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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

      Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.

      For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.

      For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.

      Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour history of a pruritic rash. He mentions having recently recuperated from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. The patient has a diffuse urticarial rash on his trunk and limbs. There are no signs of mucosal swelling, he is stable hemodynamically, and his chest is clear upon auscultation.

      What is the most effective course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral non-sedating antihistamine

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for acute urticaria is oral non-sedating antihistamines. These include cetirizine, fexofenadine, or loratadine. Urticarial rash is caused by inflammatory mediators released during mast cell activation, with histamine being the principal mediator. H1 receptor antagonists inhibit this process. Non-sedating antihistamines are preferred over sedating antihistamines as they do not cause significant drowsiness, as they do not cross the blood-brain barrier. Intramuscular adrenaline is not indicated for acute urticaria, as it is only used in suspected anaphylaxis. Oral steroids may be prescribed in addition to a non-sedative oral antihistamine if the symptoms are severe. Topical antihistamines are not recommended by NICE for the management of acute urticaria.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Humidity

      Explanation:

      Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.

      Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.

      Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her left cheek. She reports that the lesion has been present for a while but has recently increased in size. Upon examination, it is evident that she has significant sun damage on her face, legs, and arms due to living in South Africa. The lesion appears flat, pigmented, and has an irregular border.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lentigo maligna

      Explanation:

      Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

      Lentigo Maligna: This pre-invasive lesion has the potential to develop into malignant melanoma. It appears as a pigmented, flat lesion against sun-damaged skin. Surgical excision is the ideal intervention, but cryotherapy and topical immunotherapy are possible alternatives.

      Squamous Cell Carcinoma: This common type of skin cancer presents as enlarging scaly or crusted nodules, often associated with ulceration. It may arise in areas of actinic keratoses or Bowen’s disease.

      Basal Cell Carcinoma: This skin cancer usually occurs in photo-exposed areas of fair-skinned individuals. It looks like pearly nodules with surface telangiectasia.

      Pityriasis Versicolor: This is a common yeast infection of the skin that results in an annular, erythematous scaling rash on the trunk.

      Actinic Keratosis: These scaly lesions occur in sun-damaged skin in fair-skinned individuals and are considered to be a pre-cancerous form of SCC.

      Understanding Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a rash that came on about two weeks ago.

      She tells you that it started with some 'itchy red lumps around the belly-button' and has progressed. She has an itchy blistering rash that is most prominent around her umbilicus, but over the last few days has spread to the surrounding trunk, back and proximal limbs.

      You note a few tense, fluid-filled blisters. The rash appears slightly raised and plaque-like. Her head, face, hands and feet are spared; her mouth and mucous membranes are also unaffected. She is systemically well.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are specific dermatological conditions that should be considered when assessing a skin complaint. However, it is important to note that pregnancy doesn’t exclude the usual causes of rashes, and infectious causes must also be considered as they may pose a risk to the developing fetus.

      One such condition is pemphigoid gestationis (PG), an autoimmune blistering condition that causes fluid-filled blisters on an itchy rash, typically starting around the umbilicus. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines are used for milder cases, while oral steroids may be necessary for more severe disease.

      Cholestasis of pregnancy causes generalised pruritus, particularly affecting the palms and soles, and is typically seen in the latter half of pregnancy. Symptoms resolve after delivery, but recurrence occurs in up to 40% of pregnancies. Abnormal liver function tests are also seen.

      Parvovirus, although uncommon in pregnancy, can cause serious fetal complications, including hydrops, growth retardation, anaemia, and hepatomegaly. It typically causes a slapped cheek rash followed by a lace-pattern rash on the limbs and trunk. Approximately 1 in 10 of those affected in the first half of pregnancy will miscarry, and in the remainder, there is a 1% risk of congenital abnormality.

      Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, also known as pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), is characterised by an itchy rash of pink papules that occurs in the stretch marks of the abdomen in the third trimester. It clears with delivery and is thought to be related to an allergy to the stretch marks.

      Varicella can cause a vesicular rash, but the description of tense blisters in combination with the rash distribution and other features are typical of PG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.

      If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.

      It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers

      Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.

      In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.

      To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her feet, accompanied by several flat brown lesions. These are scattered on a background of erythema and scaling.
      What would be the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone ointment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Palmoplantar Pustulosis

      Palmoplantar pustulosis is a skin condition that is linked to psoriasis and is more common in women over 50. It is characterized by erythematous skin with yellow pustules that settle to form brown macules on the palms and soles of the hands and feet. Here are some treatment options for this condition:

      Betamethasone Ointment: This is a potent topical steroid that is effective in treating palmoplantar pustulosis.

      Calcipotriol + Betamethasone: While the steroid component would be beneficial, calcipotriol is not used to treat palmoplantar pustulosis, which is where the management differs from plaque psoriasis.

      Barrier Cream: A barrier cream is used to create a barrier between the skin and a potential irritant, so is useful in conditions such as contact dermatitis. Palmoplantar pustulosis is not caused by an irritant, so this would not be helpful.

      Flucloxacillin Capsules: There is no indication that this is a bacterial infection, so there would be no role for antibiotics in this patient’s management.

      Terbinafine Cream: A fungal infection would not cause pustules, so there is no indication for using an antifungal treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He has a sizable, keratinised genital wart on the shaft of his penis that has been there for approximately three months. Due to embarrassment, he has delayed seeking medical attention. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryotherapy

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of genital warts, cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts, while topical podophyllum is suggested for multiple, non-keratinised warts. As the wart is keratinised, cryotherapy should be the first choice of treatment.

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old diabetic woman comes to the clinic with a fungal infection on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old diabetic woman comes to the clinic with a fungal infection on her left big toenail. She is bothered by the appearance of the nail when wearing sandals, as the entire nail seems to be affected.

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Fungal Nail Infections

      According to clinical evidence, the most effective treatments for fungal nail infections are oral terbinafine and oral itraconazole. Topical treatments such as amorolfine and terbinafine have no good quality evidence to support their use, although topical ciclopirox may be effective. While various topical agents may be recommended for mild disease, oral treatment is usually required for a cure.

      It is important to note that topical treatments should only be considered if less than eighty percent of the nail is involved, or there are two or less nails affected. In diabetics or those with vascular disease, fungal nail infections can be a portal for bacterial infection and subsequent cellulitis, making effective treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
      Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area

      Explanation:

      Management of Burn Injuries

      Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion on the dorsal side of her left hand that has grown in size over the last six months. She reports that it disappeared during the summer but has now reappeared. The lesion is asymptomatic. On examination, you observe an annular plaque without any scaling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Explanation:

      A common presentation of granuloma annulare involves the development of circular lesions on the skin. In contrast, tinea often presents as a rash with scales.

      Understanding Granuloma Annulare

      Granuloma annulare is a skin condition characterized by papular lesions that are slightly hyperpigmented and depressed in the center. These lesions typically appear on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, as well as on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. While there have been associations proposed between granuloma annulare and conditions such as diabetes mellitus, the evidence for these links is weak.

      Despite the lack of clear associations with other conditions, granuloma annulare can still be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for those who experience it. The lesions can be unsightly and may cause itching or discomfort. Treatment options for granuloma annulare include topical or oral medications, as well as light therapy in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.

      What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor injury to her knee while playing soccer and her father is worried that it might be infected. The injury occurred 3 weeks ago and was described as a scrape. Upon examination, you observe a well-healed superficial abrasion on the skin, with several small, raised pink bumps with a central dimple surrounding the scrape. The skin around the wound is not red and feels cool to the touch. Additionally, you notice a cluster of similar bumps on her back. Her father reports that these bumps have been present for approximately 7 months.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum, a viral lesion commonly seen in children, can exhibit the Koebner phenomenon, which causes lesions to appear at sites of injury. Unlike contact dermatitis, there is no history of exposure to chemicals. Chickenpox presents with a shorter time frame and a rash that blisters and scabs over, while pompholyx eczema is typically found on the hands and soles of the feet. The presence of cool surrounding skin suggests that a bacterial infection is unlikely.

