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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe right lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe right lower quadrant pain and 7 episodes of diarrhoea in the last 24 hours. His observations are blood pressure 100/75 mmHg, heart rate 85 bpm, respiratory rate 15 breaths per minute, temperature 38.0ºC. He has a past medical history of Crohn’s disease and is allergic to aspirin. Which medication should be avoided in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine should not be administered to patients with an aspirin allergy, as they may also experience a reaction.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old diabetic female comes in with cellulitis of the left foot, spreading...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old diabetic female comes in with cellulitis of the left foot, spreading from an ulcer on the plantar surface of the head of the left third metatarsal that had been present for 3 weeks before the onset of cellulitis. She was given oral flucloxacillin and the cellulitis improved, but after a week of treatment, the ulcer was still discharging and there was a tender area of swelling over the ulcer on examination. What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: The pathology present is not infective in nature

      Correct Answer: The patient has a collection of pus which requires surgical drainage

      Explanation:

      Surgical drainage is necessary for the patient’s pus collection, indicating possible osteomyelitis of the metatarsal. The patient’s diabetes history and chronic ulcer elevate the risk.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.

      In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain that worsens with walking. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain that worsens with walking. Upon obtaining a thorough medical history and conducting a neurological and vascular assessment, the possibility of spinal stenosis is considered. Following the prescription of pain relief medication, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Lumbar spine x-ray

      Correct Answer: Refer for MRI

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis of spinal stenosis and rule out other potential causes like metastatic disease, an MRI is necessary for this presentation. The lower back pain that worsens with walking is a typical symptom of spinal stenosis.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of discomfort and pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of discomfort and pain in her shoulder. The doctor conducted a thorough examination of her shoulder and observed that she was unable to abduct her shoulder while standing with her arm flat against her body. However, the doctor was able to passively abduct her shoulder during the first 20 degrees, and she was able to fully abduct it. Which muscle is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The shoulder joint is stabilized by a group of muscles known as the rotator cuffs. To remember them, you can use the following order: Subscapularis, which is located on the front of your chest and assists with internal rotation of the shoulder; Supraspinatus, which runs parallel to your deltoid on top of your shoulder and is necessary for the first 20° of shoulder abduction before the deltoid takes over; and Infraspinatus, which is located on the upper back and helps with external rotation of the shoulder.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. Each muscle has a specific function that contributes to the overall movement of the shoulder.

      The supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is also the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each rotator cuff muscle is important in preventing injuries and maintaining shoulder health. By strengthening these muscles through targeted exercises, individuals can improve their shoulder stability and reduce the risk of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - An 85-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in the left hemithorax after a fall at home. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and osteoarthritis. Upon examination, there is visible bruising and tenderness upon palpation over the left hemithorax. A chest x-ray confirms a complete disruption of the bony contour of the left 6th rib, without disruption of the pleura or lung parenchyma. What is the most appropriate management for this injury?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with rib belt

      Correct Answer: Conservative management with adequate analgesia

      Explanation:

      Simple rib fractures are typically treated conservatively, with appropriate pain relief measures such as NSAIDs, opioids, and intercostal nerve blocks. It is crucial to manage pain effectively to prevent breathing difficulties and complications like atelectasis and pneumonia. Rib belts should not be used as they can hinder respiratory function. Chest x-rays do not reveal any intrathoracic complications like haemothorax or pneumothorax, so chest drains are unnecessary. IV bisphosphonates are not useful in treating traumatic rib fractures, but oral bisphosphonates may be considered later on to address any loss of bone mineral density in the patient.

      A rib fracture is a break in any of the bony segments of a rib. It is commonly caused by blunt trauma to the chest wall, but can also be due to underlying diseases that weaken the bone structure of the ribs. Rib fractures can occur singly or in multiple places along the length of a rib and may be associated with soft tissue injuries to the surrounding muscles or the underlying lung. Risk factors include chest injuries in major trauma, osteoporosis, steroid use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and cancer metastases.

      The most common symptom of a rib fracture is severe, sharp chest wall pain, which is often more severe with deep breaths or coughing. Chest wall tenderness over the site of the fractures and visible bruising of the skin may also be present. Auscultation of the chest may reveal crackles or reduced breath sounds if there is an underlying lung injury. In some cases, pain and underlying lung injury can result in a reduction in ventilation, causing a drop in oxygen saturation. Pneumothorax, a serious complication of a rib fracture, can present with reduced chest expansion, reduced breath sounds, and hyper-resonant percussion on the affected side. Flail chest, a consequence of multiple rib fractures, can impair ventilation of the lung on the side of injury and may require treatment with invasive ventilation and surgical fixation to prevent complications.

