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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old male presents to a mental health specialist with a belief that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to a mental health specialist with a belief that the government has taken over his body. He is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. What are the potential side effects of this type of medication?

      Your Answer: Psychosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics block dopamine receptors, resulting in a broad range of side effects. These may include dystonia, dyskinesia, antiemetic effects, and hyperprolactinemia. Additionally, antipsychotics can cause metabolic syndrome and a prolonged QT interval, so caution is necessary. The other choices do not pertain to the side effects of antipsychotics.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the name of the zoonotic organism that can lead to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the zoonotic organism that can lead to the development of a rash, meningitis, arthritis, and neuropathies?

      Your Answer: Yersinia pestis

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      Lyme Disease and Other Tick-Borne Illnesses

      Lyme disease is a type of tick-borne illness that is caused by a zoonotic organism called Borrelia burgdorferi. This disease typically develops in three stages, with the first stage characterized by a rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is often referred to as erythema migrans and has a distinctive bulls eye appearance with central clearing. During the second stage of the disease, patients may develop carditis, lymphocytic meningitis, or neuropathies, including bilateral VII palsy. In the third stage, patients may experience a range of vague symptoms, such as malaise, fatigue, and arthralgia or arthritis. Most patients remember the tick bite, which can help with diagnosis.

      Lyme disease is typically diagnosed using serology for Borrelia and is treated with tetracycline. Other tick-borne illnesses include cat scratch fever, which is caused by Bartonella henselae and is characterized by lymphadenopathy with pyrexia. Brucella and Coxiella can cause brucellosis and Q-fever, respectively, which can lead to fever of unknown origin with arthritis. Finally, Yersinia pestis is the cause of bubonic plague. these different tick-borne illnesses and their symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?

      Your Answer: An active placebo

      Correct Answer: A nocebo

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain, along with continuous nausea and vomiting. She had visited the emergency department a week ago due to severe bloody diarrhea and was hospitalized for a day before being released.

      Her amylase levels are elevated.

      Which medication is the most probable cause of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is known to cause pancreatitis, which is likely the adverse effect experienced by this patient. It is possible that the patient was prescribed azathioprine after presenting with severe bloody diarrhea, a symptom of an acute flare-up of ulcerative colitis. Other drugs listed are not commonly associated with pancreatitis, although erythromycin may have a weak association. For more information on serious adverse effects of the listed drugs, please refer to the table below.

      Drug Serious adverse effects
      Paracetamol Hepatotoxicity
      Amitriptyline Anticholinergic side effects
      Erythromycin GI disturbance and prolongs QT interval
      Azathioprine Bone marrow depression and pancreatitis

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old male on the gastroenterology ward has been experiencing recurrent episodes of diarrhoea following the completion of antibiotics for severe community-acquired pneumonia.

      There is no significant medical history to report.

      The patient has a known allergy to metronidazole.

      The consultant has requested that you initiate treatment with vancomycin and discuss potential side effects with the patient.

      What adverse effect should be highlighted during this discussion?

      Your Answer: Risk of nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect, along with Redman’s syndrome and blood dyscrasias such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia. Erythromycin is often linked to gastrointestinal upset, while flucloxacillin and amoxicillin are associated with cholestasis. Tendonitis is a known adverse effect of ciprofloxacin, and patients with mononucleosis may experience a rash when taking amoxicillin.

      Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective in treating infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, especially those that are resistant to methicillin, such as Staphylococcus aureus. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, which prevents the polymerization of peptidoglycans. However, bacteria can develop resistance to vancomycin by altering the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits, which are the sites where the antibiotic binds.

