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  • Question 1 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Infective causes of hair loss include:
      Dissecting cellulitis
      Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      Folliculitis
      Secondary syphilis
      Demodex folliculorum
      Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).
      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 21 year old patient presents with multiple itchy wheals on his skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old patient presents with multiple itchy wheals on his skin. The wheals are of all sizes and they are exacerbated by scratching. The symptoms started after a viral infection and can last up to an hour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urticaria

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is a group of disorders that share a distinct skin reaction pattern, namely the occurrence of itchy wheals anywhere on the skin. Wheals are short-lived elevated erythematous lesions ranging from a few millimetres to several centimetres in diameter and can become confluent. The itching can be prickling or burning and is usually worse in the evening or night time. Triggering of urticaria by infections has been discussed for many years but the exact role and pathogenesis of mast cell activation by infectious processes is unclear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis and Vitamin D analogues

      Explanation:

      One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas require surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the palmar aspect of her hands and interdigital spaces. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinea manum

      Explanation:

      Tinea manum is a superficial fungal infection of the hands characterised by dry scaly rash and also involves the interdigital spaces of the hands.

      Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of feet, whereas onychomycosis represents a fungal infection of the nails, characterised by nail dystrophy, hyperkeratosis.

      Kerion is the name given to secondarily infected tinea capitis leading to a soft boggy swelling over the scalp.

      Psoriasis presents as silvery scales over the extensors of the body and it may involve the nails, scalp and joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous...

    Incorrect

    • A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is an X-linked recessive condition, which is caused by mutations in DNA gyrase which further encodes the XP gene. The defect may lead to skin cancer at an early stage of life, especially at photo exposed sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
      – Psoriasis
      – Atopic eczema
      – Erythema multiforme
      – Seborrheic dermatitis
      – Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
      – Mycosis fungoides
      – Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
      – Porphyria cutanea tarda
      Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
      – Systemic lupus erythematosus
      – Sjögren’s syndrome
      – Sinear Usher syndrome
      – Rosacea
      – Dermatomyositis
      – Darier’s disease
      – Kindler-Weary syndrome
      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes -...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes - it has a punched-out appearance. He is known to both smoke and drinks heavily. Upon examination, the ulcer is yellow in colour. His foot also turns red when it hangs from the bed. From the list given, choose the single most likely diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial ischemia ulcer

      Explanation:

      Arterial ischemia ulcers present with many of the symptoms observed in this patient: ulcer on the lower extremities, pain, swelling, yellow sores, a punched-out appearance, the foot turning red when dangling from a bed. Smoking a lot is also known to be a causative factor here. This type of ulcer develops due to damage to the arteries caused by a lack of blood flow to the tissue – they are also deep wounds. Venous ischemic ulcers usually form in the knee or inner ankle area as opposed to the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old female presents with tiredness and weakness. On examination, she is pale...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female presents with tiredness and weakness. On examination, she is pale and has a haemoglobin of 72 g/L with an MCV of 68 fL. Which nail changes may be seen in association with this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Koilonychia

      Explanation:

      Koilonychia, known as spoon nails, is a condition of the nails bending inwards, taking the shape of a spoon. This is a strong indication of iron-deficiency anaemia (IDA). The rest of the patient’s symptoms further indicate IDA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diabetic dermadromes constitute a group of cutaneous conditions commonly seen in people with diabetes with longstanding disease. Conditions included in this group are:
      – Acral dry gangrene
      – Carotenosis
      – Diabetic dermopathy
      – Diabetic bulla
      – Diabetic cheiroarthropathy
      – Malum perforans
      – Necrobiosis lipoidica
      – Limited joint mobility
      – Scleroderma
      – Waxy skin is observed in roughly 50%.

      Sweet’s syndrome is also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis has a strong association with acute myeloid leukaemia. It is not associated with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:
      – Idiopathic
      – Trauma, excessive manicuring
      – Infection: especially fungal
      – Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis
      – Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s
      – Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
      – Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).
      – Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicose eczema

      Explanation:

      Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following is FALSE with regards to vitiligo? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is FALSE with regards to vitiligo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A positive family history is not a risk factor

      Explanation:

      The cause of Vitiligo is typically unknown. It is believed to be due to genetic susceptibility that is triggered by an environmental factor such that an autoimmune disease occurs. This results in the destruction of skin pigment cells. Risk factors include a family history of the condition or other autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, alopecia areata, and pernicious anaemia. Vitiligo is classified into two main types: segmental and non-segmental. Most cases are non-segmental meaning they affect both sides and typically get worse with time. The prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-1% of populations worldwide. Typical sites include backs of hands, wrists, knees, neck and around body orifices. The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma. This occurs in vitiligo secondary to scratching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Yellow nail syndrome is a very rare medical syndrome that includes pleural effusions, lymphedema (due to under development of the lymphatic vessels) and yellow dystrophic nails. Approximately 40% will also have bronchiectasis. It is also associated with chronic sinusitis and persistent coughing and it usually affects adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 35 year old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over the dorsum of his hand, after serving in a hilly area of Columbia for 2 months. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      The chief presentation in Leishmaniasis is a non healing, ulcerated, painless and non pruritic plaque, which does not respond to oral antibiotics. It can be classified into cutaneous and visceral forms and is caused by the sand fly. It is more prevalent in the hilly areas. Fusobacterium causes a tropical ulcer which is painful and shallow, while Troanasomiasis causes sleeping sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a nodular growth over the dorsum of the his nose, about 0.6 cm in size. The base of nodule is slightly ulcerated and its margins are raised. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Basal cell carcinoma is usually located on sun exposed sites. It has got many variants and clinically it presents as a slow growing mass/nodule with rolled margins and an ulcerated base.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 35 year old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which wakes him up in the night. He also has a itchy, dry and scaly skin rash. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eczema

      Explanation:

      The skin lesion is most probably eczema. It is common among atopic people. Asthma is a common association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:
      Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal joints
      Heliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swelling
      Shawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light.
      Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead.
      Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - Which features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic naevi are skin tumours produced by melanocytes. They usually present in childhood but increase during puberty. The mnemonic A-B-C-D, is used by institutions to assess for suspicion of malignancy. The letters stand for asymmetry, border, colour, and diameter. If a mole starts changing in size, colour, shape or, especially, if the border of a mole develops ragged edges or becomes larger than a pencil eraser, it would be an appropriate time to consult with a physician. Other warning signs include if it begins to crust over, bleed, itch, or become inflamed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she had previously applied cream to the body of a patient with similar symptoms. What is the mechanism that produces her itch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Contact dermatitis is a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance or an allergic reaction to it. The entry of allergen into the epidermis or dermis causes a localized allergic reaction. Local mast-cell activation in the skin leads immediately to a local increase in vascular permeability, which causes extravasation of fluid and swelling. Histamine released by mast cells activated by allergen in the skin causes large, itchy, red swellings of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 2 year old child was brought to casualty with recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old child was brought to casualty with recurrent episodes of eczematoid rash over the cheeks and flexural regions of his body. Which one of the following statement best suit this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% ointment should be applied sparingly to areas of active eczema

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis is an allergic condition which is more apparent in those children who have a positive family history in their 1st or 2nd degree relatives. In some cases, there might be a positive history of bronchial asthma. The best treatment option in this case would be topical application of 1% hydrocortisone ointment to the affected areas of the child. We cannot prescribe a strong ointment to the face because it may lead to skin atrophy, telangiectasia and other steroid related topical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diameter of melanoma > 6 mm

      Explanation:

      Features that affect prognosis are tumour thickness in millimetres (Breslow’s depth – the deeper the Breslow thickness the poorer the prognosis.), depth related to skin structures (Clark level – the level of invasion through the dermis), type of melanoma, presence of ulceration, presence of lymphatic/perineural invasion, presence of tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes (if present, prognosis is better), location of lesion, presence of satellite lesions, and presence of regional or distant metastasis. Malignant melanoma tends to grow radially before entering a vertical growth phase. The diameter it reaches has not been found to be a prognostic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month history of a yellowish, crusted plaque over his scalp, along with some scarring alopecia. What will the likely diagnosis be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Favus

      Explanation:

      Favus is a fungal infection of the scalp, resulting in the formation of a yellowish crusted plaque over the scalp and leads to scar formation with alopecia. Tinea capitus is a fungal infection of the scalp resulting in scaling and non scarring hair loss. Folliculitis presents with multiple perifollicular papules which can be caused by both bacteria and fungi. Cradle cap usually affects infants where the whole scalp is involved. It can lead to hair loss and responds to topical antifungals and keratolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which of the following statements best suits scabies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen

      Explanation:

      Scabies is an infection caused by a microscopic mite known as Sarcoptes scabies. The chief presenting complaint is itching especially in skin folds and mostly during night. It spreads from one person to another through skin contact, and therefore it is more prevalent in crowded areas like hospitals, hostels and even at homes where people live in close contact with each other. Treatment options include benzyl benzoate, ivermectin, sulphur and permethrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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