      Diagnostic tests for rib fractures include a CT scan of the chest, which shows the fractures in 3D as well as the associated soft tissue injuries. Chest x-rays may provide suboptimal views and do not provide any information about the surrounding soft tissue injury. In cases of pathological fractures secondary to tumour metastases, a CT scan to look for a primary (if not already identified) is also required. Management of rib fractures involves conservative treatment with good analgesia to ensure breathing is not affected by pain. Inadequate ventilation may predispose to chest infections. Nerve blocks can be considered if the pain is not controlled by normal analgesia. Surgical fixation can be considered to manage pain if this is still an issue and the fractures have failed to heal following 12 weeks of conservative management. Flail chest segments are the only form of rib fractures that should be urgently discussed with cardiothoracic surgery as they can impair ventilation and result in significant lung trauma. Lung complications such as pneumothorax or haemothorax should be managed as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman is currently admitted to orthopaedics after breaking her femur in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is currently admitted to orthopaedics after breaking her femur in a road traffic accident. Two days later, she develops a fever of 38.3ºC and becomes breathless. She is also confused and has retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. After conducting an A-E assessment and ruling out any rashes, a chest X-ray is performed and comes back normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left-sided headaches that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left-sided headaches that have been occurring intermittently for the past two weeks. She reports that her vision in the left eye has worsened over the last two days and appears blurrier than usual. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, which is well-managed with ramipril. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness in the left temporal region with reproducible pain when the patient chews. There are no abnormalities found during external eye examination. What is the underlying pathology responsible for this patient's visual disturbance?

      Your Answer: Retinal artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The main ocular complication in temporal arthritis is anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, which is likely the cause of the patient’s vision loss given their symptoms of headache, temporal tenderness, and jaw claudication. Retinal artery occlusion, retinal detachment, and retinal vein occlusion are not the primary causes of visual impairment in temporal arthritis and are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent flu-like symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent flu-like symptoms. Upon further inquiry, he reports experiencing fever, nausea, vomiting, muscle aches, weakness, and an itchy sensation for the past two weeks. He also mentions having red urine on a few occasions. The patient denies having any respiratory symptoms such as cough or haemoptysis. During the examination, the GP observes slight scleral icterus and small palpable purpura on the patient's lower legs and arms. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Microscopic polyangiitis

      Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Explanation:

      The presence of systemic vasculitic symptoms, along with signs of hepatitis B and the absence of pulmonary symptoms, indicates that the patient may have polyarteritis nodosa. The patient’s symptoms appear to be viral, except for the presence of itchiness, scleral jaundice, haematuria, and purpura, which suggest vasculitis. The absence of respiratory symptoms helps to eliminate other possible diagnoses, such as polymyalgia rheumatica. The patient’s scleral jaundice and itchiness may indicate obstructive hepatic impairment. Polyarteritis nodosa is strongly associated with hepatitis B infection and does not typically present with respiratory symptoms, unlike other types of vasculitis.

      Polyarteritis Nodosa: Symptoms, Features, and Diagnosis

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects medium-sized arteries, causing inflammation and aneurysm formation. It is more common in middle-aged men and is often associated with hepatitis B infection. Symptoms of PAN include fever, malaise, weight loss, hypertension, and joint pain. It can also cause nerve damage, testicular pain, and a skin condition called livedo reticularis. In some cases, patients may experience kidney damage and renal failure. Diagnosis of PAN may involve testing for perinuclear-antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) and hepatitis B serology. Angiograms may also be used to detect changes in the affected arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a history of her...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a history of her fingers turning white, blue, and red intermittently for the past four months. She also reports tightness of the skin on her fingers, hands, and face, without involvement of the skin on her upper arm or chest. Additionally, she experiences troubling reflux symptoms. On examination, there is fibrotic skin overlying the hands and face with telangiectasia. Which autoantibody is most likely to be positive in this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of skin tightening, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and telangiectasia in this patient suggests a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis. The limited subtype is most likely as there is no involvement of the upper arm and chest. Anti-centromere antibodies are commonly associated with this subtype. Anti-RNA polymerase III and anti-Scl-70 antibodies are more commonly associated with diffuse systemic sclerosis, which involves the chest and upper arms and more severe internal organ involvement. Anti-Ro antibodies are typically associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is unlikely in this patient. Anti-dsDNA antibodies are commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but systemic sclerosis is more likely given the absence of a butterfly rash and the presence of oesophageal dysmotility.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of muscle weakness and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of muscle weakness and a rash that has been developing over the past month. Upon examination, the doctor notes symmetrical weakness in the shoulders and hips, as well as red papules on the proximal interphalangeal joints. What skin manifestation is likely being described in this case?

      Your Answer: Gottron's sign

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules mainly seen over the knuckles in patients with dermatomyositis. In this case, the patient’s symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and skin involvement indicate dermatomyositis. Gottron’s papules are small violaceous papules that can also be seen on the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. While Gottron’s sign is also associated with dermatomyositis, it refers to violaceous macules over the knees and elbows and is not being described in this case. The heliotrope rash, a violaceous or dusky red rash surrounding the eye, is another highly characteristic sign of dermatomyositis, but it is not present in this case. Similarly, a malar rash, which is a butterfly-shaped rash over the cheeks and nose commonly seen in patients with SLE, is not relevant to this case.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling...