      Despite its effectiveness, vancomycin can cause adverse effects such as nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and thrombophlebitis. Rapid infusion of vancomycin can also lead to a condition called red man syndrome, which is characterized by flushing and itching of the skin. Therefore, it is important to use vancomycin only when necessary and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      68.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - As a junior doctor in a GP surgery, you are requested to examine...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in a GP surgery, you are requested to examine an 82-year-old man who has reported a tremor in his left hand. What additional symptoms could indicate the presence of Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Bradykinesia and rigidity

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is characterized by three main symptoms: tremor at rest, bradykinesia, and rigidity. Nystagmus is not a typical feature of Parkinson’s disease, while chorea is more commonly associated with Huntington’s disease. Although ataxia may be present in Parkinson’s disease, it is more frequently seen in cases of cerebellar lesions.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 9-month old baby is brought to the GP with developmental delay, failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month old baby is brought to the GP with developmental delay, failure to thrive, and poor feeding. The infant shows reluctance to play and cannot sit independently. Physical examination reveals small hands and feet, blond hair, pale skin, and a squint. Additionally, there is poor muscle tone centrally and unilaterally undescended testes. What syndrome is indicated by these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Marfan syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      The key factors in this scenario are the child’s physical characteristics and developmental delays. The child is not meeting their developmental milestones in gross motor skills and social interaction, and they exhibit physical features that suggest Prader-Willi syndrome, such as hypopigmentation, esotropia, small hands and feet, loss of muscle tone, and undescended testes. Prader-Willi syndrome is also known to cause failure to thrive in the first year or so, followed by hyperphagia and obesity.

      While Klinefelter syndrome can also cause developmental delays, undescended or small testes, and reduced muscle strength, it does not typically present with the same physical features as Prader-Willi syndrome.

      Marfan syndrome is characterized by different physical features, such as long, thin fingers and cardiovascular and respiratory issues, and does not typically cause the same symptoms as Prader-Willi syndrome.

      DiGeorge syndrome can cause developmental delays, feeding difficulties, and hypotonia, but it also typically presents with facial abnormalities, hearing issues, and cardiac problems, which are not mentioned in this scenario.

      Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental delays, poor muscle tone, feeding difficulties, and growth issues, but it also typically presents with distinct facial and skeletal abnormalities that are not mentioned in this scenario. Therefore, based on the information provided, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome

      Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.

      There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome. The first is a microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases. The second is maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. This means that both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother, and there is no active Prader-Willi gene from the father.

      The features of Prader-Willi syndrome include hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence. These symptoms can vary in severity and may require lifelong management.

      In conclusion, Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic disorder that affects multiple aspects of an individual’s health and development. Understanding the causes and features of this syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis C is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis C is accurate?

      Your Answer: Interferon-alpha with or without ribavirin is the treatment of choice

      Correct Answer: A combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is the treatment of choice

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of numbness in his right arm and leg. Upon examination, he displays reduced sensation and 3 out of 5 power in his right arm and leg. A head CT scan reveals ischaemia in the region of the left middle cerebral artery. Following initial treatment, he is considered unsuitable for clopidogrel and is instead given aspirin and other antiplatelet drug that functions by inhibiting phosphodiesterase.

      What is the name of the additional antiplatelet medication that this patient is likely to have been prescribed alongside aspirin?

      Your Answer: Ticagrelor

      Correct Answer: Dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole is a medication that inhibits phosphodiesterase non-specifically and reduces the uptake of adenosine by cells. The symptoms and CT scan results of this patient suggest that they have experienced a stroke on the left side due to ischemia. According to the NICE 2010 guidelines, after confirming that the stroke is not hemorrhagic and providing initial treatment, patients are advised to take either clopidogrel or a combination of aspirin and dipyridamole, which acts as a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Heparins function by activating antithrombin III.

      Ticagrelor and prasugrel act as antagonists of the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Dipyridamole

      Dipyridamole is a medication that is commonly used in combination with aspirin to prevent the formation of blood clots after a stroke or transient ischemic attack. The drug works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which leads to an increase in the levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in platelets. This, in turn, reduces the levels of intracellular calcium, which is necessary for platelet activation and aggregation.

      Apart from its antiplatelet effects, dipyridamole also reduces the cellular uptake of adenosine, a molecule that plays a crucial role in regulating blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. By inhibiting the uptake of adenosine, dipyridamole can increase its levels in the bloodstream, leading to vasodilation and improved blood flow.

      Another mechanism of action of dipyridamole is the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, an enzyme that is involved in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet activator. By blocking this enzyme, dipyridamole can further reduce platelet activation and aggregation, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots.