      The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.

      This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.

      The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.

      In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.

      In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne. On physical examination, it is noted that the majority of the lesions are closed and open comedones with very few inflamed lesions. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adapalene

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Comedonal Acne

      Comedonal acne, characterized by blackheads and whiteheads, can be effectively treated with topical preparations. The first-line treatment is topical retinoids such as adapalene, tretinoin, or isotretinoin, followed by azelaic acid or benzoyl peroxide. While some initial redness and skin peeling may occur, this typically subsides over time. If excessive irritation occurs, treatment should be reduced or suspended until the reaction subsides. Adapalene is the preferred option due to its low irritation potential. Treatment should be applied once daily to all affected areas and continued until no new lesions appear. Topical retinoids are not recommended during pregnancy, and women of childbearing age should use effective contraception.

      Topical retinoids work by normalizing follicular keratinization, promoting comedone drainage, and inhibiting new comedone formation. They are also effective at treating inflammation by inhibiting microcomedone formation, as supported by evidence from placebo-controlled trials. In severe cases, manual extraction of sebum using a comedone extractor may be necessary, along with benzoyl peroxide for inflamed lesions. Topical antibiotics are ineffective against non-inflamed lesions, while systemic antibiotics are used for inflamed lesions and systemic retinoids for severe acne or treatment failures.

      Managing Comedonal Acne: Topical Treatment Options and Considerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health concerns and is not taking any regular medications. During the consultation, he requests a brief examination of his toenail, which has recently changed in appearance without any known cause. Specifically, the nail on his right big toe is thickened and yellowed at the outer edge. Although he experiences no discomfort or other symptoms, he is curious about the cause of this change.

      What initial management approach would you recommend in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment necessary if he is happy to leave it; give self-care advice

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a fungal nail infection that is asymptomatic and doesn’t bother them in terms of appearance, treatment may not be necessary according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, if treatment is desired, topical antifungal treatment for 9-12 months may be appropriate for minor involvement of a single nail. Liver function tests should be checked before prescribing oral antifungal medication such as terbinafine. Self-care advice can be given to the patient, including keeping feet clean and dry, wearing breathable socks and footwear, and avoiding going barefoot in changing rooms. Referral to podiatry is not necessary unless the patient is unable to perform their own foot-care. Swabbing the skin for microscopy and culture may not be useful in cases where the skin is not involved.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses

      Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.

      On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.

      In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests reveal:

      Calcium 2.78 mmol/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum

      Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body, such as the forearms and thighs. Fortunately, erythema nodosum usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.

      There are several potential causes of erythema nodosum. Infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis can trigger the condition. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s syndrome may also be responsible. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be linked to malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs, including penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also cause erythema nodosum.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes of erythema nodosum can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment. While the condition can be uncomfortable, it typically resolves on its own within a few weeks.

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  • Question 21 - A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male patient comes in for a follow-up after being on lymecycline and topical adapalene for three months to treat moderate acne vulgaris. He reports a positive response to the treatment with only occasional breakouts on his forehead. He has no allergies and is not on any other medications.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop lymecycline and continue adapalene

      Explanation:

      When treating acne vulgaris, it is important to limit the use of a single oral antibiotic to a maximum of three months. Additionally, it is recommended to review the treatment plan every 8-12 weeks. If topical treatments are not effective for moderate acne, an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline can be added for a maximum of three months to prevent antibiotic resistance. Once the acne has cleared or improved significantly, maintenance therapy with topical retinoids or azelaic acid should be considered as first-line options, unless contraindicated.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek that has been present for 3 days. The area is red, warm, slightly tender, and measures 2 cm in diameter. She has no significant medical history except for a penicillin allergy. She is not experiencing fever and the rash appears to be a mild facial cellulitis without any involvement of the periorbital or orbital regions. What course of treatment do you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin 500mg bd 1 week

      Explanation:

      For adults with mild facial cellulitis, the recommended treatment is a 7-day course of co-amoxiclav or clarithromycin for those with a penicillin allergy. A review should be arranged after 48 hours, either by telephone or face-to-face, depending on clinical judgement.

      Urgent hospital admission is necessary for patients with red flags such as Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, immunocompromised individuals, very young or frail patients, those with significant lymphoedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis unless it is very mild. For Eron Class II cellulitis, admission may not be necessary if the community has the facilities and expertise to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient, subject to local guidelines.

      The Eron classification system can assist in determining the appropriate level of care and treatment. Class I patients show no signs of systemic toxicity and have no uncontrolled co-morbidities. Class II patients are either systemically unwell or have a comorbidity that may complicate or delay resolution of infection. Class III patients have significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infections due to vascular compromise. Class IV patients have sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection such as necrotising fasciitis.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 23 - A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

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  • Question 24 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 25 - You see a 38-year-old woman being treated for a fungal infection of one...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 38-year-old woman being treated for a fungal infection of one of her great toenails. This was causing her discomfort with walking and so treatment was felt appropriate. Nail clippings confirmed a dermatophyte infection. She has been taking oral terbinafine for this for the last 3 months and is seen today for review.

      When the oral terbinafine was started a notch was filed at the base of the nail abnormality.

      On examination the abnormal nail has remained distal to the notch as the nail has grown out.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the terbinafine and add in a topical antifungal in combination

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Fungal Nail Infections

      Fungal nail infections may require extended periods of oral antifungal treatment. It is important to monitor the patient for any nail growth 3-6 months after treatment initiation. To aid in this monitoring process, consider filing a notch at the base of the most abnormal nail at the start of treatment. This notch can serve as a reference point for comparing old and new nail growth during follow-up appointments.

      If the abnormal nail remains distal to the notch as it grows out, no further treatment is necessary. However, if the abnormal nail moves proximal to the notch, this indicates that the infection is still present and further treatment is needed. By closely monitoring nail growth and responding appropriately, healthcare providers can effectively manage fungal nail infections.

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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques with clusters of small vesicles. These are present in a band on the left side of the body extending from the lower dorsal area of the back around the front of the abdomen but not crossing the midline. The rash has been present for 48 hours.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe for a patient presenting at this stage of the illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

      Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a viral infection that affects a specific dermatome. It is recommended to start antiviral treatment, such as aciclovir, within 72 hours of rash onset for individuals over 50 years old. Aciclovir has been shown to reduce the duration of symptoms and the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia. It is also indicated for those with ophthalmic herpes zoster, non-truncal rash, moderate to severe pain or rash, and immunocompromised individuals. Prednisolone may be added to aciclovir, but results are mixed. Pain relief can be achieved with co-codamol, but stronger medications may be necessary. Amitriptyline or gabapentin may be used for post-herpetic neuralgia. Antiviral treatment is not recommended for immunocompetent children with mild symptoms.

