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Question 1
Correct
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What is not a cause of haematuria in children?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Causes of Haematuria
Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be caused by various factors. Measles is not one of them. However, conditions such as meatal ulcer and urinary tract infection can lead to haematuria. Additionally, an advanced Wilms’ tumour can also cause this symptom. Another cause of haematuria is Schistosomiasis, which is a parasitic infection caused by Schistosoma haematobium. In this case, the blood in the urine is due to bladder involvement. It is important to identify the underlying cause of haematuria in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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As a locum GP, you are seeing a 60-year-old patient who is known to be alcohol-dependent. He informs you that he has been staying at a hostel but has had very little to eat in the last week.
Which urinalysis results would you expect to see in this situation?
A. Haemoglobin: Negative
B. Urobilinogen: Negative
C. Bilirubin: Negative
D. Protein: +
E. Glucose: + + +
F. Nitrites: Negative ++ +++
G. Leucocytes: + ++ +++
H. Ketones: Negative +++ Negative +++ Negative
Please note that the urinalysis results may vary depending on the individual's health condition and other factors.Your Answer: E
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:The Significance of Urinalysis in Identifying High Levels of Urinary Ketones
Urinalysis is a crucial diagnostic tool that can help identify various renal and non-renal conditions. One of the significant findings in urinalysis is the presence of high levels of urinary ketones. This condition can be observed in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, which is characterized by high levels of glucose in the body. Additionally, individuals who are experiencing starvation or anorexia nervosa may also exhibit high levels of urinary ketones. Patients with severe illnesses that cause short-term anorexia and those who consume excessive amounts of alcohol may also show this condition.
In summary, urinalysis is a valuable investigation that can help identify high levels of urinary ketones, which can be indicative of various medical conditions. By detecting this condition early on, healthcare professionals can provide prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman who suffers from chronic back pain and takes regular doses of paracetamol and ibuprofen has been diagnosed with proteinuria at a level of 900 mg/24 hours. Upon further examination, it was discovered that her urine contains small proteins with minimal amounts of albumin. What could be the probable reason for her proteinuria?
Your Answer: Post renal proteinuria
Correct Answer: Tubular proteinuria
Explanation:Proteinuria and its Possible Causes
Proteinuria is the presence of an abnormal amount of protein in the urine, which may indicate an underlying medical condition. While a small amount of protein is normally present in urine, a high level of protein in urine is a sign of a pathological cause. The possible origins of protein in urine are shown in the diagram.
In cases where there is tubulointerstitial damage, chronic use of analgesics and/or anti-inflammatory drugs, particularly NSAIDs, is the likely cause. This type of damage impairs the reabsorption of filtered low molecular weight proteins, leading to tubular proteinuria. This type of proteinuria typically results in the non-selective loss of relatively small proteins in the urine. the possible causes of proteinuria can help in the diagnosis and treatment of underlying medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male was given steroids after a kidney transplant. After two years, he experienced hip pain and difficulty walking. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Primary osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Avascular Necrosis and Its Causes
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the bones is temporarily or permanently lost. This can be caused by various factors, including trauma or vascular disease. Some of the conditions that can lead to AVN include hypertension, sickle cell disease, caisson disease, and radiation-induced arthritis. Additionally, certain factors such as corticosteroid therapy, connective tissue disease, alcohol abuse, marrow storage disease (Gaucher’s disease), and dyslipoproteinaemia can also be associated with AVN in a more complex manner.
Of all the cases of non-traumatic avascular necrosis, 35% are associated with systemic (oral or intravenous) corticosteroid use. It is important to understand the causes of AVN in order to prevent and manage the condition effectively. By identifying the underlying factors that contribute to AVN, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and help patients manage their symptoms. With proper care and management, individuals with AVN can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five patients you have never met before. Your task is to review the results and identify which patient is likely to have nephrotic syndrome. The results are as follows:
Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L.
Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L.
Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L.
Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L.
Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L.