    Incorrect

    • A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling on her outstretched left hand during recess. She is experiencing pain and swelling around her left elbow and forearm.
      Upon examination:
      Heart rate: 92/minute. Respiratory rate: 20/minute. Blood pressure: 102/70 mmHg. Oxygen saturations: 99%. Temperature: 37.5 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.
      Left arm: the elbow is swollen and red. The skin is intact. The joint is tender to the touch and has limited range of motion. Sensation is normal. Pulses are present.
      Right arm: normal.
      X-rays of the patient’s left elbow and forearm reveal a proximal fracture of the ulna with a dislocation of the proximal radial head.
      What is the term used to describe this injury pattern?

      Your Answer: Colles’ fracture

      Correct Answer: Monteggia fracture

      Explanation:

      A Monteggia fracture is characterized by a dislocated proximal radioulnar joint and a fractured ulna. This type of fracture is most commonly observed in children aged 4 to 10 years old. To differentiate it from a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture and a dislocated distal radioulnar joint, one can associate the name of the fracture with the affected bone: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Bennett’s fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the first metacarpal that extends into the carpometacarpal joint.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old man came to see a rheumatologist due to worsening joint pain,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man came to see a rheumatologist due to worsening joint pain, particularly in his hands and feet. The rheumatologist requested an x-ray of his hands and feet, which revealed abnormalities including a 'plantar spur' and 'pencil and cup' deformity. What do these x-ray findings suggest?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is characterized by specific x-ray features known as ‘plantar spur’ and ‘pencil and cup’ deformity. In contrast, osteoarthritis displays ‘LOSS’ changes, including loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. Rheumatoid arthritis presents with ‘LESS’ changes, such as loss of joint space, erosions, soft bones, and soft tissue swelling. Ankylosing spondylitis is identified by sacroiliitis on x-ray.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old patient visits her GP complaining of back pain that is relieved...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient visits her GP complaining of back pain that is relieved by lying down. She has no history of trauma but had a hysterectomy at the age of 38 due to obstetric complications. Additionally, she has a history of poorly controlled asthma. Her FRAX® score indicates a 10-year fracture risk of 16%, prompting her GP to arrange a DEXA scan and relevant blood tests. The results show a calcium level of 1.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), vitamin D level of 17.2 ng/ml (≥20.0), phosphate level of 1.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), and a T-score of -3.2. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D and calcium supplements

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing bisphosphonates for a patient with osteoporosis, it is important to correct any deficiencies in calcium and vitamin D. This is especially crucial for patients with hypocalcemia or vitamin D deficiency, as bisphosphonates can worsen these conditions by reducing calcium efflux from bones. In this case, the patient should receive calcium and vitamin D supplements before starting on alendronic acid. Hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for osteoporosis prevention, and vitamin D and alendronic acid should not be prescribed without also addressing calcium deficiencies.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 14 - A 85-year-old woman with a history of dementia is discovered on the floor...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old woman with a history of dementia is discovered on the floor of her nursing home. She is taken to the Emergency Department and reports experiencing pain in her left hip and is unable to put weight on it. X-rays of the hip and pelvis show no abnormalities. Despite receiving sufficient pain relief, she continues to complain of severe hip pain and remains unable to bear weight. What is the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: MRI Hip

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with clinical symptoms of a hip fracture, it is necessary to conduct further imaging. Repeating plain films is unlikely to yield any new information. While radioisotope bone scans can detect areas of high bone turnover and osteoblastic activity, they are not very sensitive. Although CT scans are widely available, the recommended first line investigation for occult hip fractures is an MRI, as per NICE guidelines.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 6-week history of bilateral muscle weakness in...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 6-week history of bilateral muscle weakness in her shoulders and hips. She reports difficulty getting out of chairs without assistance and experiences breathlessness and fatigue. Her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 130/75 mmHg. Proximal muscle strength is symmetrically 4/5, while distal strength is normal. No skin rashes or arthralgia are present. Laboratory results show Hb 116 g/L (115 - 160), WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Creatine kinase 1250 U/L (35 - 250), Urea 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 115 µmol/L (55 - 120), and ESR 60 mm/hr (<40). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these features?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is polymyositis, as she presents with true bilateral proximal muscle weakness, shortness of breath, and fatigue, along with elevated ESR and CK levels indicating muscle inflammation and injury. Dermatomyositis is less likely as no skin changes are mentioned. Motor neurone disease is also unlikely as it does not cause muscle tissue inflammation or elevated CK levels. Polymyalgia rheumatica is also unlikely as it does not present with true muscle weakness and is not associated with elevated CK levels.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of back pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of back pain. He describes experiencing poorly localised lower back pain for the past 2 weeks, which began after doing some yard work. The patient works as a carpenter and reports that the pain has not improved with the use of a heating pad or over-the-counter pain medication. He denies any fever or neurological symptoms. During the examination, paraspinal tenderness is noted, and the straight-leg test is negative. The patient reports intentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 3 months, and his body mass index is 30 kg/m².