      In summary, dipyridamole exerts its antiplatelet effects through multiple mechanisms, including the inhibition of phosphodiesterase, the reduction of intracellular calcium levels, the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, and the modulation of adenosine uptake. These actions make it a valuable medication for preventing thrombotic events in patients with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the mechanism of action of heparin in elderly patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of heparin in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Inhibits antithrombin III

      Correct Answer: Activates antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Unfractionated heparin works by activating antithrombin III, which then forms a complex that inhibits several clotting factors including thrombin, factors Xa, Ixa, Xia, and XIIa.

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      Most rotator cuff muscles insert into the greater tuberosity, except for subscapularis which inserts into the lesser tuberosity.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old medical student comes to you with complaints of shoulder pain and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old medical student comes to you with complaints of shoulder pain and limited mobility after a rough tackle during a rugby match. Upon examination, you observe that his shoulder is visibly dislocated, leading you to suspect an anterior shoulder dislocation. Can you identify which nerve is most vulnerable to injury in this case?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Injuries in the Upper Arm

      When the proximal humerus moves downward, it can cause damage to the nerves of the brachial plexus, particularly the axillary nerve. Signs of axillary nerve damage include sensory loss on the lateral side of the upper arm, inability to raise the arm (deltoid), and weakened lateral rotation (teres minor).

      Other nerve injuries in the upper arm include median nerve damage, which can cause tingling in the thumb and first two and a half digits, as well as loss of function in the thenar muscles. Musculocutaneous nerve damage can lead to tingling in the lateral forearm and inability to flex the elbow. Radial nerve damage can cause tingling in the posterior compartment of the forearm and dorsum of the hand, as well as wrist drop. Ulnar nerve damage can result in tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger, as well as loss of grip strength.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A glazier in his 40s slipped and cut his wrist on a piece...

    Incorrect

    • A glazier in his 40s slipped and cut his wrist on a piece of glass a few months ago. He did not seek medical advice at the time.

      What signs of ulnar nerve damage would you expect to find on examination?

      Your Answer: Sensory loss of the lateral part of the hand

      Correct Answer: Wasting of the interossei

      Explanation:

      Lesion of the Ulnar Nerve at the Wrist

      A lesion of the ulnar nerve at the wrist does not result in sensory loss as the dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve remains unaffected. Additionally, the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is also spared, which means that wrist flexion is not affected. However, wasting and weakness are limited to the interossei and adductor pollicis muscle, while the hypothenar muscles are usually spared.

      It is important to note that sensory loss of the lateral part of the hand occurs in a median nerve injury, while sensory loss of the dorsal surface of the thumb occurs in a radial nerve injury. Furthermore, weakness of wrist flexion occurs when the ulnar or median nerve is damaged, but not at the wrist. these distinctions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of nerve injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of recent changes in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of recent changes in his vision. He became aware of this while reading a book. He denies any ocular discomfort, redness, or vision loss. During the eye examination, you observe that his right eye is elevated and turned outward.

      What other symptom is commonly linked to the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Exophthalmos

      Correct Answer: Vertical diplopia

      Explanation:

      Fourth nerve palsy is characterized by vertical diplopia, which is often noticed when reading or going downstairs. The trochlear nerve lesion causes the affected eye to appear upward and rotate out when looking straight ahead. On the other hand, third nerve palsy causes ptosis, where the upper eyelid droops, and the affected eye is in a ‘down and out’ position. Exophthalmos, or bulging of the eye, is a symptom of Grave’s disease, a type of thyrotoxicosis. Other symptoms of Grave’s disease include ophthalmoplegia, thyroid acropachy, and pretibial myxoedema. Mydriasis, or pupil dilation, can be caused by third nerve palsy, drugs like cocaine, and a phaeochromocytoma.

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 87-year-old male with chronic untreated hypertension arrives at the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 87-year-old male with chronic untreated hypertension arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. Upon examination of his ECG, it is observed that there are tall QRS complexes throughout the entire ECG with elevated R-waves in the left-sided leads. What condition does this suggest?