It is important to note that the normal values for each of these parameters are also provided. With this information, you must determine which patient is likely to have nephrotic syndrome.Your Answer: Patient C
Correct Answer: Patient E
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by heavy proteinuria, low serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition may also have severe hyperlipidemia and altered clotting due to the loss of clotting factors in the urine. It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology.
One of the key indicators of nephrotic syndrome is proteinuria, which is the presence of excessive protein in the urine. Patients with this condition typically have proteinuria greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours. Additionally, low serum albumin levels, which are less than 25 g/L, are also common in patients with nephrotic syndrome. Peripheral edema, or swelling in the extremities, is another hallmark of this condition.
Patients with nephrotic syndrome may also experience severe hyperlipidemia, which is characterized by high levels of total cholesterol, often exceeding 10 mmol/L. The loss of clotting factors in the urine can also cause altered clotting, leading to a procoagulant effect. This can be treated with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.
Overall, the key features of nephrotic syndrome is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Further investigation, such as urinalysis, may be necessary to confirm the presence of heavy proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the renal clinic eight weeks after a successful renal transplant. He has some inquiries about his immunosuppression. The consultant explains that the typical regimen for renal transplant patients involves the use of an induction agent initially, followed by a combination of a calcineurin inhibitor, antimetabolite, and steroids. This combination is intended to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Can you identify the agent that acts as a purine analogue to disrupt DNA synthesis and induce apoptosis in rapidly dividing cells?
Your Answer: Basiliximab
Correct Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Immunosuppressive Drugs
Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are two immunosuppressive drugs that interrupt DNA synthesis and act as antimetabolites. However, they achieve this through different mechanisms. Mycophenolate indirectly inhibits purine synthesis by blocking inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, while azathioprine is a pro-drug that is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine, which is inserted into the DNA sequence instead of a purine. This triggers apoptosis by recognizing it as a mismatch.
Basiliximab is an anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody that blocks T cell proliferation by inhibiting CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. On the other hand, sirolimus inhibits mTOR, the mammalian target of rapamycin, which is a protein kinase that promotes T cell proliferation and survival downstream of IL-2 signaling. Finally, tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor that reduces the activation of NFAT, a transcription factor that promotes IL-2 production. Since IL-2 is the main cytokine that drives T cell proliferation, tacrolimus effectively suppresses the immune response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 7
Correct
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As a GP, you examine a 28-year-old pregnant woman who complains of mild ankle swelling. She denies any symptoms of a urinary tract infection. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results are obtained:
Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: ++
Glucose: ++
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: ++
Ketones: Negative
What could be the possible explanation for these findings?Your Answer: Healthy pregnancy
Explanation:Urinalysis in Pregnancy: Common Abnormalities and Importance of Monitoring
Urinalysis is a crucial diagnostic tool for detecting renal diseases and other medical conditions. During pregnancy, even asymptomatic and healthy women may exhibit abnormalities on urinalysis. These abnormalities include small amounts of glucose, as pregnancy alters the renal threshold for glucose, and small amounts of protein, which can be a sign of pre-eclampsia. Ketones should not be present unless the patient is fasting, and prolonged fasting is not recommended. Pregnant women may also have sterile pyuria and non-specific changes in leukocytes.
It is important to monitor pregnant women for urinary infections, as they have been linked to premature labor. However, minor and non-specific changes on urinalysis can falsely reassure clinicians. Pregnant women are at an increased risk of UTIs and may present with atypical symptoms or unusual urinalysis features. Therefore, urine should be sent for culture if there are any concerns.
In summary, urinalysis is a vital investigation during pregnancy to detect abnormalities and monitor for urinary infections. Clinicians should be aware of the common abnormalities seen on urinalysis during pregnancy and the importance of careful monitoring to ensure the health of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department feeling generally ill. The laboratory contacts you to report dangerously low serum sodium levels before you can see him. After diagnosis, it is discovered that he has a hormone excess. Which hormone could be the cause?
Your Answer: Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone
Explanation:Hormonal Imbalances and Their Effects on Sodium Levels
Hormones play a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including water and sodium balance. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) allows for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts, independent of sodium. However, an excess of ADH can lead to hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is commonly caused by dehydration, but can also be due to medications, tumours, or lung diseases.
