRH.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that leads to primary hypothyroidism, with low serum T4 and increased levels of serum TSH.
Iodine deficiency causes hypothyroidism due to inadequate iodine being available for thyroid hormone production. TSH plasma levels are increased as a result of loss of negative feedback, similar to primary hypothyroidism.
Tertiary hypothyroidism, or a hypothalamic defect, is indicated by a normal to prolonged increase in TSH after injection of TRH.
T4 receptor insensitivity also presents with signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. The negative feedback effects of T4 would also be affected, leading to increased serum TSH and increased serum T4 levels.
Overall, understanding the causes and indicators of hypothyroidism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation
Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.
De Quervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.
In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Correct
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A patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his regular blood test.
Which of the following results would you expect?Your Answer: Elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs
Explanation:Understanding Lipoprotein Lipase and its Effects on Lipid Levels
Lipoprotein lipase plays a crucial role in the metabolism of lipids in the body. Its deficiency can result in various lipid abnormalities, which can be classified according to the Fredrickson classification of hyperlipoproteinaemias. Familial hyperchylomicronaemia, a type I primary hyperlipidaemia, is characterized by elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs due to lipoprotein lipase deficiency. On the other hand, lipoprotein lipase is not directly involved in LDL levels, which are influenced by LDL-receptor and lipoprotein lipase C. Similarly, low VLDL levels are not expected in the absence of lipoprotein lipase, as it is important in hydrolysing both chylomicrons and VLDLs. Overall, understanding the role of lipoprotein lipase can help in identifying and managing lipid abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female trainee solicitor has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on her work for the past 2 months. She has been complaining that the work area is too hot. She appears nervous and has a fine tremor. Despite eating more, she has lost 4 kg in the last month. During a physical examination, her temperature is 37.8 °C, pulse is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 per minute, and blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg. She has a wide, staring gaze and lid lag. What is the most likely laboratory finding in this woman?
Your Answer: Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Correct Answer: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:Understanding Thyroid Axis: Interpretation of Hormone Levels in Hyperthyroidism
Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by increased production of free thyroxine (T4 and T3) leading to a decrease in thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) production at the pituitary gland. This results in a hypermetabolic state induced by excess thyroid hormone and overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system. Ocular changes such as a wide, staring gaze and lid lag are common. However, true thyroid ophthalmopathy associated with proptosis is seen only in Graves’ disease.
Decreased plasma insulin indicates diabetes mellitus, while increased TSH in this setting indicates secondary hyperthyroidism, a rare condition caused by pathology at the level of the pituitary. Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is not related to the patient’s symptoms, and increased calcitonin is not a feature of hyperthyroidism but may indicate medullary thyroid cancers. Understanding the interpretation of hormone levels in hyperthyroidism is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite, and weight gain. Her blood work shows low levels of free T3 and T4, as well as low levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Even after receiving thyrotrophin releasing hormone, her TSH levels remain low. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormones. There are three types of hypothyroidism: primary, secondary, and tertiary.
Primary hypothyroidism is caused by a malfunctioning thyroid gland, often due to autoimmune thyroiditis or burnt out Grave’s disease. In this type, TRH and TSH levels are elevated, but T3 and T4 levels are low.
Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when the anterior pituitary gland fails to produce enough TSH, despite adequate TRH levels. This results in low levels of TSH, T3, and T4, even after a TRH stimulation test.
Tertiary hypothyroidism is rare and occurs when the hypothalamus fails to produce enough TRH. All three hormones are inappropriately low in this type.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a form of autoimmune thyroid disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid. It is a form of primary hypothyroidism.
De Quervain’s thyroiditis is a subacute thyroiditis, usually viral, which causes a transient period of primary hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism in addition to a tender thyroid.
Understanding the different types of hypothyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for the past two months. He reports feeling tenderness and swelling during a squash match. Upon examination, palpable breast tissue is noted in both breasts with tenderness specifically in the right breast. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males
This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete beta HCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP).
It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and would not be associated with gynaecomastia. Therefore, in young males presenting with gynaecomastia and a testicular lesion, a teratoma should be considered as a possible diagnosis. Early detection and treatment are crucial for the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy who attends a regular school has been brought to the clinic due to his short stature. He measures 3 cm below the third centile for his age and weighs 800 grams less than the third centile. His bone age is 4.5 years. The boy's mother and father have heights on the 30th and 60th centiles, respectively.
Which of the following statements is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Findings of poorly felt femoral pulses suggest that chromosome analysis might be required
Explanation:Factors to Consider in Evaluating Growth and Puberty Delay
When evaluating a child’s growth and puberty delay, it is important to consider the family history of delayed growth and puberty. A single measurement of growth is not enough to determine if there is a growth hormone deficiency or thyroid disease. It is also important to check for poorly felt femoral pulses, which may indicate coarctation and Turner’s syndrome.
