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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to her forearm following a robbery. Upon examination, there is numbness observed in the thenar eminence and weakness in finger and wrist flexion. Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the thenar eminence and controlling finger and wrist flexion. Its palmar cutaneous branch supplies sensation to the skin on the lateral side of the palm, including the thenar eminence. The median nerve directly innervates the flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus muscles, which are responsible for wrist flexion, as well as the flexor digitorum superficialis and lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles via the anterior interosseous nerve, which control finger flexion. Damage to the median nerve can result in weakness in these movements.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 2 - A young woman presents with a bilateral intention tremor. She is also found...

    Correct

    • A young woman presents with a bilateral intention tremor. She is also found to have a range of other bilateral deficits, including dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria. Which anatomical structure has likely been affected?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      The individual has a defect in the cerebellar vermis, which is located between the two hemispheres of the cerebellum. As a result, they are experiencing bilateral cerebellar abnormalities, which is evident from their symptoms. Vermin lesions can be caused by conditions such as Joubert Syndrome, Dandy Walker malformation, and rhombencephalosynapsis. On the other hand, lesions in the spinocerebellar tract or one side of the cerebellar hemisphere would cause unilateral, ipsilateral symptoms, making these options incorrect.

      Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 3 - An aging patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to a neurology ward after...

    Correct

    • An aging patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to a neurology ward after experiencing a fall. While conducting a cranial nerves examination, the physician observes that the patient is unable to gaze upward when their head is fixed in place. The physician begins to consider other potential diagnoses. What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Progressive supranuclear palsy

      Explanation:

      These are all syndromes that share the main symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, but also have additional specific symptoms:

      – Progressive supranuclear palsy affects the muscles used for looking upwards.
      – Vascular dementia is a type of dementia that usually occurs after several small strokes.
      – Dementia with Lewy bodies is characterized by the buildup of Lewy bodies, which are clumps of a protein called alpha-synuclein, and often includes visual hallucinations.
      – Multiple system atrophy often involves problems with the autonomic nervous system, such as low blood pressure when standing and difficulty emptying the bladder.

      Progressive supranuclear palsy, also known as Steele-Richardson-Olszewski syndrome, is a type of ‘Parkinson Plus’ syndrome. It is characterized by postural instability and falls, as well as a stiff, broad-based gait. Patients with this condition also experience impairment of vertical gaze, with down gaze being worse than up gaze. This can lead to difficulty reading or descending stairs. Parkinsonism is also present, with bradykinesia being a prominent feature. Cognitive impairment is also common, primarily due to frontal lobe dysfunction. Unfortunately, this condition has a poor response to L-dopa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old woman has experienced a TIA during her hospital stay. An ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman has experienced a TIA during her hospital stay. An ultrasound revealed an 80% blockage in one of her carotid arteries, leading to a carotid endarterectomy. After the procedure, the doctor examines the patient and notices that when asked to stick out her tongue, it deviates towards the left side.

      Which cranial nerve has been affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Left glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Right hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the hypoglossal nerve is damaged, the tongue deviates towards the side of the lesion. This is because the genioglossus muscle, which normally pushes the tongue to the opposite side, is weakened. In the case of a carotid endarterectomy, the hypoglossal nerve may be damaged as it passes through the hypoglossal canal and down the neck. A good memory aid is the tongue never lies as it points towards the side of the lesion. The correct answer in this case is the right hypoglossal nerve, as the patient’s tongue deviates towards the right. Lesions of the left glossopharyngeal nerve, right glossopharyngeal nerve, left hypoglossal nerve, and left trigeminal nerve would result in different symptoms and are therefore incorrect answers.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man is recuperating after undergoing a right total hip replacement. During...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is recuperating after undergoing a right total hip replacement. During a session with the physiotherapists, it is observed that his right foot is dragging on the ground while walking.

      Upon conducting a neurological examination of his lower limbs, it is found that his left leg is completely normal. However, his right leg has 0/5 power of dorsiflexion and knee flexion, a reduced ankle and plantar reflex, and no sensation over the lateral calf, sole, and dorsum of the foot.

      What is the nerve lesion that has occurred?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      Foot drop can be caused by a lesion to the sciatic nerve.