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  • Question 27 - A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical steroids. He is aware of the potential side effects of continuous topical steroid use and asked about the recommended duration of break between courses of treatment according to NICE guidelines.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aim for a break of 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Psoriasis with Topical Treatments

      Psoriasis patients are advised by NICE to take a break of at least 4 weeks between courses of treatment with potent or very potent corticosteroids. During this period, patients should consider using topical treatments that are not steroid-based, such as vitamin D or vitamin D analogues, or coal tar to maintain psoriasis disease control. These topical treatments can help manage psoriasis symptoms and prevent flare-ups. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs. By incorporating non-steroid topical treatments into their psoriasis management plan, patients can achieve better control of their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash that started as circular lesions on his trunk and limbs and has now spread to his face, lips, and mouth. He also reports flu-like symptoms and headache. On examination, he has marked facial and lip swelling with crusty sores, blistering, and ulceration in the oral cavity, as well as an erythematous rash on the trunk with small vesicles and bullae. What medication is linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but known negative effect of lamotrigine treatment. This skin condition typically manifests within a few days of starting the medication and can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia. Painful erythema with blisters or ulcers is a hallmark of the syndrome, which can progress to areas of confluent erythema with skin loss. Mucosal involvement is also common, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, upper respiratory tract (causing cough and respiratory distress), genitalia, and gastrointestinal tract (resulting in diarrhoea).

      Other drugs, such as aspirin, macrolides, opiates, and cyclosporin, can also cause drug rashes. Exanthematous eruptions are a common type of drug rash, characterised by pink-to-red macules that blanch on pressure.

      Urticaria and erythema multiforme are other types of drug-related rashes. Aspirin and anticonvulsants are associated with erythema multiforme, which typically presents as spot or target lesions and doesn’t involve mucosal tissues.

      Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.

      Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 29 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

    She is known to...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

      She is known to suffer with chronic plaque psoriasis and in the past has suffered with extensive disease. On reviewing her notes she was recently started on a new tablet by her consultant psychiatrist.

      Which if the following tablets is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis Triggers and Medications

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by various factors. One of the triggers is a streptococcal infection, which can cause guttate psoriasis. Stress, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption are also known to be implicated in the development of psoriasis. In addition, certain medications have been identified as potential triggers, including lithium, indomethacin, chloroquine, NSAIDs, and beta-blockers. Among these medications, lithium is considered the most likely culprit. It is important for individuals with psoriasis to be aware of these triggers and to avoid them whenever possible to manage their condition effectively.

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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on the border of her left lower lip. She reports that she had a similar episode before and that topical hydrogen peroxide did not help.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Explanation:

      If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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  • Question 31 - A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences worsening of his dermatitis due to irritants at work. What is the most frequent irritant that leads to contact dermatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soap and cleaning agents

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen. The most common causes of contact dermatitis include soap and cleaning agents, which can affect people in various fields, especially cleaners and healthcare workers. Wet work is also a significant cause of dermatitis. Latex, particularly in the form of latex-powdered gloves, used to be a common irritant, but the use of latex-free gloves has reduced its occurrence. Nickel found in jewelry can cause a localized reaction, but it is less common than dermatitis caused by soap and cleaning products. Acrylics can also cause contact dermatitis, but they are less common than other irritants. Natural fibers like cotton are less likely to cause a dermatitis reaction compared to synthetic fibers.

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  • Question 32 - As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • As part of your role in coordinating the introduction of the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) to the surgery, the Practice Manager has asked you to identify which age group should be offered the vaccine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All adults aged 70-79 years

      Explanation:

      Serologic studies reveal that adults aged 60 years and above have been exposed to Chickenpox to a great extent. Hence, it is recommended that individuals within the age range of 70-79 years should receive the vaccine, irrespective of their memory of having had Chickenpox. However, the vaccine may not be as efficacious in individuals above 80 years of age.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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  • Question 33 - An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks are affected as is the bridge of the nose. The erythema began in the paranasal areas and has spread to both cheeks rapidly. The affected area is bright red, firm, swollen and painful. The edge of the erythema is sharply defined and raised. She has been feeling hot and has been shivering. No other symptoms are reported.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erysipelas

      Erysipelas is a condition that is typically diagnosed based on clinical symptoms. It usually comes on suddenly and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever. The condition is commonly found on the lower limbs or the face, with facial involvement often manifesting as a butterfly distribution on the cheeks and nasal bridge. The affected skin is characterized by a sharp, well-defined raised border and is bright red, firm, and swollen. In severe cases, dimpling, blistering, and necrosis can occur. While cellulitis shares some clinical features with erysipelas, it doesn’t demonstrate the same clear swelling. Erysipelas is predominantly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Other conditions that can cause skin flushing and redness include carcinoid syndrome, mitral stenosis, rosacea, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Carcinoid syndrome is associated with neuroendocrine tumors that produce hormones, while mitral stenosis can cause a malar flush across the cheeks. Rosacea is a skin condition that affects the face and causes redness and blushing, while systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that can have multi-organ involvement and is characterized by a photosensitive malar butterfly rash.

      Overall, the sudden onset and associated fever make erysipelas the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.

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  • Question 34 - An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.

      A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.

      While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.

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  • Question 35 - A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points to a hard horn-like lesion sticking up from his left pinna for about 0.5 cm. It has a slightly indurated fleshy base.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Horns and the Risk of Squamous Cell Carcinoma

      Cutaneous horns are hard, keratin-based growths that often occur on sun-damaged skin. Farmers and other outdoor workers are particularly at risk due to their increased sun exposure. While most cutaneous horns are benign, doctors should be cautious as they can be a sign of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at the base of the lesion. SCCs can metastasize, especially if they occur on the ear, so urgent referral for removal is necessary if an SCC is suspected.

      Although most cutaneous horns are caused by viral warts or seborrheic keratosis, up to 20% of lesions can be a sign of premalignant actinic keratoses or frank malignancy. Therefore, it is important for doctors to carefully evaluate any cutaneous horn and consider the possibility of SCC. While current guidelines discourage GPs from excising lesions suspected to be SCCs, urgent referral for removal is necessary to prevent metastasis and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left shin. It has appeared in the last 48 hours. His temperature is 38.5 °C. The left lower leg has evidence of varicose skin changes and excoriation.
      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Cellulitis: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Herpes Simplex Virus, Pseudomonas, and Varicella Zoster Virus

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection that is characterized by a red, tender area of skin associated with a fever. The most common pathogen causing cellulitis is streptococcus, which can enter the body through excoriated skin. Staphylococcus can also cause cellulitis, but it is less common than streptococcus. Herpes simplex virus typically causes cold sores or genital warts, and can be inoculated into abrasions, but this would produce a vesicular rash. Pseudomonas is not a common pathogen in cellulitis, but can occur following puncture wounds or in immunocompromised people. Varicella zoster virus causes Chickenpox and shingles, but neither of these descriptions are seen in cellulitis. Understanding the different causes of cellulitis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his right heel. Upon removing the hard skin over the lesion with a scalpel, you notice some black pinpoint marks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral wart

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Conditions

      Verrucae, also known as plantar warts, are thickened lesions found on the feet that can fuse together to form mosaic patterns. Pinpoint petechiae may be present, appearing as small black dots. Heel fissures are another common condition, caused by dry, thickened skin around the rim of the heel that cracks under pressure. Calluses and corns are also responses to friction and pressure, resulting in thickened areas of skin on the hands and feet. However, it is important to differentiate these benign lesions from malignant melanoma, particularly acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur on the soles or palms and presents as an enlarging pigmented patch. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving) can help identify potential melanomas.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 38 - A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on her upper limbs that have been getting larger since she first noticed them 3 weeks ago. You suspect vitiligo and want to start medication while she waits for her dermatology appointment. Which of the following medications should you consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potent topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      In the early stages of vitiligo, the use of potent topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in reversing the changes. However, it is important to note that medications such as topical tacrolimus or oral steroids should only be prescribed by a dermatologist. Oral tacrolimus and topical miconazole are not effective in managing vitiligo, unless a fungal infection is suspected.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 39 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that is extremely itchy and evenly spread over his arms, legs, elbows, shoulders, and buttocks. He reports that the rash appears and disappears, with periods of a few weeks when it is almost gone. He also experiences intermittent diarrhea, which has been attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Possible Coeliac Disease and Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      The patient’s history of bowel symptoms suggests the possibility of undiagnosed coeliac disease, which may be linked to dermatitis herpetiformis. A gluten exclusion diet may help improve the rash, but dapsone may also be effective in treating it. Other potential causes of a vesicular rash include erythema multiforme, porphyria, and pemphigus/pemphigoid.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences frequent outbreaks during the spring and summer, which are painful and affect her confidence when going outside. She has tried over-the-counter creams with little success. She has no significant medical history and wants to prevent future outbreaks.
      What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeated courses of oral aciclovir to be taken at the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Management of Recurrent Herpes Labialis: Treatment Options and Diagnostic Considerations