Constitutional short stature is the most common reason for growth delay. To assess growth velocity, another measurement of growth is necessary. It is important to take into account all of these factors when evaluating a child’s growth and puberty delay to ensure an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan. Proper evaluation and management can help prevent potential complications and improve the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to his GP with a painless neck lump. He has a history of hyperparathyroidism. During the examination, the lump is found to be irregular and fixed at his thyroid. He is worried about cancer, as his father died in his 50s due to a phaeochromocytoma. What type of thyroid cancer is most likely in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medullary
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 and its Associated Neoplasms
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) is a genetic disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three types of MEN, namely MEN1, MEN2a, and MEN2b. Each type is associated with specific neoplasms. MEN1 is associated with pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreatic tumors, while MEN2a is associated with phaeochromocytoma, parathyroid, and medullary thyroid cancer. MEN2b, on the other hand, is associated with phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuromas.
Medullary thyroid cancer is a neoplasm associated with both MEN2a and MEN2b. Patients with a family history of phaeochromocytoma, previous hyperparathyroidism, and suspected thyroid cancer are at high risk of having MEN2. However, lymphoma, anaplastic thyroid cancer, follicular thyroid cancer, and papillary thyroid cancer are not associated with MEN2.
Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated neoplasms is crucial in the diagnosis and management of patients with endocrine disorders. Early detection and treatment can improve the prognosis and quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics.
What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, commonly caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. FSH levels may be low due to the inhibitory effect of raised prolactin, but this is not diagnostic. A skull X-ray may show an enlarged pituitary fossa, but only with large adenomas, making it an inappropriate investigation. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferable to CT for further investigation into the cause of hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to collect his urine for 24 hours. What level of urine albumin concentration indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50 mg/day
Explanation:Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria
Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not only an early indicator of renal involvement but also a sign of increased cardiovascular risk, with a twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful surrogate of the total albumin excretion, and it is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. An albumin:creatinine ratio of ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women) indicates microalbuminuria, while a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol indicates proteinuria. these conditions is crucial in managing and preventing complications associated with renal and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a consistent blood pressure reading of >140/90 mmHg. Laboratory tests indicate a serum potassium level of 2.8 mmol/l. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, it is discovered that an external radiology report had previously noted a small retroperitoneal mass of unknown significance. What would be the anticipated serum renin and aldosterone levels in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased renin; increased aldosterone
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship between Renin and Aldosterone Levels in Different Conditions
Renin and aldosterone are two important hormones involved in regulating blood pressure and electrolyte balance in the body. The levels of these hormones can vary in different conditions, providing important clues for diagnosis and treatment.
Decreased renin and increased aldosterone levels are typically seen in Conn syndrome, which is caused by a functioning adenoma in the adrenal cortex. This results in overproduction of aldosterone and a negative feedback loop that reduces renin levels.
On the other hand, increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels are characteristic of primary adrenal insufficiency, which can be caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands or other factors. This leads to a different clinical picture and requires different management.
A rare finding is decreased renin and aldosterone levels, which can occur in pseudohypoaldosteronism and Liddle’s syndrome. These conditions are associated with genetic mutations that affect the regulation of sodium channels in the kidneys.
Increased renin and aldosterone levels are seen in secondary hyperaldosteronism, which can be caused by various conditions such as renal artery stenosis, congestive cardiac failure, nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis, and renin-secreting tumors.
Finally, normal renin levels with increased aldosterone levels suggest a negative feedback effect of aldosterone on renin production. This can occur in various conditions such as primary hyperaldosteronism or other forms of secondary hyperaldosteronism.
In summary, understanding the relationship between renin and aldosterone levels can provide important insights into the underlying pathophysiology of different conditions and guide appropriate management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has diabetes controlled by diet. Her sugars have been running at 13 mmol/l; HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol, and she has a body mass index of 32.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Type II Diabetes: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
When a patient presents with an HbA1c of >48 mmol/mol, it is important to commence treatment for their type II diabetes. The first-line treatment for overweight individuals who are not adequately controlled with diet is metformin. However, dietary advice should always be given and reinforced, as it is clear that this patient’s diabetes is not being controlled with diet alone.
If the HbA1c is still high on metformin monotherapy, gliclazide or pioglitazone can be used in conjunction with metformin. Insulin would only be considered if dual therapy was found to be ineffective or if there were intolerable side-effects from oral hypoglycaemic agents. It is important to note that insulin would likely worsen this patient’s obesity.