On the other hand, aldosterone is responsible for tubular Na+ and Cl- reabsorption, water retention, and K+ excretion. In excess, one would expect hypernatraemia, or high levels of sodium in the blood. However, the elevation in plasma sodium is usually mild, as the increased sodium is balanced by water retention.
When ADH is excessively produced, it is known as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). This results in net retention of water and a decrease in sodium levels. In mild cases, this can cause confusion and unsteadiness, but in severe cases, it can lead to coma and even death.
It is important to note that hyponatraemia is a common finding in hospitalized patients, and inappropriate ADH secretion is often blamed. However, this should only be considered in the context of a euvolaemic patient, meaning they are not dehydrated or overloaded. Correction of this imbalance should be prioritized before seeking other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman undergoing haemodialysis for end stage renal failure caused by vesico-ureteric reflux is experiencing a dry, flaky skin and an itchy rash. What is the probable complication of end stage renal failure responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Hyperphosphataemia
Explanation:Hyperphosphataemia and Itching in End Stage Renal Failure Patients
Patients with end stage renal failure often experience hyperphosphataemia, which is caused by the loss of renal control over calcium/phosphate balance. This occurs because the kidneys are no longer able to excrete phosphate and produce activated vitamin D. As a result, calcium levels decrease, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which maintains calcium levels but at the expense of raised phosphate levels. Hyperphosphataemia can cause itching and dermatitis, making it important to restrict dietary phosphate intake and use phosphate binders taken with meals to prevent phosphate absorption.
While anaemia is common in dialysis patients, it does not typically cause itching. Polycythaemia, which can occur in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to excessive erythropoietin production, can cause itching, but this is unlikely to be the cause of itching in this patient with end stage renal failure. Hypovolaemia may cause dry skin, but it is unlikely to cause an itchy rash. Hypophosphataemia is also extremely unlikely in renal patients and does not tend to cause itching.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower limbs for the last six months. He developed digital infarcts involving his second and third toes on his left side and the fourth toe on his right side.
On examination, his blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was an asymmetrical neuropathy.
Investigations showed:
- Haemoglobin 118 g/L (120-160)
- White cell Count 11 ×109/L (3.5-10)
- Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-450)
- ESR 55mm/hr (0-15)
Urine examination showed proteinuria +++ and RBC 10-15/hpf without casts.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis Nodosa
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized arteries. It can cause damage to various organs, including the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. The symptoms of PAN can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of the damage. Some of the common symptoms include hypertension, nephropathy, digital infarcts, and mononeuritis multiplex.
One of the key diagnostic features of PAN is the presence of multiple aneurysms at vessel bifurcations, which can be detected through angiography. Treatment for PAN typically involves the use of immunosuppressive drugs to reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the affected organs. With proper management, many people with PAN are able to achieve remission and maintain a good quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the name of the newer induction drug that selectively targets B cells to quickly control ANCA associated vasculitides while sparing other lymphocytes?
Your Answer: Ciclosporin
Correct Answer: Rituximab
Explanation:Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis
ANCA vasculitis is a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels, leading to organ damage. There are several treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity of the disease. Cyclophosphamide and rituximab are induction agents used in severe or very active disease. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that causes DNA crosslinking and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that causes profound B cell depletion.
Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are maintenance agents used for their steroid sparing effect. They can also be used to induce remission in mild disease, but their maximal effect takes three to four weeks. Therefore, they are not appropriate for severe or very active disease. Ciclosporin is a calcineurin inhibitor that blocks IL-2 production and proliferation signals to T cells. However, it is not widely used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the severity of the disease and the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who leads an active lifestyle visits her doctor for a routine work-related health check-up. During the check-up, her urinalysis shows a positive result for protein (+) and a 24-hour urine collection is ordered. The results reveal a urine protein level of 25 mg/24 hours. What recommendations should be provided to the patient?