      Recurrent herpes labialis, commonly known as cold sores, can be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for patients. Here are some management options to consider:

      – Oral antivirals: Treatment with oral antivirals may be considered in healthy patients if the lesions are persistent. Treatment should be started at the onset of the prodrome until the lesions have healed.
      – Topical aciclovir: While topical aciclovir can be used intermittently when prodromal symptoms appear, it is not recommended for long-term prophylaxis.
      – Sun protection: Sun exposure can trigger facial herpes simplex, so sun protection using a high-protection-factor sunscreen and other measures may be tried.
      – Laser therapy: There is no evidence to support laser therapy in the management of recurrent herpes labialis.
      – Diagnostic considerations: Investigations are not usually necessary in primary care to confirm the diagnosis. Tests for underlying immunosuppression may be considered with persistent or severe episodes.

      It is important to work with patients to find the best management plan for their individual needs.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about the multiple white patches on his upper chest where he failed to get a proper suntan. Upon examination, these patches have well-defined scaly white skin and a significant lack of pigmentation compared to the tanned areas. What is the most suitable treatment option from the following list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole cream

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. It presents as patches of scaling skin that become depigmented compared to surrounding normal skin areas, particularly noticeable during the summer months. The lesions primarily involve the trunk but may spread to other areas. The condition is not contagious as the organism is commensal.

      Treatment usually involves topical antifungals such as clotrimazole, terbinafine, or miconazole. Selenium sulphide, an anti-dandruff shampoo, can also be used. However, the condition may recur, and repeat treatments may be necessary. Oral agents such as itraconazole or fluconazole are only used if topical treatments fail.

      Skin camouflage can be used to disguise lesions of vitiligo, which may be distressing for patients. The charity organization ‘Changing Faces’ provides this service. Hydrocortisone and fusidic acid are ineffective in treating pityriasis versicolor.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
      What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.

      Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.

      Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.

      Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.

      Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 43 - A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for oral isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 44 - A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
      Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma

      Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.

      To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.

      The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.

      In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.

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  • Question 45 - A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she believes began after giving birth to her second child 10 months ago. She reports being in good health and not taking any medications. During your examination, you observe areas of hair loss on the back of her head. The skin appears normal, and you notice a few short, broken hairs at the edges of two of the patches. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alopecia Areata

      Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 46 - A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on her shins. Upon examination, there are multiple tender nodules that appear purple in color. She has no significant medical history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Erythema Nodosum, Insect Bites, Discoid Eczema, Erysipelas, and Post-Traumatic Ecchymoses

      Erythema nodosum is a painful skin condition characterized by tender, red nodules caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat. It is more common in women aged 25-40 and can be associated with underlying conditions or occur in isolation.

      Insect bites from non-venomous insects like mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and bed bugs can result in itchy papules or blisters grouped in the exposed body site. Bites often appear in clusters.

      Discoid eczema is a type of eczema with unknown causes. It is characterized by round-to-oval, itchy, red, scaly plaques that may contain vesicles with serous exudate.

      Erysipelas is a tender, red, indurated plaque with a well-defined border caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Post-traumatic ecchymosis or bruises are large blood extravasations under the skin that may be caused by coagulation or vascular disorders. However, there is no history of trauma to support this diagnosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 47 - Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica

      Explanation:

      Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.

      The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 48 - An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her hairline and nasolabial folds. She hasn't attempted any treatments yet, aside from using emollients. What is the best choice for topical management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate ®)

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Facial Psoriasis

      When it comes to treating facial psoriasis, it’s important to use the right topical treatments to avoid skin irritation and adverse effects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a mild or moderately potent steroid for two weeks, along with emollients. Calcipotriol can be used intermittently if topical corticosteroids aren’t effective enough. However, betamethasone, a potent steroid, should not be used on the face. Coal-tar solution is also not recommended for facial psoriasis. Tacrolimus ointment can be used intermittently if other treatments aren’t working. By using the appropriate topical treatments, patients can manage their facial psoriasis effectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 49 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her ear that she has had since her teenage years. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a keloid scar. What information should you provide to this patient about keloid scars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrence after excision is common

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Keloid Scars: Common Misconceptions and Facts

      Keloid scars are often misunderstood and surrounded by myths. Here are some common misconceptions and facts about keloid scars:

      Recurrence after excision is common: Keloid scars are likely to recur after surgical excision as there is further trauma to the skin, which may result in a larger scar than the original.

      They only arise following significant trauma: Keloid scars may develop after minor skin trauma, acne scarring, or immunizations.

      Topical steroid treatment should be avoided: Keloid scars may be reduced in size by topical steroid tape or intralesional steroid injections given every 2–6 weeks. Other treatments include pressure dressings, cryotherapy, and laser treatment.

      They are more common in Caucasian individuals: Keloid scars are more common in non-Caucasian individuals, with an incidence of 6–16% in African populations.

      They may undergo malignant transformation: There is no association between keloid scars and malignancy. The complications of keloid scars are typically only cosmetic, although they may sometimes affect mobility if occurring near a joint.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about keloid scars to dispel any myths and misconceptions surrounding them. With proper treatment and management, keloid scars can be effectively reduced in size and their impact on a person’s life minimized.

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  • Question 50 - A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist to prescribe a very potent topical corticosteroid for her.
      Select from the list the single suitable preparation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate®)

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Lichen Sclerosus with Topical Corticosteroids

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the genital and anal areas. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of topical corticosteroids. The potency of the corticosteroid used is determined by the formulation and the type of corticosteroid. Mild, moderate, potent, and very potent corticosteroids are available for use.

      The most effective treatment for lichen sclerosus is the very potent topical corticosteroid clobetasol propionate. The recommended regimen for a newly diagnosed case is to apply clobetasol propionate once a night for 4 weeks, then on alternate nights for 4 weeks, and finally twice weekly for the third month. If symptoms return during the reduction of treatment, the frequency that was effective should be resumed.

      Other topical corticosteroids such as mometasone furoate and pimecrolimus have also been shown to be effective in treating genital lichen sclerosus. However, clobetasol propionate has been demonstrated to be more effective than pimecrolimus.

      It is important to note that while treatment with topical corticosteroids can resolve hyperkeratosis, ecchymoses, fissuring, and erosions, atrophy and color change may remain. Maintenance with less frequent use of a very potent corticosteroid or a weaker steroid may be necessary.

      Topical Corticosteroids for Lichen Sclerosus Treatment

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  • Question 51 - A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue, and skin changes under his arms. During the examination, you notice thickened dark pigmented areas of skin under both arms. What underlying condition is typically linked to this clinical sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acanthosis Nigricans

      Acanthosis nigricans (AN) is a skin condition that is characterized by darkening and thickening of the skin in certain areas such as the armpits, groin, and back of the neck. However, it is not a skin disease in itself but rather a sign of an underlying condition or disease. In some cases, AN can be a paraneoplastic syndrome, commonly known as acanthosis nigricans maligna, which is associated with an internal malignancy, particularly adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract or uterus. AN is more commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40 and is often linked to obesity and insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that AN of the oral mucosa or tongue is highly suggestive of a neoplasm, particularly of the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • Question 52 - A 26-year-old male attends your morning surgery five days after an insect bite....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male attends your morning surgery five days after an insect bite. He has presented today as the area surrounding the bite is becoming increasingly red and itchy.