      When the sciatic nerve is damaged, it can result in various symptoms such as foot drop, loss of power below the knee, loss of knee flexion, loss of ankle jerk and plantar response. The sciatic nerve innervates the hamstring muscles in the posterior thigh and indirectly innervates other muscles via its two terminal branches: the tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve. The tibial nerve supplies the calf muscles and some intrinsic muscles of the foot, while the common fibular nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior and lateral leg, as well as the remaining intrinsic foot muscles. Although the sciatic nerve has no direct sensory inputs, it receives information from its two terminal branches, which supply the skin of various areas of the leg and foot.

      Sciatic nerve lesions can occur due to various reasons, such as neck of femur fractures and total hip replacement trauma. However, it is important to note that a femoral nerve lesion would cause different symptoms, such as weakness in anterior thigh muscles, reduced hip flexion and knee extension, and loss of sensation to the anteromedial thigh and medial leg and foot. Similarly, lesions to the lower gluteal nerve or superior gluteal nerve would cause weakness in specific muscles and no sensory loss.

      Understanding Foot Drop: Causes and Examination

      Foot drop is a condition that occurs when the foot dorsiflexors become weak. This can be caused by various factors, including a common peroneal nerve lesion, L5 radiculopathy, sciatic nerve lesion, superficial or deep peroneal nerve lesion, or central nerve lesions. However, the most common cause is a common peroneal nerve lesion, which is often due to compression at the neck of the fibula. This can be triggered by certain positions, prolonged confinement, recent weight loss, Baker’s cysts, or plaster casts to the lower leg.

      To diagnose foot drop, a thorough examination is necessary. If the patient has an isolated peroneal neuropathy, there will be weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and reflexes will be normal. Weakness of hip abduction is suggestive of an L5 radiculopathy. Bilateral symptoms, fasciculations, or other abnormal neurological findings are indications for specialist referral.

      If foot drop is diagnosed, conservative management is appropriate. Patients should avoid leg crossing, squatting, and kneeling. Symptoms typically improve over 2-3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of aphasia lasting for 15 minutes. His partner mentions a similar incident occurred a month ago, but he did not seek medical attention as it resolved on its own.

      Upon point of care testing, his capillary blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol/L (3.9 - 7.1). An urgent CT scan of his brain is conducted, which reveals no signs of acute infarct. However, upon returning from the scan, he regains full speech and denies experiencing any other neurological symptoms.

      What aspect of the episode suggests a diagnosis of transient ischaemic attack?

      Your Answer: There was no evidence of acute infarction on CT imaging, and the episode was brief

      Explanation:

      The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on tissue-based factors rather than time-based ones. It is now defined as a brief episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction. The new guidelines emphasize the importance of focal neurology and negative brain imaging in diagnosing a TIA, which typically lasts less than an hour. This is a departure from the previous definition, which focused on symptoms resolving within 24 hours and led to delays in diagnosis and treatment. Patients may have a history of stereotyped episodes preceding a TIA. Focal neurology is a hallmark of TIA, which can affect motor, sensory, aphasic, or visual areas of the brain. In cases where isolated aphasia lasts only 30 minutes and brain imaging shows no infarction, the patient has had a TIA rather than a stroke.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old woman is involved in a car accident resulting in a complex...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is involved in a car accident resulting in a complex fracture of the distal part of her humerus and damage to the radial nerve. Which movement is likely to be the most affected?

      Your Answer: Elbow flexion

      Correct Answer: Wrist extension

      Explanation:

      Elbow extension will remain unaffected as the triceps are not impacted. However, the most noticeable consequence will be the loss of wrist extension.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following surgical procedures will have the most significant long-term effect...

    Correct

    • Which of the following surgical procedures will have the most significant long-term effect on a patient's calcium metabolism?

      Your Answer: Extensive small bowel resection

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - Which option is false regarding the trigeminal nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is false regarding the trigeminal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The posterior scalp is supplied by the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the posterior scalp is provided by the C2-C3 nerves.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - You are working in the emergency department when a 78-year-old female is brought...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the emergency department when a 78-year-old female is brought in having been found on her bedroom floor in the morning by her carers. She has a recent diagnosis of dementia but her carers report her to seem much more muddled than usual. Her past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and hypertension. Her medications include ramipril, warfarin, and colecalciferol. A CT scan of her head is done which confirms the diagnosis of subdural hemorrhage.