Your Answer: He should start a low protein diet
Correct Answer: This result is within normal limits
Explanation:Proteinuria and its Significance in Patient Assessment
Proteinuria is a condition where protein is present in the urine, which can be an indicator of kidney disease or other underlying health issues. When assessing a patient with suspected proteinuria, it is important to consider their age, activity levels, and the presence of diseases such as diabetes.
Urine albumin levels of 30-300 mg/24 hours are considered microalbuminuria, which is a marker of cardiovascular risk and can predict chronic kidney disease, especially in patients with diabetes. This is usually estimated using the albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), where an ACR of >3.5 mg/mmol in women or >2.5 mg/mmol in men is considered abnormal. Albuminuria is defined as >300 mg/24 hours or an ACR of >30 mg/mmol.
In some patients, particularly young adults, low-level proteinuria (140 mg – 1 g /24 hours) can be normal and may be caused by factors such as exercise, postural changes, or a high protein diet. However, urine microscopy should be done to exclude casts or cells. Proteinuria levels of 1-2 g/24 hours are more concerning and can be a sign of developing kidney disease such as glomerulonephritis.
If proteinuria levels exceed 3 g/24 hours, it is diagnostic of nephrotic syndrome and requires admission to the hospital for further investigation and management. Some authorities use a cut-off of 3.5 g/24 hours in this case. the significance of proteinuria levels is crucial in patient assessment and can aid in the early detection and management of kidney disease and other underlying health issues.
Overall, proteinuria levels should be carefully monitored and evaluated in the context of the patient’s overall health and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 32-year-old smoker presents with acute shortness of breath and oxygen saturation of 84% on air. He has been feeling unwell and fatigued for a week, with worsening shortness of breath over the past 24 hours and two episodes of haemoptysis. On examination, he has sinus tachycardia, a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg, normal JVP, and widespread coarse crackles on chest auscultation. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 92 g/L (130-180), urea level of 40 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and creatinine level of 435 μmol/L (60-110). The urine dipstick shows +++ blood and ++ protein. A chest radiograph shows widespread patchy opacification. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome
Explanation:Pulmonary Renal Syndrome and Anti-GBM Disease
This medical condition is also known as anti-GBM disease and is characterized by a pulmonary renal syndrome. It is commonly seen in patients with anti-GBM disease. Smokers are more likely to experience pulmonary hemorrhage, and the presence of blood and protein on urine dipstick suggests renal inflammation, which is consistent with this diagnosis. Although pulmonary renal syndrome can also occur with systemic lupus erythematosus, this is less likely in this patient due to his sex and lack of systemic symptoms.
Pulmonary edema is a significant differential diagnosis for pulmonary hemorrhage, especially in the context of acute kidney injury. However, the patient’s normal JVP makes fluid overload less likely. Atypical or opportunistic infections can also present with renal impairment, but the low hemoglobin level suggests hemorrhage rather than infection. Overall, this patient’s presentation is consistent with pulmonary renal syndrome and anti-GBM disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.
The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. During the examination, her urine test shows positive results for protein. Upon reviewing her medical records, it is discovered that this is the first time she has had proteinuria. What further tests should be conducted to investigate this finding?
Your Answer: ACR and 24 hour urine protein collection
Correct Answer: ACR (albumin:creatinine ratio) and microbiology
Explanation:Investigating Proteinuria in Diabetic Patients
Proteinuria or microalbuminuria is a significant finding in diabetic patients. It indicates an increased risk of developing diabetic nephropathy in type 1 diabetes and an additional risk factor for cardiovascular disease in type 2 diabetes. When a diabetic patient presents with proteinuria, it is crucial to rule out infection, which is a common cause of increased urinary protein excretion. A urine microbiology test can identify the presence of infection, while an albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) can quantify the degree of proteinuria and allow for future monitoring. Although HbA1c, serum urea/creatinine, and plasma glucose are standard tests for monitoring diabetic patients, they do not help quantify urinary protein loss or exclude infection. A high HbA1c in this situation could indicate longstanding poor glycemic control or poor glycemic control for several weeks due to infection. Therefore, ACR and urine microbiology are the most useful investigations to investigate proteinuria in diabetic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has just finished a round of chemotherapy for leukemia. During a routine check-up, he is discovered to have proteinuria with a level of 1000 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, there are no red cell casts present in his urine. What could be the probable reason for his proteinuria?