      On examination, you notice a 3-4 cm area of erythema surrounding the bite area and excoriation marks. The is some pus discharging from the bite mark. Observations are all within the normal range. You decide to prescribe antibiotics to cover for infection and arrange a repeat review in 48 hours.

      On reviewing his medical records you note he is on isotretinoin for acne and has a penicillin allergy.

      Which of the following antibiotics would you consider prescribing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Combining oral isotretinoin with tetracyclines is not recommended as it may lead to benign intracranial hypertension. Trimethoprim is not suitable for treating skin or soft tissue infections. Clindamycin, a lincomycin antibiotic, can be used for such infections, especially if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav doesn’t interact with isotretinoin, but it cannot be used in patients with penicillin allergy. Doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, should be avoided when a patient is taking isotretinoin due to the risk of benign intracranial hypertension.

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.

      Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has a vivid red rash on her nose and cheeks. The patient complains that consuming alcohol exacerbates her rash, causing her great embarrassment. She also reports experiencing occasional pustules.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest acne rosacea, which is characterized by flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks, and forehead, as well as the presence of papules and pustules. This condition is known to worsen with alcohol consumption. In contrast, acne vulgaris typically presents with comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and/or cysts, and is less erythematous than rosacea. Erythema ab igne, on the other hand, is caused by exposure to high levels of heat or infra-red radiation, while psoriasis is characterized by a silver-scaly rash that typically appears on the knees and elbows. Although the patient’s symptoms could be mistaken for a butterfly rash, there is no evidence to suggest lupus.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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  • Question 54 - You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number...

    Incorrect

    • You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.

      Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.

      What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.

      It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.

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  • Question 55 - Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about in Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)

      The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a commonly used tool to evaluate the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It consists of 10 questions, each scored out of 3, with a maximum score of 30. The higher the score, the more significant the impact on the patient’s quality of life. The DLQI covers six areas, including symptoms and feelings, daily activities, leisure, work and school, personal relationships, and treatment.

      The DLQI questions are designed to assess the level of discomfort, embarrassment, and interference with daily activities caused by the skin condition. Patients are asked to rate the severity of symptoms such as itchiness, soreness, and pain, as well as the impact on social and leisure activities, work or study, and personal relationships. The DLQI also evaluates the impact of treatment on the patient’s life.

      Interpreting the DLQI scores is straightforward. A score of 0-1 indicates no effect on the patient’s life, while a score of 2-5 suggests a small impact. A score of 6-10 indicates a moderate effect, while a score of 11-20 suggests a very large impact. A score of 21-30 indicates an extremely large impact on the patient’s life.

      In summary, the DLQI is a quick and easy tool to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It provides valuable information to healthcare professionals to tailor treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 56 - Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) may be a useful treatment for patients moderate-severe hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 57 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
      What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.

      The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.

      Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.

      Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 58 - You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.

      What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 59 - You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a female aged 35, who has recently registered. She is living in a hostel near to the practice. She has a previous medical history of anxiety and depression, and is coded to be an ex-intravenous drug user.

      She reports having intensely itchy 'lumps' on her arms and legs for the past two weeks. Upon examination, she has multiple red bumps and raised areas on her limbs and torso, with some of these appearing in a curved line pattern. Her hands, feet, and groin are unaffected.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bedbug infestation

      Explanation:

      If a patient complains of intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it may be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the patient has recently stayed in a hotel, hostel, or other temporary accommodation, as bed bugs can easily travel on clothing and luggage.

      While scabies is a possible differential diagnosis, it is less likely if the patient doesn’t have involvement of the finger webs or linear burrows beneath the skin. Bed bug bites tend to appear as lumps or welts, rather than small spots.

      If the lesions are aligned in a line or curve, this is also suggestive of a bed bug infestation, as the insects tend to move across the skin in a linear fashion.

      Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention

      Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.

      Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 60 - A 55-year-old woman comes in with a persistent erythematous rash on her cheeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes in with a persistent erythematous rash on her cheeks and a 'red nose'. She reports experiencing occasional facial flushing. During examination, erythematous skin is observed on the nose and cheeks, along with occasional papules. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild rosacea symptoms, the recommended first-line option is topical metronidazole. However, if the symptoms are severe or resistant, oral tetracycline may be necessary.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 61 - A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in his groin area. You decide to send skin scrapings for testing, but in the meantime, you believe it is appropriate to start him on an oral antifungal based on your clinical assessment and judgement. He has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral Antifungal Treatment for Severe Fungal Disease

      Oral antifungal treatment may be necessary for adults with severe or extensive fungal disease. In some cases, treatment can begin before mycology results are obtained, based on clinical judgement. Terbinafine is the preferred first-line treatment for oral antifungal therapy in primary care. However, if terbinafine is not tolerated or contraindicated, oral itraconazole or oral griseofulvin may be used as alternatives. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent the spread of fungal infections.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.

      What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology

      Explanation:

      A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 63 - A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings

      When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.

      The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 64 - A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents with a significant worsening of his plaque psoriasis on his elbows and knees over the past two weeks. His medications have been recently altered at the cardiology clinic. Which medication is most likely to have exacerbated his psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Plaque psoriasis is known to worsen with the use of beta-blockers.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiviral treatment

      Explanation:

      Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.

      Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.

      Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.

      Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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  • Question 66 - A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
      What is the most appropriate primary care management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.

      One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.

      If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.

      Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.

      In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 67 - A 19-year-old girl presents to you with concerns about her acne on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl presents to you with concerns about her acne on her face, chest, and upper back. She is feeling self-conscious about it, especially after her boyfriend made some comments about her skin. She has been using a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide and antibiotics for the past few months.

      Upon examination, you note the presence of comedones, papules, and pustules, but no nodules or cysts. There is no scarring.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for her acne at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Since the topical preparation did not work for the patient, the next step would be to try an oral antibiotic. The recommended first-line options are lymecycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline, or doxycycline. Lymecycline is preferred as it only needs to be taken once a day, which can improve the patient’s adherence to the treatment.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 68 - You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for...

    Incorrect

    • You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for one of their residents which has confirmed the presence of Trichophyton rubrum. The patient is an 80-year-old woman with vascular dementia, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, and ischaemic heart disease.

      The nail clippings had been sent because of dystrophy of the left hallux nail and 2nd toenail on one foot. You decide that topical treatment would be more appropriate than oral treatment to reduce the risk of side effects and issue a prescription for topical amorolfine. You advise the nurse this should be applied twice a week, and that her nails should be clipped short regularly.

      What other advice should you give regarding the treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment may need to be continued for up to a year

      Explanation:

      Topical treatment for fungal toenail infection may require a duration of up to 12 months. Patients should be advised to wear clean socks and shoes made of breathable fabrics like cotton, instead of synthetic fabric. Terbinafine, an oral antifungal, may cause taste disturbance as a known side effect. It is important to inform patients that the treatment course for fungal toenail infection may last for 3-6 months for oral antifungal treatment and 9-12 months for topical amorolfine. Some Clinical Commissioning Groups may require patients to purchase their own treatments for minor ailments that are available without a prescription.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 69 - You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.