      What is the most likely cause of this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to bridging veins

      Explanation:

      Subdural haemorrhage occurs when there is damage to the bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses, resulting in a collection of blood between the dural and arachnoid coverings of the brain. The most common cause of subdural haemorrhage is trauma, with risk factors including a history of trauma, vulnerability to falls (such as in patients with dementia), increasing age, and use of anticoagulants. In this case, the patient’s fall and dementia put her at risk for subdural haemorrhage due to shearing forces causing a tear in the bridging veins, which may be exacerbated by cerebral atrophy.

      Other types of haemorrhage include extradural haemorrhage, which occurs between the skull and dura mater due to rupture of the middle meningeal artery on the temporal surface, and subarachnoid haemorrhage, which occurs between the arachnoid and pia mater due to rupture of a berry aneurysm. Intracerebral/cerebellar haemorrhage occurs within the brain parenchyma and is typically caused by a haemorrhagic stroke, presenting with sudden onset neurological deficits. CT findings for each type of haemorrhage differ, with subdural haemorrhage presenting as a collection of blood with a crescent shape, extradural haemorrhage as a convex shape, subarachnoid haemorrhage as hyper-attenuation around the circle of Willis, and intracerebral/cerebellar haemorrhage as hyperattenuation in the brain parenchyma.

      Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage

      Subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood accumulates beneath the dural layer of the meninges. This type of bleeding is not within the brain tissue and is referred to as an extra-axial or extrinsic lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified into three types based on their age: acute, subacute, and chronic.

      Acute subdural haematomas are caused by high-impact trauma and are associated with other brain injuries. Symptoms and severity of presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.

      Chronic subdural haematomas, on the other hand, are collections of blood within the subdural space that have been present for weeks to months. They are caused by the rupture of small bridging veins within the subdural space, which leads to slow bleeding. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas due to brain atrophy and fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants can also experience subdural haematomas due to fragile bridging veins rupturing in shaken baby syndrome.

      Chronic subdural haematomas typically present with a progressive history of confusion, reduced consciousness, or neurological deficit. CT imaging shows a crescentic shape, not restricted by suture lines, and compresses the brain. Unlike acute subdurals, chronic subdurals are hypodense compared to the substance of the brain. Treatment options depend on the size and severity of the haematoma, with conservative management or surgical decompression with burr holes being the main options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about his behavior. Upon further inquiry, the wife reveals that her husband has been displaying erratic and impulsive behavior for the past 4 months. She also discloses that he inappropriately touched a family friend, which is out of character for him. When asked about his medical history, the patient mentions that he used to be an avid motorcyclist but had a severe accident 6 months ago, resulting in a month-long hospital stay. He denies experiencing flashbacks and reports generally good mood. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe injury

      Explanation:

      Disinhibition can be a result of frontal lobe lesions.

      Based on his recent accident, it is probable that the man has suffered from a frontal lobe injury. Such injuries can cause changes in behavior, including impulsiveness and a lack of inhibition.

      If the injury were to the occipital lobe, it would likely result in vision loss.

      The patient’s denial of flashbacks and positive mood make it unlikely that he has PTSD.

      Injuries to the parietal and temporal lobes can lead to communication difficulties and sensory perception problems.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of headaches. He reports experiencing scalp...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of headaches. He reports experiencing scalp pain every morning while combing his hair and feeling fatigued while chewing his food. Upon conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers an elevated ESR. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant cell arteritis

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Headaches and Their Characteristics

      Giant cell arteritis is a condition that affects older patients and is characterized by a headache and scalp tenderness, along with jaw claudication. The superficial temporal artery is often affected, and if left untreated, it can lead to visual loss. High doses of steroids are required for treatment, and the dose is gradually reduced based on the patient’s symptoms and the ESR.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a neurological disorder that causes increased intracranial pressure without a mass legion. Symptoms include a headache, which is often worse in the morning, and visual disturbances. A CT head is used to diagnose the condition, and it is treated with repeated lumbar punctures.

      Migraine is a recurrent headache that follows a transient prodromal phase. The headache can be accompanied by photophobia and vomiting and can be triggered by various factors such as chocolate and cheese.

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is characterized by the worst headache that patients have ever experienced, along with confusion and vomiting. Early recognition and referral to neurosurgery is essential.

      Tension headache is a feeling of pressure or tightness around the head, without any associated features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A patient experiencing a loss of taste in the front two-thirds of their...