      Your Answer: STEMI

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVF)

      Explanation:

      ST elevation is expected in the leads corresponding to the affected part of the heart in an STEMI, while ST depression, T wave inversion, or no change is expected in an NSTEMI or angina. Dilated cardiomyopathy does not have any classical ECG changes, and it is not commonly associated with hypertension as LVF. LVF, on the other hand, causes left ventricular hypertrophy due to prolonged hypertension, resulting in an increase in R-wave amplitude in leads 1, aVL, and V4-6, as well as an increase in S wave depth in leads III, aVR, and V1-3 on the right side.

      ECG Indicators of Atrial and Ventricular Hypertrophy

      Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicated on an ECG when the sum of the S wave in V1 and the R wave in V5 or V6 exceeds 40 mm. Meanwhile, right ventricular hypertrophy is characterized by a dominant R wave in V1 and a deep S wave in V6. In terms of atrial hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement is indicated by a bifid P wave in lead II with a duration of more than 120 ms, as well as a negative terminal portion in the P wave in V1. On the other hand, right atrial enlargement is characterized by tall P waves in both II and V1 that exceed 0.25 mV. These ECG indicators can help diagnose and monitor patients with atrial and ventricular hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are conducting a neurological assessment on a 65-year-old man who complains of...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a neurological assessment on a 65-year-old man who complains of a headache. During the examination, you observe that his left pupil is smaller than the right. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has a past medical history of open-angle glaucoma and had applied eye drops to his left eye earlier in the day, but he cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following eye drop formulations is most likely responsible for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Brimonidine

      Correct Answer: Pilocarpine

      Explanation:

      Pilocarpine is a medication that activates muscarinic receptors and is sometimes used to treat glaucoma. It is believed to lower intraocular pressure by widening the trabecular spaces and increasing the flow of aqueous humor. Pilocarpine also causes constriction of the pupil due to the presence of muscarinic receptors in the ciliary muscles and iris sphincter. The effect of miosis typically lasts for 4-8 hours after administration.

      Brimonidine is an agonist of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors that reduces the production of aqueous humor and increases its outflow.

      Dorzolamide is a medication that inhibits carbonic anhydrase and reduces the secretion of aqueous humor.

      Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue that enhances the outflow of aqueous humor.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is one of Schneider's primary symptoms of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of Schneider's primary symptoms of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Flight of ideas

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      First and Second-Rank Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental illness that is characterized by a range of symptoms. Kurt Schneider, a German psychiatrist, identified certain symptoms as strongly suggestive of schizophrenia and called them first-rank symptoms. These symptoms include delusions, auditory hallucinations, thought disorder, and passivity experiences. Delusions can be described as false beliefs that are not based on reality. Auditory hallucinations involve hearing voices that are not there, and thought disorder refers to a disruption in the normal thought process. Passivity experiences include feelings of being controlled by an external force.

      Schneider also identified second-rank symptoms, which are common in schizophrenia but can also occur in other mental illnesses. These symptoms include mood changes, emotional blunting, perplexity, and sudden delusional ideas. It is important to note that while these symptoms are suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not diagnostic.

      Other experiences that can occur in schizophrenia include reflex hallucinations, thought blocking, flight of ideas, and hypnopompic hallucinations. Reflex hallucinations occur when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Thought blocking is a sudden interruption of the train of thought, often experienced as a snapping off. Flight of ideas is a rapid stream of thought that may lack direction or purpose. Hypnopompic hallucinations occur as a person awakes and can continue once the individual’s eyes open from sleep.

      In summary, schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that can present with a range of symptoms. While certain symptoms are strongly suggestive of schizophrenia, a diagnosis should be made by a qualified mental health professional based on a comprehensive evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old child with Downs' syndrome is experiencing recurrent ear infections. Upon referral...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child with Downs' syndrome is experiencing recurrent ear infections. Upon referral to an ear and nose specialist, the parents are informed that the child's ear canal is narrowed, hindering proper drainage and increasing the likelihood of infections. Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the eustachian tube?