      Which of the following is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rosacea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial skin thickening and irregular surface nodularities especially across the nose

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features of Rosacea

      A diagnosis of rosacea can be made based on the presence of at least one diagnostic clinical feature or two major clinical features. The two diagnostic clinical features are phymatous changes and persistent erythema. Phymatous changes refer to thickened irregular skin, which can affect the nose and is termed rhinophyma. Persistent erythema is centrofacial redness that can increase with certain triggers. Major clinical features include flushing/transient erythema, inflammatory papules and pustules, telangiectasia, and ocular symptoms. Minor clinical features such as burning sensation, stinging sensation, skin dryness, and oedema are subjective and not individually diagnostic of rosacea.

      Facial skin thickening/surface nodularities, especially across the nose, is in keeping with phymatous change, which is a diagnostic clinical feature of rosacea. Itch and red papules can occur with rosacea, but these are usually seen in the centrofacial area. Rosacea can affect the chin area as well, but itchy and tender red papules specifically in a muzzle distribution are more in keeping with perioral dermatitis. Open and closed comedones across the forehead, cheeks, and chin are suggestive of acne vulgaris. Scaly disc-like plaques with scarring are suggestive of discoid lupus, while scaly pink ill-defined plaques in the skin folds on both sides of the face describe seborrheic dermatitis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 70 - The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been...

    Incorrect

    • The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been treating, as it is not improving. The ulcer is situated on the lower leg, has an irregular shape, and a purple border that is undermined. The student reports that it began as a tiny red bump on the skin and that the ulcer is causing discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      When faced with a skin ulcer that doesn’t heal, it is important to consider pyoderma gangrenosum as a possible diagnosis. This condition typically begins as a red bump that eventually turns into a painful ulcer with a purple, indented border. It is often linked to autoimmune disorders in approximately 50% of cases.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.

      Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 71 - A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis and an abnormality in her nails. Although it is not causing her any discomfort, she wants to know if any treatment is necessary. Upon examination, you diagnose her with mild nail psoriasis. What is your plan for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment required

      Explanation:

      If nail psoriasis is mild and not causing any distress or cosmetic concerns for the patient, NICE recommends that treatment is not necessary. Topical treatments such as tar, emollients, or low dose steroids are not effective for nail disease. Urgent referral to dermatology is not needed for mild cases that do not cause distress. The best course of action is to monitor the condition and offer the patient the option to return if it worsens. Therefore, no treatment is required in this case.

      Psoriasis can cause changes in the nails of both fingers and toes. These changes do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy experience nail changes. Some of the nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and even loss of the nail. It is important to note that these changes can be distressing for patients and may require medical attention.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 72 - A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice

      Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.

      On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 73 - A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a...

    Incorrect

    • A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a dark red patch on their child's cheek that appears irregular. After examination, you diagnose it as a port wine stain. What should the parents know about this type of birthmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tend to darken over time

      Explanation:

      Understanding Port Wine Stains

      Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that can help to fade the color and reduce the raised appearance of the stain. However, it’s important to note that multiple laser sessions may be required to achieve the desired results. Overall, understanding port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 74 - A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and knees. He has been using a potent corticosteroid ointment and a vitamin D preparation once daily for the past 8 weeks, but there has been no improvement in his skin. What should be the next course of action in managing his plaque psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the corticosteroid and continue with topical vitamin D preparation twice daily for up to 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The best course of action would be to discontinue the corticosteroid and increase the frequency of vitamin D application to twice daily, as per NICE guidelines. It is necessary to take a 4-week break from the topical steroid, which has already been used for 8 weeks. Therefore, continuing or increasing the steroid usage to twice daily would be inappropriate. Dithranol and referral to Dermatology are not necessary at this point, as the treatment plan has not been finished.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 75 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and nodules in both axillae. She frequently goes to the gym and initially attributed her symptoms to deodorant use, although there have been no signs of improvement since stopping these.

      She doesn't take any regular medication and is allergic to macrolides.

      Upon examination, there are numerous lesions in both axillae consisting of pustules and nodules, as well as sinus tract formation. Mild scarring is also evident.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-6 month course of lymecycline

      Explanation:

      To manage her hidradenitis suppurativa, which is a chronic follicular occlusive disorder affecting intertriginous areas, such as the axillae, groin, perineal and infra-mammary areas, long-term topical or oral antibiotics may be used. As she is experiencing severe symptoms with nodules, sinuses, and scarring, it would be appropriate to offer her long-term systemic antibiotics. Tetracycline is the first-line antibiotic, making lymecycline the correct answer. Macrolides, such as clarithromycin, can be offered as a second-line option, but she is allergic to this antibiotic. Oral fluconazole and ketoconazole shampoo are used to treat various fungal skin conditions, but hidradenitis suppurativa is not related to a fungal infection. Topical clindamycin can be effective in mild localised hidradenitis suppurativa, but this woman requires systemic treatment due to her severe bilateral symptoms.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

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  • Question 76 - A 25-year-old woman has noticed that the sun causes a rash of very...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has noticed that the sun causes a rash of very itchy bumps on the exposed areas of her chest and arms. She has purchased a sunscreen and asks if you can prescribe it.
      Select the correct statement from the list of options regarding the prescription of sunscreens.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are regarded as borderline substances and the prescription should be marked ACBS (Advisory Committee on Borderline Substances)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sunscreens: Protection Against UV Radiation

      Sunscreens are essential in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. UVB causes sunburn, while UVA contributes to long-term photodamage, skin cancer, and aging. Sunscreens come in two types: chemical absorbers and physical blockers. Chemical absorbers absorb UVA or UVB, while physical blockers reflect or scatter UV radiation. The ideal sunscreens are those that provide the most effective protection against both UVA and UVB, but they may produce a white appearance when applied to the skin.

      The sun protection factor (SPF) indicates the degree of protection against UVB. A higher SPF means longer protection against burning. However, users often do not apply enough sunscreen, resulting in lower protection than what is indicated in experimental studies. The EU Commission recommends that the UVA protection factor should be at least one-third of the SPF, and products that achieve this will be labelled with a UVA logo.

      Sunscreens should be applied liberally to all exposed areas and reapplied every 2 hours, especially after swimming, sweating, or rubbing off. Allergic reactions to sunscreen are rare. Sunscreens can be prescribed and marked as ACBS drugs for individuals with genetic disorders, photodermatoses, vitiligo, changes resulting from radiotherapy, and chronic or recurrent herpes simplex labialis precipitated by sunlight. Sunscreens with SPF less than 30 should not normally be prescribed.

      In summary, understanding sunscreens and their proper use is crucial in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of UV radiation.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 77 - A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.

      Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.

      The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.

      What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.

      This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.

      Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 78 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.

      Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types

      Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.

      Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.

      Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 79 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a mild rash on her face. She reports that the rash is highly sensitive to sunlight and has been wearing hats for protection. The patient is six months postpartum and has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, an erythematous rash with superficial pustules is observed on the forehead, nose, and cheeks.

      What is the most effective treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that commonly affects fair-skinned individuals over the age of 30, with symptoms appearing on the nose, cheeks, and forehead. Flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia can progress to papules and pustules. Exacerbating factors include sunlight, pregnancy, certain drugs, and food. For mild to moderate cases, NICE recommends metronidazole as a first-line treatment, with other topical agents such as brimonidine, oxymetazoline, benzoyl peroxide, and tretinoin also being effective. Systemic antibiotics like erythromycin and tetracycline can be used for moderate to severe cases. Camouflage creams and sunscreen can help manage symptoms, but do not treat the underlying condition. Steroid creams are not recommended for acne rosacea, while topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used for other skin conditions like seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, and vitiligo.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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  • Question 80 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a long time. She has recently noticed some darkening of the skin on both lower legs along with some dryness, but no pain or other symptoms. Her routine blood tests, including HbA1c, were normal. On examination, you observe mild pigmentation and dry skin on both lower legs, but normal distal pulses and warm feet. There are no indications of DVT. Your diagnosis is venous eczema. As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to vascular service

      Explanation:

      Patients who have developed skin changes due to varicose veins, such as pigmentation and eczema, should be referred to secondary care.