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Add a NSAID

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing musculoskeletal lower back pain, which may have been worsened by physical labor. There is no indication of infection or cancer, and an MRI is not necessary at this point as it would not alter the treatment plan. It is recommended that patients with back pain remain physically active instead of being on strict bed rest. NSAIDs are the preferred initial treatment for back pain and are more effective than using only paracetamol. Opioids should not be the first choice for treatment.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain and a high fever. The pain began in his lower back three days ago and has progressively worsened, now extending to his left thigh and groin. He finds relief by lying on his back and keeping his left knee slightly bent and hip externally rotated. Hip extension is particularly painful.

      The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. On examination, he has a fever of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 132 beats per minute. A mild systolic murmur is present, and tenderness is noted over L1 to L3.

      His urine dip reveals protein 1+ and blood 1+, but is negative for nitrites and leukocytes. What is the most likely cause of his back pain?

      Your Answer: Psoas abscess

      Explanation:

      When considering the potential causes of back pain in an intravenous drug user, it is important to keep psoas abscess in mind as a possible differential diagnosis. In this particular case, the patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of infective endocarditis, as indicated by the presence of blood and protein in the urine and a systolic murmur during auscultation. However, it is unlikely that this condition is responsible for the patient’s back pain.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

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  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure visits his GP to discuss the results of recent tests. He follows a vegetarian diet and enjoys gardening. During the examination, the doctor notes deformities in the man's fingers but otherwise finds nothing unusual. The man's DEXA scan T-score was -2.5. The table below shows his blood test results.
      Calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 14 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 250 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.22 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 150 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the first course of treatment that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Recheck T-score in one year

      Correct Answer: Calcium replacement

      Explanation:

      Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency.

      The correct course of action is to provide calcium replacement. It is crucial to address any hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency before starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. If the patient’s dietary intake is inadequate, calcium should be prescribed. In this case, the patient is vegan and hypocalcemic, indicating a need for calcium replacement.

      While alendronate is a suitable first-line bisphosphonate, it cannot be initiated until the patient’s hypocalcemia is corrected.

      Dietary and lifestyle advice alone is not appropriate for this patient. While it may be helpful in conjunction with pharmacological measures, it is not the first step in managing hypocalcemia and osteopenia.

      Pamidronate is not the correct choice for this patient. It is an intravenous bisphosphonate that is typically reserved for cases where first-line bisphosphonates are contraindicated or not tolerated, and should only be initiated by a specialist.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with a 3 week history of joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with a 3 week history of joint pain, a pink, bumpy rash on her arms, legs, and trunk, and fevers that spike in the evenings. She has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and a palpable spleen on examination. Blood tests reveal a significant leucocytosis (≥ 10,000/µL) and elevated serum ferritin (350 ng/mL) levels, but negative antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor tests. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      To diagnose adult-onset Still’s disease, it is necessary to exclude other conditions by ensuring that rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests are negative. The presence of joint pain, spiking fevers, and a pink bumpy rash is a characteristic triad of symptoms associated with this disease. High serum ferritin and leucocytosis are also commonly observed. Negative results for rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests help to rule out rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus. Spiking fevers are not typically associated with Wilson’s disease or haemochromatosis. This information is based on the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialties (10th Edition), page 654.

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

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  • Question 20 - What is the deficiency associated with Marfan's syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the deficiency associated with Marfan's syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that affects multiple systems including musculoskeletal, visual, and cardiovascular, in individuals of all ages?

      Your Answer: Elastin

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin

      Explanation:

      A mutation in the fibrillin-1 protein is responsible for causing Marfan’s syndrome. This protein is coded by the Marfan syndrome gene (MSF1) located on chromosome 15. Connective tissue contains fibrillin, which is a glycoprotein. Synovial fluid contains hyaluronic acid, while elastin is an extracellular matrix protein found in connective tissue. Laminin is another extracellular matrix protein that forms part of the basement membrane.

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  • Question 21 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning pain on the outer part of her left knee. The pain is felt during movement and she has not observed any swelling of the knee. There is no history of injury and no locking of the knee joint. Samantha is a long-distance runner and is preparing for a marathon. During examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. She has a good range of motion of her knee joint. However, a snapping sensation is noticed on the lateral aspect of the knee when her joint is repeatedly flexed and extended. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lateral knee pain in runners is often caused by iliotibial band syndrome. This condition can result in a sharp or burning sensation around the knee joint line. Meniscal tears, on the other hand, can cause joint locking, pain, and swelling. Patellofemoral syndrome may lead to knee cap pain that worsens with stair climbing and prolonged use. Meanwhile, rheumatoid arthritis usually affects the small joints in the hands and feet initially, causing stiffness, pain, and swelling in other joints as well.

      Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.

      To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.

      In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.