    Incorrect

    • A patient experiencing a loss of taste in the front two-thirds of their tongue may have incurred damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The anterior 2/3 of the tongue receives taste sensation from the facial nerve, while general sensation, which pertains to touch, is provided by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for providing both taste and general sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - Sarah, a 30-year-old female, visits her doctor complaining of tingling sensation in her...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 30-year-old female, visits her doctor complaining of tingling sensation in her thumb, index finger, middle finger, and lateral aspect of ring finger. She is currently in the second trimester of her first pregnancy.

      During the examination, Sarah exhibits a positive Tinel's sign, leading to a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which nerve branch is responsible for innervating the lateral aspect of the palm of the hand and is usually unaffected in carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palmar cutaneous nerve of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The palmar cutaneous nerve, which provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the palm of the hand, branches off from the median nerve before it enters the carpal tunnel. This means that it is not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression of the median nerve within the tunnel. Other branches of the median nerve, such as the anterior interosseous nerve, palmar digital branch, and recurrent branch, are affected by carpal tunnel syndrome to varying degrees. The ulnar nerve is not involved in carpal tunnel syndrome, so the palmar cutaneous nerve of the ulnar nerve is not relevant to this condition.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - Mrs. Johnson presents to her GP with pain in her left eye and...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Johnson presents to her GP with pain in her left eye and a strange feeling that something is bothering her eye. After a corneal reflex test, it is observed that the corneal reflex on the left is impaired, specifically due to a lesion affecting the nerve serving as the afferent limb of the pathway.

      What is the name of the nerve that serves as the afferent limb of the corneal pathway, detecting stimuli?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The corneal reflex pathway involves the detection of stimuli by the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve, which then travels to the trigeminal ganglion. The brainstem, specifically the trigeminal nucleus, detects this signal and sends signals to both the left and right facial nerve. This causes the orbicularis oculi muscle to contract, resulting in a bilateral blink. The oculomotor nerve, on the other hand, innervates the extraocular muscles responsible for eye movement and does not provide any sensory function.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old male who has been newly diagnosed with giant cell arteritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male who has been newly diagnosed with giant cell arteritis presents with a positive relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) in his right eye during examination.

      What is the significance of RAPD in this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The left and right eye appears to dilate when light is shone on the left eye

      Explanation:

      When there is a relative afferent pupillary defect, shining light on the affected eye causes both the affected and normal eye to appear to dilate. This occurs because there are differences in the afferent pathway between the two eyes, often due to retinal or optic nerve disease, which results in reduced constriction of both pupils when light is directed from the unaffected eye to the affected eye.

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.

      The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

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  • Question 17 - Which statement is false about the foramina of the skull? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false about the foramina of the skull?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The foramen spinosum is at the base of the medial pterygoid plate.

      Explanation:

      Foramina of the Base of the Skull

      The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.

      The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducens nerve.

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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman complains of increasing diplopia that worsens as the day progresses....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman complains of increasing diplopia that worsens as the day progresses. She has been experiencing double vision for a few weeks now, and notes that it is more pronounced in the evenings and absent in the mornings. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports that her diplopia improves after resting her eyes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      The main characteristic of myasthenia gravis is muscle weakness that worsens with use and improves with rest, without causing pain. This condition often affects the oculomotor nerve and is more prevalent in women. Diagnosis is typically confirmed through single fibre electromyography, which has a high level of sensitivity.

      While migraines can also cause double vision, they usually come with additional symptoms such as pain and nausea. A classic migraine may include a visual aura or sensitivity to light. Additionally, the patient’s age of 45 is older than the typical age of onset for migraines.

      Diabetic neuropathy can also lead to double vision, but it typically presents with a loss of sensation in the hands and feet. There is no indication that this patient has diabetes.

      Multiple sclerosis often first presents with vision problems affecting the optic nerve. Optic neuritis, for example, can cause pain, central scotoma, and colour vision loss.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of alterations in his vision. In...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of alterations in his vision. In addition to decreased sharpness, he describes object distortion, difficulty discerning colors, and occasional flashes of light. He has a history of smoking (40-pack-year) and a high BMI. Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity, altered perception of colors and shades, and photopsia (flashing lights). The risk of developing AMD is higher in individuals who are older and have a history of smoking.