      Understanding Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.

      To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.

      In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 81 - A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic after noticing that a mole on the side of her neck has recently grown. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped lesion with variable pigmentation and a diameter of 7 mm.

      What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassess in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This patient’s lesion is highly suspicious of a melanoma and requires immediate referral to a dermatologist. Any delay in monitoring in primary care could result in delayed treatment and potentially worse outcomes. The lesion’s recent increase in size, irregular pigmentation, and margin are all factors that raise suspicions. To aid in decision-making, the 7-point weighted checklist can be used, which includes major features such as change in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, as well as minor features like inflammation, oozing, change in sensation, and largest diameter 7 mm or more. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred, even if the score is less than 3. If the lesion were low risk, it would be reasonable to monitor over an eight-week period using the 7-point checklist, photographs, and a marker scale and/or ruler. However, it is not appropriate to excise or biopsy suspicious pigmented lesions in primary care.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 82 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his face. He sustained a cut on his forehead while playing basketball. During the examination, it is observed that the redness is spreading towards his eye, and he has a temperature of 37.9ºC. The patient has no known allergies to any medication.

      What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of cellulitis around the eyes or nose, the recommended antibiotic is co-amoxiclav, which is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. This is because amoxicillin alone doesn’t provide sufficient coverage against the broad spectrum of bacteria that can cause facial cellulitis, which can lead to serious complications such as orbital involvement. Doxycycline is not the first-line medication for this condition, but may be considered if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Erythromycin is another option for penicillin-allergic patients, but it doesn’t offer the same broad coverage as co-amoxiclav.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 83 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of using phenytoin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      Hirsutism is a known side effect of phenytoin, while alopecia is not commonly associated with it.

      Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin

      Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.

      Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.

      Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.

      It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

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  • Question 84 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

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  • Question 85 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of sudden anal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of sudden anal pain. During the examination, the doctor notices a tender, oedematous, purplish subcutaneous perianal lump.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      The posterior midline is where anal fissures, hemorrhoids, and pilonidal sinuses are commonly found. Genital warts, on the other hand, are small fleshy growths that are slightly pigmented and may cause itching or bleeding. These warts are usually caused by HPV types 6 and 11. Pilonidal sinus, which is characterized by cycles of pain and discharge, is caused by hair debris creating sinuses in the skin. If the sinus is located near the anus, it may cause anal pain.

      Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

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  • Question 86 - A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
    In...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
      In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60-69 years

      Explanation:

      Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK

      According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.

      Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.

      It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

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  • Question 87 - Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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  • Question 88 - A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 89 - You see a 30-year-old woman who is concerned about a sudden and significant...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old woman who is concerned about a sudden and significant amount of hair loss from her scalp in the past few weeks. She is typically healthy and has no medical history except for giving birth 2 months ago. On examination, there is no apparent focal loss of hair.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Androgenetic alopecia

      Explanation:

      Types of Hair Loss

      Telogen effluvium is a sudden and severe shedding of hair that often occurs after significant events such as childbirth, severe illness, crash diets, or new medications. Androgenetic alopecia is the most common type of progressive hair loss, which presents in men with scalp hair loss or a receding hairline. In women, it often affects the crown of the scalp with preservation of the frontal hairline. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that typically presents with an itchy, scaly scalp with patchy hair loss. Traction alopecia is due to the traction applied to the hair in certain hairstyles such as ponytails. Trichotillomania is a psychiatric condition in which patients pull their hair out. Understanding the different types of hair loss can help individuals identify the cause of their hair loss and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 90 - You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders. He presents with papules and pustules accompanied by widespread inflammation. Additionally, he has nodules and scarring on his chin. After diagnosing him with moderate-severe acne, you decide to refer him to dermatology while initiating treatment. Your treatment plan includes prescribing a topical retinoid and an oral antibiotic. What is the first-line antibiotic for acne vulgaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines are the preferred oral antibiotics for treating moderate to severe acne vulgaris. This condition is a common reason for patients to visit their GP and can significantly impact their quality of life.

      To address this patient’s acne and scarring, it would be appropriate to initiate a topical treatment and prescribe an oral antibiotic. Referral to a dermatologist may also be necessary, but first-line treatment may be effective.

      Tetracyclines are the recommended first-line oral antibiotics for acne vulgaris. All tetracyclines are licensed for this indication, and there is no evidence to suggest that one is more effective than another. The choice of specific tetracycline should be based on individual preference and cost.

      Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are typically prescribed at a dose of 500 mg twice daily on an empty stomach. Doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once daily and can be taken with food, although doxycycline may cause photosensitivity.

      Minocycline is not recommended for acne treatment, and erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines if they are contraindicated. The usual dose for erythromycin is 500 mg twice daily.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 91 - A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of his glans penis and foreskin, and his mother reports a foul odor and slight discharge. What is the most frequently isolated organism in cases of balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C. albicans

      Explanation:

      Balanitis is most commonly caused by C. albicans, with group B beta-haemolytic streptococci being a less frequent cause among bacterial infections. The other options listed may also cause balanitis, but are not as commonly isolated.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 92 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine is the appropriate treatment. Choose the one accurate statement regarding the use of terbinafine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months’ therapy is needed

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infection Treatment Options

      Fungal nail infections are commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes fungi. These two types of fungi are responsible for over 90% of cases, with T. rubrum being the most common culprit. Systemic treatment is recommended for fungal nail infections as it is more effective. However, the slow growth of nails means that they may not appear normal even after successful treatment.

      Terbinafine is currently the first-line treatment for fungal nail infections, with evidence showing greater efficacy compared to itraconazole. However, itraconazole is more effective against candida. Treatment with terbinafine usually takes around 3 months to be effective. It is important to note that terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old, in which case griseofulvin must be used.

      There have been rare cases of liver toxicity with terbinafine, and very rare reports of severe skin reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Therefore, it is advisable to monitor hepatic function before treatment and every 4-6 weeks during treatment. If abnormalities in liver function tests occur, treatment should be discontinued.

      Itraconazole can be given in pulses for 7 days every month to treat fungal nail infections. Two pulses are recommended for fingernails, and three for toenails.

      In conclusion, fungal nail infections can be effectively treated with systemic antifungal medications such as terbinafine and itraconazole. However, it is important to monitor for potential side effects and to follow the recommended treatment regimen for optimal results.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 93 - You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.

      During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.

      What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 94 - A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his trunk, arms, and thighs over the past month. He has some mild itching but is otherwise well. He last presented to the surgery two months ago with tonsillitis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Guttate Psoriasis from Other Skin Conditions: A Clinical Analysis

      Guttate psoriasis is a skin condition that often appears 7-10 days after a streptococcal infection. It is characterized by numerous teardrop-shaped lesions on the trunk and proximal limbs, which are red and covered with a fine scale. While the scale may be less evident in the early stages, the lesions typically resolve on their own after 2-3 months.

      When diagnosing guttate psoriasis, it is important to consider other skin conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Atopic eczema, for example, is less well differentiated than psoriasis lesions and may not have a history of a preceding sore throat. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin would typically result in skin reactions that resolve spontaneously and would not last for a month. Lichen planus, an autoimmune condition, causes shiny papules without scale and is characterized by Whickham’s striae, which are white lines on the surface of the skin. Pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that causes a widespread rash with scale and well-defined edges, may also be considered but is less likely if there is a history of a preceding sore throat.