      Your Answer: Second pharyngeal pouch

      Correct Answer: First pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      The 1st pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the eustachian tube, while the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develops into the Palatine tonsils. The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the thymus and inferior parathyroid glands, while the 4th pharyngeal pouch forms the superior parathyroid glands. The 5th pharyngeal pouch eventually becomes part of the 4th pharyngeal pouch and develops into the thyroid C-cells.

      Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches

      During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.

      Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old male presents with increasing fatigue.

    Three months ago, he was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male presents with increasing fatigue.

      Three months ago, he was diagnosed with bronchial carcinoma and has undergone chemotherapy. Upon admission, his electrolyte levels were measured as follows:

      - Sodium: 118 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 65 µmol/L (60-110)

      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urine osmolality and sodium concentration

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia in Bronchial Carcinoma Patients

      Hyponatraemia is a common condition in patients with bronchial carcinoma. It is characterized by a marked decrease in sodium levels, which appears to be dilutional based on other test results that fall within the lower end of the normal range. The most likely cause of this condition is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH), which occurs when the tumour produces ADH in an ectopic manner. However, the diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, and other possibilities such as hypoadrenalism due to metastatic disease to the adrenals should also be considered.

      To determine the cause of hyponatraemia, initial tests such as urine sodium and osmolality are recommended. These tests can help rule out other possible causes and confirm the diagnosis of SIADH. Treatment for this condition typically involves fluid restriction. It is important to note that measuring ADH concentrations is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it is not widely available and does not provide any useful information.

      In summary, hyponatraemia is a common condition in bronchial carcinoma patients, and SIADH is the most likely cause. Initial tests such as urine sodium and osmolality can help confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves fluid restriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During a radical gastrectomy, the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right...

    Incorrect

    • During a radical gastrectomy, the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right gastro-epiploic artery. What vessel does it originate from?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery originates from the upper portion of the duodenum and travels downwards behind it until it reaches the lower border. At this point, it splits into two branches: the right gastro-epiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery. The right gastro-epiploic artery moves towards the left and passes through the layers of the greater omentum to connect with the left gastro-epiploic artery.

      The Gastroduodenal Artery: Supply and Path

      The gastroduodenal artery is responsible for supplying blood to the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head through the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries. It commonly arises from the common hepatic artery of the coeliac trunk and terminates by bifurcating into the right gastroepiploic artery and the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      To better understand the relationship of the gastroduodenal artery to the first part of the duodenum, the stomach is reflected superiorly in an image sourced from Wikipedia. This artery plays a crucial role in providing oxygenated blood to the digestive system, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 47-year-old woman is recuperating in the ICU after undergoing a Whipples surgery....

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman is recuperating in the ICU after undergoing a Whipples surgery. She has a central venous line inserted. What will cause the 'y' descent on the waveform trace?

      Your Answer: Emptying of the right atrium

      Explanation:

      The JVP waveform consists of 3 upward deflections and 2 downward deflections. The upward deflections include the a wave, which represents atrial contraction, the c wave, which represents ventricular contraction, and the v wave, which represents atrial venous filling. The downward deflections include the x wave, which occurs when the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves down, and the y wave, which represents ventricular filling. The y descent in the waveform indicates the emptying of the atrium and the filling of the right ventricle.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to a rheumatology clinic with complaints of pain...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to a rheumatology clinic with complaints of pain and stiffness in the small joints of her hands. After diagnosis, she is prescribed methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis. How does the addition of a folate supplement reduce the risk of which side effect?

      Your Answer: Myelosuppression

      Explanation:

      The risk of myelosuppression can be reduced by prescribing folate along with methotrexate, as folate supplements can counteract the inhibition of folate caused by methotrexate. This is important because methotrexate targets fast-dividing cells by preventing DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis, and the cells in the bone marrow are heavily reliant on folate due to their rapid division.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A young adult with a history of psychosis and mood disorder is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult with a history of psychosis and mood disorder is experiencing frequent urination and is ultimately diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. Which medication is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Lithium

      Lithium is a medication that is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. However, it can also cause a number of side effects. One of the most common side effects is gastrointestinal disturbance, which can include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Another common side effect is fine tremor, which can affect the hands and fingers. Weight gain and oedema (swelling) are also possible side effects of lithium.