      As a natural part of the aging process, presbyopia can cause difficulty with near vision. Smoking increases the likelihood of developing cataracts, which can result in poor visual acuity and reduced contrast sensitivity. However, symptoms such as distortion and flashing lights are not typically associated with cataracts. Similarly, retinal detachment is unlikely given the patient’s risk factors and lack of distortion and perception issues. Since there is no mention of diabetes mellitus in the patient’s history, diabetic retinopathy is not a plausible explanation.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due to an industrial accident he had in his thirties. The WHO defines chronic pain as pain that persists for how long?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Chronic pain is defined by the WHO as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 weeks, and all other options are incorrect.

      Guidelines for Managing Chronic Pain

      Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks and can include conditions such as musculoskeletal pain, neuropathic pain, vascular insufficiency, and degenerative disorders. In 2013, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines for the management of chronic, non-cancer related pain.

      Non-pharmacological interventions are recommended by SIGN, including self-management information, exercise, manual therapy, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). Exercise has been shown to be effective in improving chronic pain, and specific support such as referral to an exercise program is recommended. Manual therapy is particularly effective for spinal pain, while TENS can also be helpful.

      Pharmacological interventions may be necessary, but if medications are not effective after 2-4 weeks, they are unlikely to be effective. For neuropathic pain, SIGN recommends gabapentin or amitriptyline as first-line treatments. NICE also recommends pregabalin or duloxetine as first-line treatments. For fibromyalgia, duloxetine or fluoxetine are recommended.

      If patients are using more than 180 mg/day morphine equivalent, experiencing significant distress, or rapidly escalating their dose without pain relief, SIGN recommends referring them to specialist pain management services.

      Overall, the management of chronic pain requires a comprehensive approach that includes both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions, as well as referral to specialist services when necessary.

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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man with T2DM goes for his yearly diabetic retinopathy screening and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with T2DM goes for his yearly diabetic retinopathy screening and is diagnosed with proliferative diabetic retinopathy. What retinal characteristics are indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: neovascularization

      Explanation:

      Diabetic retinopathy is a progressive disease that affects the retina and is a complication of diabetes mellitus (DM). The condition is caused by persistent high blood sugar levels, which can damage the retinal vessels and potentially lead to vision loss. The damage is caused by retinal ischaemia, which occurs when the retinal vasculature becomes blocked.

      There are various retinal findings that indicate the presence of diabetic retinopathy, which can be classified into two categories: non-proliferative and proliferative. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of microaneurysms, ‘cotton-wool’ spots, ‘dot-blot’ haemorrhages, and venous beading at different stages. However, neovascularization, or the formation of new blood vessels, is the finding associated with more advanced, proliferative retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycaemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.

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  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her father. She complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her father. She complains of a headache followed by seeing flashing lights and floaters. Her father also noticed her eyes moving from side to side. What type of seizure is likely to be associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occipital lobe seizure

      Explanation:

      Visual changes like floaters and flashes are common symptoms of occipital lobe seizures, while hallucinations and automatisms are associated with temporal lobe seizures. Head and leg movements, as well as postictal weakness, are typical of frontal lobe seizures, while paraesthesia is a common symptom of parietal lobe seizures.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old male patient complains of back pain and during examination, the surgeon...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient complains of back pain and during examination, the surgeon assesses the ankle reflex. Which nerve roots are being tested in this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S1 and S2

      Explanation:

      The ankle reflex is a neurological test that assesses the function of the S1 and S2 nerve roots. When the Achilles tendon is tapped with a reflex hammer, the resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of these nerve roots. A normal response is a quick and brisk contraction of the muscle, while a diminished or absent response may indicate nerve damage or dysfunction. The ankle reflex is a simple and non-invasive test that can provide valuable information about a patient’s neurological health.

      The ankle reflex is a test that checks the function of the S1 and S2 nerve roots by tapping the Achilles tendon with a tendon hammer. This reflex is often delayed in individuals with L5 and S1 disk prolapses.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of headache, confusion, and lethargy. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of headache, confusion, and lethargy. During the examination, he has a fever and exhibits weakness on the right side. A CT scan reveals a ring-enhancing lesion that affects the motor cortex on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, headache, and rapidly worsening neurological symptoms strongly indicates the possibility of cerebral abscess. A CT scan can confirm this diagnosis by revealing a lesion with a ring-enhancing appearance, as the contrast material cannot reach the center of the abscess cavity. It is important to note that HSV encephalitis does not typically result in ring-enhancing lesions.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform after drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered, along with intracranial pressure management using dexamethasone.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that require prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 25 - You are a final year medical student working in the emergency department. You...