      In summary, a thorough clinical analysis is necessary to distinguish guttate psoriasis from other skin conditions with similar symptoms. A careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and physical examination can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 95 - A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical mupirocin

      Explanation:

      In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 96 - A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering less than 10% of his body. He appears to be in good health and guttate psoriasis is suspected. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance + topical treatment if lesions are symptomatic

      Explanation:

      According to the psoriasis guidelines of the British Association of Dermatologists, there is no evidence to suggest that antibiotic therapy provides any therapeutic benefits.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

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  • Question 97 - A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour of duty overseas and presents to his General Practitioner. He complains of intense itching, mainly affecting his finger webs and the flexural aspect of his wrists. The itching is worse in bed. There was some itching around the groin, but this settled after repeated bathing.
      On examination, there appears to be excoriation in the finger webs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Scabies from Other Itchy Skin Conditions

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mites. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly in the finger webs, wrists, elbows, perineum, and areolar regions. The rash may appear as erythematous papules, diffuse dermatitis, or urticated erythema. The pathognomonic sign of scabies is the presence of burrows, which are intraepidermal tunnels created by the female mite.

      When differentiating scabies from other itchy skin conditions, it is important to consider the location and appearance of the rash. Contact dermatitis, for instance, doesn’t typically present with an eczematous rash on the hands. Lichen planus, on the other hand, is characterized by violaceous papules and tends to affect the wrists more than other areas. Pompholyx eczema is limited to the hands and soles of the feet, while psoriasis is characterized by white, scaly plaques and mild itching. By carefully examining the symptoms and physical presentation, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat scabies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 98 - What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute ulceration

      Explanation:

      Skin Damage and Other Factors Predisposing to Cancer

      Certain types of skin damage, such as burns, scarring, ulceration, radiation, and chemical damage, can increase the risk of developing cancer. In addition, exposure to polycyclic hydrocarbons and coal by-products, which are found in certain situations, particularly in the United Kingdom, can also increase the risk of cancer. For example, chimney sweeps in the past were at a higher risk of developing scrotal cancer due to exposure to these substances.

      Lichen sclerosis is another factor that can predispose individuals to cancer, specifically vulval cancer. Solar keratoses are also a common cause of cancer. However, psoriasis and lichen planus are not considered predisposing factors. While there is some controversy surrounding the risk of lichen planus, the consensus view is that it probably doesn’t increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), except for the ulcerative form of oral lichen planus, which may have an increased risk.

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  • Question 99 - A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
      Which statement is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition normally lasts six months

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: Symptoms and Duration

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a condition characterized by a rash on the back and thighs that is palpable and non-blanching, but is a non-thrombocytopenic purpura. Children with HSP may experience abdominal pain and bloody stools, which are cardinal symptoms of the disease. The kidneys are also often involved, and patients may have frank haematuria. The disease typically lasts about four weeks and resolves spontaneously.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 100 - A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm of his right hand. On examination, there is hyperkeratosis of the palm with prominent white skin lines. The left hand appears normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin scraping for fungus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea Manuum: A Unilateral Scaly Rash

      Tinea manuum is a type of fungal infection that affects the hands. It is characterized by a unilateral scaly rash that can also involve the back of the hand and nails. In some cases, both hands may be affected, but the involvement tends to be asymmetrical.

      The most common cause of tinea manuum is an anthropophilic fungus such as Tricophyton rubrum, Tricophyton mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. These fungi are typically found on human skin and can be easily transmitted through direct contact.

      In some cases, tinea manuum may present as a raised border with clearing in the middle, resembling a ringworm. This is more likely to occur when a zoophilic fungus is responsible, such as Trichophyton erinacei from a hedgehog or Microsporum canis from a cat or dog.

      It is important to suspect dermatophyte fungus when a unilateral scaly rash is present on the hands. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication, and it is important to maintain good hand hygiene to prevent further spread of the infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 101 - A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers are observed in the buccal region of her mouth.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Oral lichen planus is characterised by buccal white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers, causing discomfort while eating. Other conditions such as Sjögren’s syndrome, blocked Stensen’s duct, Behçet’s disease, and oral psoriasis may have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of buccal lesions.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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  • Question 102 - A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.

      Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.

      Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.

      Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.

      In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 103 - A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to the extent that nearly the whole of the skin surface is involved.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythroderma

      Explanation:

      Erythroderma is a condition where the skin becomes red all over the body, affecting at least 90% of the skin surface. It can occur suddenly or gradually and is often accompanied by skin peeling. The cause can be related to various skin disorders, including eczema, drug reactions, and cancer. Psoriasis is the most common cause in adults. Patients with erythroderma should be hospitalized as it can lead to fever, heart failure, and dehydration. Asteatotic eczema is a type of eczema that causes dry, itchy, and cracked skin, usually on the shins of elderly patients. Atopic eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that often starts in infancy and is associated with high levels of immunoglobulin E. Ichthyosis is a condition where the skin is persistently scaly and can be congenital or acquired. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by drug reactions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 104 - A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of her left great toe for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seeking treatment as it is causing her significant embarrassment. Upon examination, there is a yellowish discoloration on the medial left great toe with nail thickening and mild onycholysis.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take nail sample for laboratory testing

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing any treatment, laboratory testing should confirm the presence of a fungal nail infection. Although it is likely that the patient’s symptoms are due to onychomycosis, other conditions such as psoriasis should be ruled out. Oral terbinafine would be a suitable treatment option if the test confirms a fungal infection. However, topical antifungal treatments are generally not ideal for nail infections. A topical corticosteroid is not appropriate for treating a fungal nail infection, but may be considered if the test reveals no fungal involvement and there are signs of an inflammatory dermatosis like psoriasis. While taking a nail sample is necessary, antifungal treatment should not be initiated until the fungal cause is confirmed. This is because different nail conditions can have similar appearances, and starting treatment without confirmation would not be beneficial.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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  • Question 105 - A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from the list the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of discoid eczema rather than psoriasis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marked pruritus

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Discoid Eczema and Psoriasis

      Discoid eczema is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped plaques that are well-defined and often occur on the extremities, especially the legs. Lesions may also appear on the arms, trunk, hands, or feet, but not on the face or scalp. The plaques are intensely itchy and may clear in the center, resembling tinea corporis. An exudative form of the condition also exists, which is vesiculated.

      On the other hand, psoriasis is a skin condition that often affects the extensor surfaces, particularly at the elbows and knees. The scalp is also commonly involved. The scale is thick and silvery, and there may be nail changes, such as pitting. Itching may occur, but it is less severe than in discoid eczema.

      In summary, while both conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as itching and skin lesions, they have distinct differences in terms of their location, appearance, and severity of itching. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 106 - You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over the past year. She has no features of androgen excess. She has no medical history and is not on any regular medication. Recent blood tests including ferritin were unremarkable. On examination, you note some mild thinning around the crown area and widening of the central parting of her hair. You make a diagnosis of androgenetic alopecia.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommends Topical Minoxidil as First-Line Treatment for Female Androgenetic Alopecia

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of topical minoxidil 2% solution as the first-line treatment for androgenetic alopecia in women. This medication is available over-the-counter and has been found to be effective in promoting hair growth. However, NICE advises against prescribing other drug treatments in primary care.

      Referral to dermatology should be considered in certain cases. For instance, if a woman has an atypical presentation of hair loss, or if she experiences extensive hair loss. Additionally, if treatment with topical minoxidil has been ineffective after one year, referral to a dermatologist may be necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with androgenetic alopecia receive appropriate and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 107 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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