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  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic after tripping while walking his dog....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic after tripping while walking his dog. He stumbled forward but managed to catch himself with his hands. He did not experience any head trauma or loss of consciousness.
      Upon examination, he reports persistent discomfort in his left hand, and the pain intensifies when pressure is applied through the metacarpal of his thumb.
      An X-ray shows an unsteady fracture in the proximal pole of a carpal bone.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Place in a long-arm thumb spica cast for 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer to orthopaedic surgery

      Explanation:

      Surgical fixation is necessary for all proximal scaphoid pole fractures, including this patient’s unstable fracture. The positive scaphoid compression test indicates instability, and the retrograde blood supply increases the risk of avascular necrosis. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation are not sufficient treatments in this case. While a long-arm thumb spica cast may be helpful for waist scaphoid fractures, it is less effective for unstable scaphoid pole fractures. Repeating a wrist x-ray after 10 days is appropriate when radiological signs are absent but clinical suspicion remains high. Attempting manual reduction is not recommended for scaphoid fractures, which require surgical fixation for optimal healing.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right knee. He has never experienced this before. Upon examination, the joint fluid is extracted and sent to the lab for analysis. The rheumatology team suspects pseudogout. What characteristics can help differentiate this condition from gout?

      Your Answer: Chondrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Chondrocalcinosis is a useful factor in distinguishing between pseudogout and gout. Linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage seen on a knee x-ray are indicative of pseudogout, but not particularly associated with gout. Therefore, the presence of chondrocalcinosis can be used to differentiate between the two conditions.

      Age is not a determining factor in the diagnosis of gout or pseudogout. In this case, the patient’s age of 64 years does not provide any significant information to sway the diagnosis in either direction.

      The presence of crystals is not a distinguishing factor between gout and pseudogout, as both conditions involve crystals. However, the type of crystals differs between the two. Pseudogout crystals are weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped, while gout crystals are negatively birefringent.

      Both gout and pseudogout typically respond well to colchicine for acute pain management, so this is not a useful factor in distinguishing between the two conditions.

      Increased warmth of the affected joint is not a reliable factor in distinguishing between gout and pseudogout, as it may be present in both conditions.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old male patient visits the rheumatology clinic with complaints of a dull...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits the rheumatology clinic with complaints of a dull ache in his lower back that typically starts in the morning and improves throughout the day. He also reports limited movement of his entire spine, particularly in the lumbar region. Additionally, he has been diagnosed with anterior uveitis. What test would be the most suitable to confirm the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum HLA-B27 levels

      Correct Answer: Pelvic x-ray to identify sacroiliitis

      Explanation:

      The finding is not specific or sensitive as it pertains to the general population.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever, and sharp pain on the right side of her chest that worsens during inspiration. She also reports experiencing occasional joint pain in her hands for the past four months. During the physical examination, mild erythema is observed over her cheeks. What is the most sensitive investigation for this condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Correct Answer: ANA

      Explanation:

      Raised titre levels of Antistreptolysin O may indicate recent streptococcal infection or rheumatic fever.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old man of Brazilian descent is referred for an outpatient DEXA scan...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man of Brazilian descent is referred for an outpatient DEXA scan by his general practitioner. He has obesity and chronic kidney disease (for which he takes ramipril). He has never smoked and rarely drinks alcohol. What risk factor predisposes him to this condition? His DEXA scan now shows a T-score of -3 and he is started on alendronic acid.

      Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) increases the risk of developing osteoporosis, a condition characterized by a T score < -2.5 on DEXA scan. CKD affects the metabolic pathways involved in vitamin D synthesis and serum phosphate levels, leading to increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion and osteoclast activation, which contribute to the development of osteoporosis. Ethnicity, including being Brazilian, does not affect the risk of developing osteoporosis. However, being Asian or Caucasian is associated with a higher risk, although the reasons for this are not fully understood. Smoking is a significant risk factor for osteoporosis, and non-smokers are relatively protected against it. Smoking affects bone metabolism by limiting oxygen supply to the bones, slowing down osteoblast production, and reducing calcium absorption. Contrary to popular belief, obesity is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. In fact, a low body mass index is associated with a higher risk. This is because extra weight stresses the bone, which stimulates the formation of new bone tissue. Additionally, adipose tissue is a source of estrogen synthesis, which helps prevent bone density loss. Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus. There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.

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  • Question 27 - As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you...

    Correct

    • As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you to prescribe a medication to a 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. Upon reviewing her recent notes, you discover that she had been sent to the emergency department for suspected cardiac chest pain, which was later ruled out, and a musculoskeletal cause was diagnosed. During her hospitalization, she was given 300mg of aspirin, which caused a widespread flushing and a maculopapular rash, and aspirin was recorded as a drug adverse reaction on her medical records. Which of the following DMARDs should be prescribed with caution?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

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  • Question 28 - What type of hypersensitivity is defined in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), a condition...

    Incorrect

    • What type of hypersensitivity is defined in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), a condition marked by autoimmune platelet destruction?

      Your Answer: Type 3

      Correct Answer: Type 2

      Explanation:

      ITP is a Type II hypersensitivity reaction where the body’s defective B cells produce IgM or IgG antibodies that attack platelets, causing thrombocytopenia. This is an antibody-mediated reaction where the antibodies directly attack host antigens.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of pain and swelling in her hand joints...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of pain and swelling in her hand joints that have persisted for the past four months. She reports experiencing stiffness in her joints in the morning, which lasts for about an hour. The patient denies any pain or swelling in her elbows, ankles, or knees.