    Incorrect

    • You are a final year medical student working in the emergency department. You have been asked to see a 25-year-old male presenting with a red, painful eye. He reports a gritty discomfort in his right eye which has been increasing in severity throughout the last day. He has no significant past medical history, although reports having a recent upper respiratory tract infection. He works as a plumber and has been on an active construction site for much of the day without eye protection.

      On examination, the right eyelid appears swollen and mildly erythematous. There is a watery discharge from the eye. The conjunctiva is widely injected. The eye has a full range of movements and the pupil is equal and reactive to light. There is no reduction in visual acuity. There is a small dark corneal lesion with an orange halo at the 3-o'clock position with minor fluorescein uptake around its periphery.

      What is the most likely cause for the presenting symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron-containing corneal foreign body

      Explanation:

      When someone presents with a red eye, it is often due to an ocular foreign body. If the foreign body contains iron, it may have a distinctive orange halo. Dendritic corneal ulcers, which have a characteristic shape visible with fluorescein staining, are caused by HSV-1 viruses from the herpesviridae family. It is important to avoid using topical steroids in these cases. Plant-based foreign bodies are more likely to cause infection than inert foreign bodies like plastic or glass, or oxidizing foreign bodies like iron. Viral conjunctivitis typically presents with bilateral, itchy, painful red eyes with watery discharge and small follicles on the tarsal conjunctiva. Acute angle closure crisis is a serious emergency that causes a painful, red eye with a poorly responsive pupil that is mid-dilated. Iron-containing foreign bodies begin to oxidize within six hours of contact with the corneal surface, leading to an orange ring of ferrous material that disperses into the superficial corneal layers and tear film surrounding the foreign body.

      Corneal foreign body is a condition characterized by eye pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, watering eye, and red eye. It is important to refer patients to ophthalmology if there is a suspected penetrating eye injury due to high-velocity injuries or sharp objects, significant orbital or peri-ocular trauma, or a chemical injury has occurred. Foreign bodies composed of organic material should also be referred to ophthalmology as they are associated with a higher risk of infection and complications. Additionally, foreign bodies in or near the centre of the cornea and any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or significant reduction in visual acuity should be referred to ophthalmology. For further information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

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  • Question 26 - A teenage boy is in a car crash and experiences a spinal cord...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy is in a car crash and experiences a spinal cord injury resulting in a hemisection of his spinal cord. What clinical features will he exhibit on examination below the level of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness and loss of light touch sensation on the same side and loss of pain on the opposite side

      Explanation:

      When a hemisection of the spinal cord occurs, it results in a condition known as Brown-Sequard syndrome. This condition is characterized by sensory and motor loss on the same side of the injury, as well as pain loss on the opposite side. The loss of motor function on the same side is due to damage to the corticospinal tract, which does not cross over within the spinal cord but instead decussates in the brainstem. Similarly, the loss of light touch on the same side is due to damage to the dorsal column, which also decussates in the brainstem. In contrast, the loss of pain on the opposite side is due to damage to the spinothalamic tract, which decussates at the level of sensory input. As a result, pain signals are always carried on the opposite side of the spinal cord, while motor and light touch signals are carried on the same side as the injury.

      Understanding Brown-Sequard Syndrome

      Brown-Sequard syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is a lateral hemisection of the spinal cord. This condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms that affect the body’s ability to sense and move. Individuals with Brown-Sequard syndrome experience weakness on the same side of the body as the lesion, as well as a loss of proprioception and vibration sensation on that side. On the opposite side of the body, there is a loss of pain and temperature sensation.

      It is important to note that the severity of Brown-Sequard syndrome can vary depending on the location and extent of the spinal cord injury. Some individuals may experience only mild symptoms, while others may have more severe impairments. Treatment for Brown-Sequard syndrome typically involves a combination of physical therapy, medication, and other supportive measures to help manage symptoms and improve overall quality of life.

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  • Question 27 - You are called to assess a 43-year-old woman in the emergency department who...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to assess a 43-year-old woman in the emergency department who was brought in by her partner after collapsing while attempting to get into a car. The patient has been experiencing generalised abdominal pain and diarrhoea for a few days and has recently complained of feeling weak and unsteady on her feet.