Your Answer: Pre-renal proteinuria
Correct Answer: Tubular proteinuria
Explanation:Causes of Tubular Proteinuria
Tubular proteinuria is a condition where proteins are excreted in the urine due to damage to the renal tubules. One common cause of this condition is chemotherapy, particularly ifosphamide and platinum-based agents. Other causes include Fanconi’s syndrome, heavy metal poisoning, tubulointerstitial disease, and the use of certain drugs such as gentamicin. Diabetes, infections, and transplant rejection can also lead to tubular proteinuria.
In summary, there are various factors that can cause tubular proteinuria, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Patients who have undergone chemotherapy should be monitored for signs of renal tubular damage, and any medication that may contribute to the condition should be reviewed. Early detection and management of tubular proteinuria can help prevent further kidney damage and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
Tests revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
Urine Protein 2+
Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?Your Answer: CD4 count
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy
HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 18
Correct
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A patient admitted for treatment of PD peritonitis has had their cloudy PD fluid sent for culture and has been started on empirical antibiotics while awaiting results. What is the most probable pathogen responsible for the infection?
Your Answer: Coagulase negative staph
Explanation:Causes of PD Peritonitis
PD peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis, with 50% of episodes caused by Gram positive organisms. The most frequent culprit is coagulase negative staph, which is often due to contamination from skin flora. While Staph. aureus is becoming more prevalent, it is still less common than coagulase negative staph. Gram negative organisms, such as E. coli, are responsible for only 15% of PD peritonitis cases. Pseudomonas is rare and challenging to treat. Fungal organisms cause peritonitis in less than 2% of patients. Overall, the causes of PD peritonitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The patients' results are as follows:
Adam Ahmed Bella Brownie Charlie Chen David Davis
Urine protein mg/24 hrs: 150 4000 3000 200 300
Haematuria: Present Absent Present Present Absent
Oedema: Absent Present Present Absent Absent
Serum albumin g/l: 24 18 26 17 32
Serum creatinine µmol/l: 430 110 280 560 120
Which patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?Your Answer: Andrew Abraham
Correct Answer: Bella Barnard
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low serum albumin levels, high urinary protein levels, and marked pitting edema. Only individuals who meet all three criteria are diagnosed with this syndrome. Other features of nephrotic syndrome include little or no hematuria, glomerular pathology as the cause, marked hyperlipidemia that increases cardiovascular risk, reduced immunoglobulins that increase the risk of infection, and loss of certain proteins that increase the risk of thrombosis, including renal vein thrombosis. Creatinine levels can be normal or elevated.
The causes of nephrotic syndrome include glomerulonephritis, such as minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, diabetic nephropathy, amyloid (AL form), and connective tissue disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus. the diagnostic criteria and features of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old previously healthy teacher visits her doctor complaining of headache and itching. During her urine test, protein (3+) and blood (1+) are detected, but there are no splinter haemorrhages. What other bedside examination would be beneficial in evaluating her condition?
Your Answer: Electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: Blood pressure
Explanation:Assessment and Further Testing for Kidney Disease
Assessing kidney disease at the bedside involves several steps, including urinalysis, blood pressure measurement, and assessment of volume status. However, further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause of the disease. Blood testing for U&Es, autoantibodies, glucose, HbA1c, complement, and ANCA serology, as well as hepatitis and HIV viral screening, can provide valuable information.
In this case, the patient presents with features consistent with kidney disease, including an abnormal urinalysis. While diabetes could be a possible cause, the patient’s age makes it less likely. Therefore, additional testing is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the disease. Checking the patient’s blood pressure is also important, as hypertension is often associated with renal diseases. Aggressive management of hypertension can help prevent the progression of chronic renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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