      In addition, lithium can cause goitre, which is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. If taken in excess, it can also lead to blurred vision, ataxia (loss of coordination), drowsiness, and coarse tremor. One of the more unique side effects of lithium is that it causes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) resistance, which can lead to the production of large volumes of dilute urine. Overall, while lithium can be an effective treatment for bipolar disorder, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after being found unconscious by a friend. Shortly after arriving at the hospital, he becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and stops breathing. The medical team suspects shock and examines him. What could be a potential cause of obstructive shock resulting from interference in ventricular filling?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Shock can be caused by various factors, but only tension pneumothorax affects ventricular filling. Distributive shock, such as anaphylactic shock, hypovolaemic shock caused by chemical burns, and cardiogenic shock resulting from myocardial infarction are other examples. Obstructive shock caused by pulmonary embolism interferes with ventricular emptying, not filling.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting a new job. He has noticed that his peak flow measurements are significantly reduced while at work but improve on the weekends. What substance is commonly linked to this type of asthma?

      Your Answer: Organophosphates (insecticides)

      Correct Answer: Isocyanates

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old patient presents at the lung cancer clinic for their initial assessment....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents at the lung cancer clinic for their initial assessment. Their general practitioner referred them due to a persistent cough lasting 5 months and a weight loss of one stone in a month. The patient has quit smoking recently but used to smoke 20-30 cigarettes daily for 30 years. No asbestos exposure is reported.

      A circular lesion was detected in the right upper lobe during a recent chest x-ray. A subsequent computed tomography (CT) scan indicated that this lung lesion is indicative of a primary lesion.

      What is the most probable sub-type of lung cancer in this case?

      Your Answer: Small cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinoma has become the most prevalent form of lung cancer, as per the given scenario. This type of cancer accounts for approximately one-third of all cases and can occur in both smokers and non-smokers. Therefore, the most probable answer to the question is adenocarcinoma. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is a rare and incurable cancer that is almost exclusively linked to asbestos exposure and affects the pleura. It would not present as an upper lobe mass, but rather as a loss of lung volume or pleural opacity. Alveolar cell carcinoma, which is less common than adenocarcinoma, would likely cause significant sputum production.

      Lung cancer can be classified into two main types: small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). SCLC is less common, accounting for only 15% of cases, but has a worse prognosis. NSCLC, on the other hand, is more prevalent and can be further broken down into different subtypes. Adenocarcinoma is now the most common type of lung cancer, likely due to the increased use of low-tar cigarettes. It is often seen in non-smokers and accounts for 62% of cases in ‘never’ smokers. Squamous cell carcinoma is another subtype, and cavitating lesions are more common in this type of lung cancer. Large cell carcinoma, alveolar cell carcinoma, bronchial adenoma, and carcinoid are other subtypes of NSCLC. Differentiating between these subtypes is crucial as different drugs are available to treat each subtype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The progression of cancer involves genetic mutations in the cell cycle. Among the...

    Incorrect

    • The progression of cancer involves genetic mutations in the cell cycle. Among the different stages of the cell cycle, which one has the shortest duration?

      Your Answer: S phase

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Anaphase is the shortest phase within the cell cycle, despite being a sub-phase of mitosis which consists of multiple stages.

      The Cell Cycle and its Regulation

      The cell cycle is a process that regulates the growth and division of cells. It is controlled by proteins called cyclins, which in turn regulate cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) enzymes. The cycle is divided into four phases: G0, G1, S, G2, and M. During the G0 phase, cells are in a resting state, while in G1, cells increase in size and determine the length of the cell cycle. Cyclin D/CDK4, Cyclin D/CDK6, and Cyclin E/CDK2 regulate the transition from G1 to S phase. In the S phase, DNA, RNA, and histones are synthesized, and centrosome duplication occurs. Cyclin A/CDK2 is active during this phase. In G2, cells continue to increase in size, and Cyclin B/CDK1 regulates the transition from G2 to M phase. Finally, in the M phase, mitosis occurs, which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle. The cell cycle is regulated by various proteins, including p53, which plays a crucial role in the G1 phase. Understanding the regulation of the cell cycle is essential for the development of new treatments for diseases such as cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - John is a 35-year-old man who has presented to the GP after a...