      During the physical examination, the doctor observes swelling and tenderness in the second and third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints of both hands. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels.

      Which investigation has NICE recommended to be performed on all patients with similar symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)

      Correct Answer: X-ray of hands and feet

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest rheumatoid arthritis, and according to NICE guidelines, x-rays of the hands and feet should be performed for all suspected cases. Additionally, tests for rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody (anti-CCP) should be conducted. The presence of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) is more indicative of vasculitic syndromes, which this patient does not exhibit. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) testing is typically reserved for suspected cases of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and should not be routinely performed for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum uric acid monitoring is more relevant for gout diagnosis.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that can be diagnosed through initial investigations, including antibody tests and x-rays. One of the first tests recommended is the rheumatoid factor (RF) test, which detects a circulating antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. This test can be done through the Rose-Waaler test or the latex agglutination test, with the former being more specific. A positive RF result is found in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF result include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population.

      Another antibody test that can aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody test. This test can detect the antibody up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis and has a sensitivity similar to RF (around 70%) but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends that patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative should be tested for anti-CCP antibodies.

      In addition to antibody tests, x-rays of the hands and feet are also recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis. These x-rays can help detect joint damage and deformities, which are common in rheumatoid arthritis. Early detection and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can help prevent further joint damage and improve overall quality of life for patients.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old amateur football player arrives at the emergency department complaining of knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old amateur football player arrives at the emergency department complaining of knee pain. During the game, she experienced a popping sensation in her left knee. Upon examination, her knee is swollen, and she cannot fully extend it. Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Plain film radiograph (X-ray)

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to detecting lateral and medial meniscal tears, an MRI is the most sensitive option available. It surpasses the other choices in terms of sensitivity and should be requested for all patients who are suspected of having a meniscal injury. Ultrasound may be challenging to perform due to the patient’s probable swelling and pain. An X-ray may be necessary for patients with arthritis or a history of repeated meniscal tears.

      Understanding Meniscal Tear and its Symptoms

      Meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. Its symptoms include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases where the tear is displaced. To diagnose a meniscal tear, doctors may perform Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by the doctor. If the patient experiences pain on twisting the knee, the test is considered positive.

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  • Question 31 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Patellar subluxation

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

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  • Question 32 - A 55-year-old man presents with significant pain in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with significant pain in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint that started quickly overnight. He has tried taking paracetamol but this failed to reduce the pain sufficiently. On closer inspection, there appears to be much effusion around the joint, which is also tender to palpation. The patient is at the end of his third month of being treated for tuberculosis.

      The patient’s pulse is 89 bpm, respiratory rate is 14/min, temperature is 37.1oC, and blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg. A joint aspirate sample is taken.

      What is the likely result of inspecting the joint aspirate?

      Your Answer: Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals on microscopy

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that joint aspiration in gout will reveal needle-shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals when viewed under polarised light. This patient is experiencing an acute gout flare, which is more likely to occur due to their age and use of anti-tuberculosis medications. Pyrazinamide and ethambutol, two of the medications they are taking, can increase uric acid levels and further increase the risk of a gout flare. The other answer options are incorrect as they describe different crystal shapes or conditions that are less likely based on the patient’s clinical history.

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.

      To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.

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  • Question 33 - Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?

      Your Answer: Low-grade fever

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

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  • Question 34 - You see a 60-year-old man who fractured his left ankle 6 weeks ago...

    Correct

    • You see a 60-year-old man who fractured his left ankle 6 weeks ago when he slipped on a wet floor. The orthopaedic team recommended a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan and the results have just been received by you.

      His T score is -2.5 and his Z score is -1.8. You inform the patient that his Z score is adjusted for age, gender, and ethnicity, and it indicates a lower bone density than expected for someone of his age and demographic.

      Your Answer: Age, gender and ethnic factors

      Explanation:

      DEXA scans are utilized to measure bone mineral density in individuals who are at risk of osteoporosis or have experienced fragility fractures. To assess the risk of osteoporosis, online tools such as FRAX or QFracture can be used. The DEXA scan results comprise a T score and a Z score. The T score compares your bone density to that of a healthy 30-year-old, while the Z score compares your bone density to someone of your age and body size. The Z score is adjusted for age, gender, and ethnic factors.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.

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  • Question 35 - A 79-year-old woman is admitted to hospital after a fall from standing. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman is admitted to hospital after a fall from standing. She is experiencing intense pain in her left hip and cannot bear weight. An initial X-ray reveals a neck of femur fracture, and she undergoes hemiarthroplasty. As she begins to weight bear and recover, her consultant advises that her fracture is likely due to osteoporosis and that she would benefit from long-term treatment. What is the most suitable ongoing management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: DEXA scan with bisphosphonates if indicated

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy immediately

      Explanation:

      A DEXA scan is not necessary to diagnose osteoporosis in women over 75 years who have experienced a fragility fracture. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately commence bisphosphonate therapy. In this case, the patient can be started on treatment without the need for a DEXA scan, as her consultant believes she would benefit from it.