As healthcare professionals, it is our responsibility to stay up-to-date on the latest treatment options for type II diabetes and to work with our patients to find the best course of action for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man visits his primary care physician for his annual check-up, reporting constant fatigue and thirst. He has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and obesity. The doctor orders a screening for type II diabetes and the results are as follows:
Test Result Normal Range
HbA1C 48 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
Fasting plasma glucose 7.2 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 90 ml/min > 90 ml/min
Which of the following is included in the diagnostic criteria for type II diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose ≥7.0 mmol/l
Explanation:To diagnose diabetes, several criteria must be met. One way is to measure fasting plasma glucose levels, which should be at least 7.0 mmol/l after an eight-hour fast. Another method is to test for HbA1C levels, which should be at least 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) using a certified and standardized method. A 2-hour plasma glucose test after a 75 g glucose load should result in levels of at least 11.1 mmol/l. If a patient exhibits classic symptoms of diabetes or hyperglycemic crisis, a random plasma glucose test should show levels of at least 11.1 mmol/l. All results should be confirmed by repeat testing. It’s important to note that 1-hour plasma glucose levels are not used in the diagnostic criteria for type II diabetes, but are part of screening tests for gestational diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the neck, particularly when swallowing. She reports having had a viral respiratory infection a week ago. Upon examination, an enlarged thyroid, heart palpitations and excessive sweating are noted. Further tests reveal elevated ESR, leukocytosis, thyroid antibodies and low TSH levels. Additionally, a radionuclide thyroid uptake test shows decreased iodide uptake. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: de Quervain's thyroiditis
Explanation:Differentiating Thyroid Disorders: A Comparison of De Quervain’s, Graves’, Hashimoto’s, Subacute Lymphocytic, and Riedel’s Thyroiditis
Thyroid disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, also known as subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, typically affects women after a viral respiratory infection. Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis may occur initially, but the disease can progress to hypothyroidism with thyroid gland destruction. In contrast, Graves’ disease is characterized by a markedly increased uptake of iodine on a radionuclide thyroid test. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that can present with a hyperthyroid phase, but the patient is unlikely to experience fever and neck pain. Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis occurs only after pregnancy, while Riedel’s thyroiditis is a rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis of the thyroid gland, mimicking a carcinoma. Understanding the unique features of each thyroid disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient is undergoing treatment with recombinant human growth hormone (GH). What is a known side effect of GH therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Side Effects of Recombinant Human Growth Hormone Treatment
Recombinant human growth hormone (hGH) treatment is associated with several side effects. One of the most common side effects is raised intracranial pressure (ICP) with a normal MRI, which is a secondary form of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH). This is believed to be caused by the antidiuretic effect of hGH, particularly in patients with impaired renal homeostasis. However, in patients with intact homeostatic mechanisms, hGH can elevate plasma renin and aldosterone, which counteracts the antidiuretic effect. If IIH is diagnosed, hGH treatment should be stopped and resumed at a lower dose if IIH resolves.
Aside from IIH, other recognized side effects of hGH include slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), malignancies, gynaecomastia, and impaired glucose metabolism. However, melanoma, osteoporosis, prostatic hypertrophy, and prolongation of the QT interval are not commonly recognized side effects of hGH treatment. It is important to monitor patients closely for these side effects and adjust treatment accordingly to minimize any potential harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling ‘run down’. She reports increasing fatigue and lethargy over the past few months. Her appetite is poor, but she is gaining weight, and she is experiencing constipation. On examination, her skin is dry and cold. She has a painless midline neck swelling, which feels irregular and rubbery. The GP orders blood tests to investigate the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
What would you anticipate to observe on the thyroid function tests?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TSH: high; free T4: low; free T3: low
Explanation:The levels of TSH, free T4, and free T3 can provide insight into the functioning of the thyroid gland. High TSH and low free T4 and free T3 levels suggest Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, a type of autoimmune primary hypothyroidism. Low TSH and high free T4 and free T3 levels indicate primary hyperthyroidism, such as Graves’ disease. Low TSH and low free T4 and free T3 levels suggest secondary or tertiary hypothyroidism. High TSH and normal free T4 and free T3 levels suggest subclinical hypothyroidism, which may progress to primary hypothyroidism. Low TSH and normal free T4 and free T3 levels suggest subclinical hyperthyroidism, which may progress to primary hyperthyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has been progressively worsening. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly.
What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels
Explanation:Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for investigating pituitary tumors, which are a common cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to assess whether a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not specific to acromegaly and is part of the physical exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a thyroid lump and you suspect she may have follicular carcinoma of the thyroid. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spreads mainly via blood
Explanation:Thyroid Carcinoma: Diagnosis and Management
Thyroid carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland. There are different types of thyroid carcinoma, including follicular, papillary, anaplastic, and medullary carcinomas. The spread of the cancer varies depending on the type of carcinoma.
Follicular carcinoma spreads mainly via the bloodstream, while papillary and medullary carcinomas spread via the lymphatic system. Anaplastic cancer spreads locally. The prognosis for thyroid carcinoma is generally good, with a 90% survival rate at 10 years, especially in young people without local or metastatic spread.
The initial treatment for differentiated thyroid carcinoma, such as follicular and papillary carcinomas, is total or near-total thyroidectomy. Fine needle aspiration cytology can help differentiate between follicular adenoma and carcinoma, but a thyroid lobectomy is often necessary to confirm the diagnosis. The distinguishing features of follicular carcinoma are vascular invasion and capsule invasion, which can only be seen accurately on a full histological specimen.
Solitary thyroid nodules are best investigated using a combination of clinical examination, thyroid function tests, ultrasound and radio-isotope scans, and often FNA. Thyroid tumours can be classified as adenomas, carcinomas, and lymphomas. Carcinomas can be further sub-classified as papillary, follicular, anaplastic, or medullary.
In conclusion, the diagnosis and management of thyroid carcinoma require a multidisciplinary approach. Early detection and treatment can lead to a good prognosis, but accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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