    Correct

    • John is a 35-year-old man who has presented to the GP after a blood test due to persistent fatigue and frequent headaches. The results showed hypercalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He reported experiencing constipation and abdominal discomfort lately. There were no other abnormalities found during the systemic enquiry.

      What is the name of the cells that secrete a hormone that can restore the patient's electrolyte balance?

      Your Answer: Parafollicular cells

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is parafollicular cells, which release calcitonin. Susan’s symptoms suggest hypercalcaemia caused by hyperparathyroidism.

      C-cells, also known as parafollicular cells, are located in the thyroid near the follicles and are responsible for producing calcitonin. This hormone helps regulate calcium and phosphate levels by reducing them.

      Chief cells are found in the parathyroid glands and release parathyroid hormone, which increases blood calcium levels.

      Oxyphil cells are also found in the parathyroid gland, but their function is not fully understood.

      Follicular cells are thyroid cells that produce T3 and T4 hormones.

      Understanding Calcitonin and Its Role in Regulating Calcium Levels

      Calcitonin is a hormone that is produced by the parafollicular cells or C cells of the thyroid gland. It is released in response to high levels of calcium in the blood, which can occur due to various factors such as bone resorption, vitamin D toxicity, or certain cancers. The main function of calcitonin is to decrease the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream.

      Calcitonin works by binding to specific receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, which reduces their ability to resorb bone. This leads to a decrease in the release of calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream, which helps to restore normal levels of these minerals. In addition to its effects on bone metabolism, calcitonin also has other physiological functions such as regulating kidney function and modulating the immune system.

      Overall, calcitonin plays an important role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body and preventing the development of conditions such as hypercalcemia, which can have serious health consequences. By inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation, calcitonin helps to maintain the structural integrity of bones and prevent fractures. Understanding the mechanisms of calcitonin action can provide insights into the pathophysiology of bone diseases and inform the development of new treatments for these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old man experiences an urgent amputation due to severe sepsis and gangrene...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man experiences an urgent amputation due to severe sepsis and gangrene in his lower limbs. Following the surgery, he develops disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which clotting factor will be depleted the fastest during this process?

      Your Answer: Factor VI and VIII

      Correct Answer: Factor V and VIII

      Explanation:

      D-I-S-S-E-M-I-N-A-T-E-D

      R-Rewritten
      E-Explanations
      W-Widespread
      R-Reporting
      I-Information
      T-Transmission
      E-Exposure

      M-Multiple sources
      E-Extensive dissemination
      D-Distribution

      Rewriting and disseminating information can help to ensure that it is widely understood and accessible. This can be especially important in cases where there are multiple sources of information or when the information needs to be widely distributed. In some cases, such as with DIC, disseminating information can be critical for understanding and treating the condition.

      Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Condition of Simultaneous Coagulation and Haemorrhage

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a medical condition characterized by simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage. It is caused by the initial formation of thrombi that consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding. DIC can be caused by various factors such as infection, malignancy, trauma, liver disease, and obstetric complications.

      Clinically, bleeding is usually the dominant feature of DIC, accompanied by bruising, ischaemia, and organ failure. Blood tests can reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. The treatment of DIC involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supportive management.

      In summary, DIC is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and management, patients with DIC can recover and regain their health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - As a medical student on a gastrointestinal ward, you come across a patient...

    Correct

    • As a medical student on a gastrointestinal ward, you come across a patient suffering from long-standing reflux. During the ward round, you notice that the patient, who is in his late 40s, is being treated with metoclopramide, a pro-kinetic drug that blocks the action of dopamine and speeds up gastrointestinal motility. However, the patient is now experiencing gynaecomastia and erectile dysfunction. Which hormone is most likely being overproduced in this patient, leading to his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      11.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
General Principles (2/9) 22%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/3) 33%
Neurological System (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular System (1/3) 33%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Endocrine System (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory System (0/2) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
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