      The options of a DEXA scan with bisphosphonates if indicated, FRAX score with bisphosphonates if indicated, and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are all incorrect. While a DEXA scan and FRAX score can be useful in determining fracture risk and guiding management in certain cases, they are not necessary in this patient group. HRT is also not indicated for older postmenopausal women.

      The NICE guidelines for managing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women include offering vitamin D and calcium supplementation, with alendronate being the first-line treatment. If a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, risedronate or etidronate may be given as second-line drugs, with strontium ranelate or raloxifene as options if those cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, with alendronate and risedronate being superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures. Other treatments include selective estrogen receptor modulators, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and hormone replacement therapy. Hip protectors and falls risk assessment may also be considered in management.

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  • Question 36 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a headache that...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a headache that has persisted for the past week. She reports feeling pain on her left temple, which intensifies when she touches her head or brushes her hair, and discomfort in her jaw when eating. She is anxious because she recently had a brief episode of vision loss, which she describes as a dark curtain descending. What is the probable observation on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer: Cherry red spot on the macula

      Correct Answer: Swollen pale disc with blurred margins

      Explanation:

      The correct fundoscopy finding for anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION) is a swollen pale disc with blurred margins. This occurs due to a loss of blood supply to the optic nerve, which is commonly caused by temporal arthritis. It is important to recognize this finding as urgent IV steroids are required to prevent permanent visual loss. A cherry red spot on the macula is not associated with temporal arthritis, as it is a sign of central retinal artery occlusion. Macula edema and cupping of the optic disc are also not typically associated with temporal arthritis.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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  • Question 37 - A 33-year-old female who cannot tolerate methotrexate is initiated on azathioprine for her...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female who cannot tolerate methotrexate is initiated on azathioprine for her rheumatoid arthritis. During routine blood monitoring, the following results are obtained:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 7.9 g/dl
      - Platelets (Plt): 97 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 2.7 * 109/l

      What are the factors that can increase the risk of azathioprine toxicity in this patient?

      Your Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to check for the presence of thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency, which occurs in approximately 1 in 200 individuals. This deficiency increases the risk of developing pancytopenia related to azathioprine.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

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  • Question 38 - A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has been experiencing difficulty getting up from chairs, lifting objects, and climbing stairs for the past 2 months. However, she has no issues with other movements like knitting or writing. Upon examination, she has bilateral hip and shoulder weakness. Blood tests reveal the following results: calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5), free thyroxine (T4) 12.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18), creatine kinase (CK) 1752 U/L (35 - 250), and ESR 62 mm/hr (< 40). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a crush injury to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a crush injury to his forearm. Upon examination, the arm is found to be tender, swollen, and red. The patient reports significant pain in the affected area. Clinical evidence suggests an ulnar fracture, and the patient is unable to move their fingers and complains of numbness. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Fasciotomy

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences a crush injury, swelling in their limb, and an inability to move their digits, it is important to consider the possibility of compartment syndrome. This condition may necessitate a fasciotomy.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

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  • Question 40 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue, joint pains, and stiffness in her hands and feet, which are worse in the morning. She also has a new rash on both cheeks. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities in her respiratory, cardiovascular, or gastrointestinal systems. There is no joint swelling, but there is mild tenderness in the metacarpo-phalangeal joints of both hands and metatarso-phalangeal joints of both feet. She has a mildly erythematosus papular rash on both cheeks. You suspect systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and order a set of blood tests to help exclude this condition. Which blood test would be most helpful in ruling out SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 41 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that has been bothering him for 6 weeks. The pain is exacerbated by sitting. During the examination, the GP observes weakness in left hip abduction and left foot drop. However, power in the right limb is normal, and lower limb reflexes are normal in both legs. The GP suspects a prolapsed disc. Which nerve root is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: L4

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 42 - A 43-year-old woman is undergoing investigation for symmetrical polyarthritis that is widespread. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is undergoing investigation for symmetrical polyarthritis that is widespread. She reports experiencing a blue tinge in her fingers during cold weather. During examination, a prominent rash is observed over her nose and cheeks, but not in her nasolabial folds. Her blood tests show positive results for anti-dsDNA. She is advised to take a drug that is described as a 'disease-modifying' drug. What kind of regular monitoring will she need while undergoing treatment?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests

      Correct Answer: Visual acuity testing

      Explanation:

      This woman has classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), including a malar rash, polyarthritis, and Raynaud’s syndrome. A positive blood test for anti-dsDNA confirms the diagnosis. The main treatment for SLE is hydroxychloroquine, along with NSAIDs and steroids. However, there is a significant risk of severe and permanent retinopathy associated with hydroxychloroquine use. Therefore, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends monitoring for retinopathy at baseline and every 6-12 months while on treatment. Visual acuity testing is a reasonable way to monitor for this. Routine monitoring of calcium levels, hearing, liver function, and neurological deficits of the limbs is not necessary as there is no evidence of hydroxychloroquine affecting these areas.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