      Upon examination, the patient has intact lower limb sensation but struggles to perform movements against resistance. Both ankle and knee jerks are absent. You order bedside spirometry to assess respiratory function while awaiting further investigations.

      What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection with Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is Guillain-Barre syndrome, which is a demyelinating ascending polyneuropathy that is typically triggered by a flu-like illness such as Epstein Barr virus or gastroenteritis caused by Campylobacter jejuni. The diagnosis is usually suspected based on clinical presentation, with nerve conduction studies and lumbar puncture sometimes used for confirmation. Bedside spirometry is also performed to assess respiratory function, as respiratory muscle weakness can lead to type 2 respiratory failure, which is a major complication of the condition. Supportive management is the initial approach, with ventilation considered if necessary. IVIG and plasma exchange are the main treatment options.

      Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are associated with myasthenia gravis, which primarily affects the extra-ocular and bulbar muscles, causing diplopia and dysphagia. Involvement of the lower limbs is rare. Multiple sclerosis, on the other hand, is characterized by episodes of CNS damage that are separate in space and time, making it unlikely to be suspected in a single episode. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, which is caused by a deficiency in ADAMTS13, is a severe haematological disease that can lead to thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, renal impairment, and severe neurological deficit, but it is not the most likely cause in this case.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of weakness and sensory loss on the right side of his body that started 2 hours ago. He reports difficulty walking due to more pronounced leg weakness than arm weakness, but denies any changes in vision or speech. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and is currently taking metformin and ramipril for these conditions.

      Imaging is immediately performed, and treatment for his condition is initiated.

      What is the likely location of the lesion based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the left anterior cerebral artery. The patient is experiencing a stroke on the right side of their body, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. This indicates that the anterior cerebral artery is affected, specifically on the left side as the symptoms are affecting the right side of the body.

      The other options are incorrect. If the middle cerebral artery was affected, the upper extremities would be more affected than the lower. If the right anterior cerebral artery was affected, the left side of the brain would be affected. If the right middle cerebral artery was affected, there would be more weakness in the upper extremities and the left side of the body would be affected.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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  • Question 29 - A 59-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of visual disturbance. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and is currently taking atorvastatin. Additionally, he smokes 15 cigarettes daily, drinks half a bottle of wine each night, and works as a bond-trader.

      Upon examination of his eyes, a field defect is observed in the right upper quadrant of both his right and left eye. Other than that, the examination is unremarkable.

      What is the anatomical location of the lesion that is affecting his vision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left inferior optic radiation

      Explanation:

      A right superior homonymous quadrantanopia in the patient is caused by a lesion in the left inferior optic radiation located in the temporal lobe. The sudden onset indicates a possible stroke or vascular event. A superior homonymous quadrantanopia occurs when the contralateral inferior optic radiation is affected.

      A lesion in the left superior optic radiation would result in a right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, which is not the case here. Similarly, a lesion in the left optic tract would cause contralateral hemianopia, which is also not the diagnosis in this patient.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 30 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the child assessment unit by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the child assessment unit by her father. She has been experiencing lower leg pain for over 3 weeks. He reports that she has been tripping more than usual but attributes it to her new carpet. Lately, she has been having difficulty getting out of bed and sometimes complains of feeling tired. The child appears to be in good health but has a runny nose. During the examination, she falls off the bed and lands on the floor. She uses her arms and legs to help herself up as she tries to stand.

      What is the observed sign in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gower's sign

      Explanation:

      Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy typically exhibit a positive Gower’s sign, which is due to weakness in the proximal muscles, particularly those in the lower limbs. This sign has a moderate sensitivity and high specificity. While idiopathic toe walking may also be present in DMD, it is more commonly associated with cerebral palsy and does not match the description in the given scenario. The Allis sign, also known as Galeazzi’s test, is utilized to evaluate for hip dislocation, primarily in cases of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Tinel’s sign is a method used to identify irritated nerves by tapping lightly over the nerve to elicit a sensation of tingling or ‘pins and needles’ in the nerve’s distribution.

      Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It connects the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy may also exhibit calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when they use their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that typically develops after the age of 10 years. It is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene, which preserves both binding sites. Intellectual impairment is much less common in individuals with Becker muscular dystrophy.

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      • Neurological System
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