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  • Question 43 - A 63-year-old woman presents to her GP with a headache that started a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to her GP with a headache that started a week ago and is different from her usual headaches. She also reports experiencing jaw pain while eating, which has been ongoing for the past week. The GP suspects giant cell arthritis and initiates high-dose prednisolone treatment while referring her to ambulatory emergency care for specialist evaluation. The patient expresses concern about the potential impact of high-dose steroids on her bone health.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Start vitamin D and calcium supplements

      Correct Answer: Start alendronic acid, vitamin D and calcium supplements

      Explanation:

      Immediate bone protection should be provided to patients who are going to undergo long-term steroid treatment, especially if they are over 65 years old. In the case of this patient with giant cell arthritis, high dose prednisolone is required and therefore, immediate bone protection with alendronic acid is necessary. However, if the patient was under 65 years old, a bone density scan would be required to determine the need for bone protection medication. Merely reassuring the patient would not suffice as long-term steroid use can lead to osteoporosis, which is a significant concern for patients over 65 years old. Additionally, vitamin D and calcium supplements should be started along with bone protection medication. It is important to note that NSAIDs are not a suitable alternative to steroids for treating giant cell arthritis.

      Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset discomfort on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset discomfort on her right lateral hip for the past two weeks. She denies any history of trauma and is able to bear weight fully. However, she experiences the worst discomfort at night, which sometimes wakes her up when lying on her right side. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is characterized by pain in the lateral hip/thigh area, accompanied by tenderness over the greater trochanter. This condition, also known as greater trochanteric pain syndrome, is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms, as there are no other systemic issues present. Iliotibial band syndrome typically affects the knee and does not usually cause nighttime symptoms, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this age group. Meralgia paresthetica, which results from compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, typically presents with numbness or tingling rather than pain. Osteoarthritis is unlikely to cause pain upon direct pressure over the greater trochanter.

      Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 45 - A 15-year-old boy complains of dull, throbbing pain and swelling in his left...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy complains of dull, throbbing pain and swelling in his left knee that is aggravated by his routine basketball practices. The boy also experiences a sensation of the left knee joint getting stuck and a painful 'click' when bending or straightening the left knee. Physical examination of the knee joint reveals a slight accumulation of fluid and a detectable loose body. Furthermore, tenderness is noticeable upon palpating the femoral condyles while the knee is flexed. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Osteochondritis dissecans is commonly seen in the knee joint and is characterized by knee pain after exercise, locking, and ‘clunking’. This condition is often caused by overuse of joints due to sports activities and can lead to secondary effects on joint cartilage, including pain, swelling, and possible formation of free bodies. Baker’s cyst, Osgood-Schlatter disease, and osteoarthritis are not the correct diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and causes.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 46 - A 23-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of chronic back pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of chronic back pain. He denies any history of trauma but reports experiencing anterior uveitis within the past year. You suspect that he may have ankylosing spondylitis (AS) and decide to perform Schober's test, which yields a positive result. What is a commonly utilized diagnostic test that could provide further evidence to support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Human leukocyte antigen B27

      Correct Answer: Pelvic radiograph

      Explanation:

      The most supportive diagnostic tool for ankylosing spondylitis is a pelvic X-ray that can reveal sacroiliitis. While a chest X-ray may show bamboo spine, it is a late sign and not likely to be present in the patient at this stage. A full-blood count is not useful for diagnosis. Although a CT scan can provide detailed imaging, it is not commonly used due to the high radiation exposure. HLA-B27 testing is not typically performed in clinical practice as it only indicates a predisposition to AS and is not specific to the condition, often being positive in healthy individuals.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 47 - A 65-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with complaints of a painful...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with complaints of a painful hand. Upon further examination, it was discovered that she had sustained a Colles' fracture. A DEXA scan was performed, revealing a T-score of -2.7 from L2-L4 and -2.8 in the right hip. The patient is currently taking omeprazole for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 85 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Calcium 1.95 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
      Magnesium 0.55 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
      Vitamin D 115 nmol/L (50 - 250)
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 2.1 pmol/L (1.6 – 8.5)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Correct calcium level then commence alendronate

      Explanation:

      Before starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis, it is important to correct any hypocalcemia or vitamin D deficiency. This is because bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone loss through osteoclastic activity, which is also responsible for increasing calcium levels in the body. Therefore, correcting calcium and vitamin D levels prior to treatment is necessary to ensure proper calcium regulation during therapy. Serum calcium levels should also be monitored during treatment. Alendronate is the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, but it should only be started after correcting any hypocalcemia. Oral calcium tablets alone are not appropriate for this patient, as the cause of hypocalcemia should be considered first. In this case, the low magnesium level should be corrected, as magnesium is required for PTH secretion and sensitivity. Raloxifene is an alternative treatment option for osteoporosis, but it should only be considered if the patient cannot tolerate bisphosphonates. It is also important to note that proton pump inhibitors can increase the risk of osteoporosis and cause hypomagnesemia.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 48 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of right wrist...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of right wrist pain after falling on her outstretched hand. Upon examination, there is tenderness over her right anatomical snuffbox and pain with ulnar deviation of the right wrist. An X-ray confirms an undisplaced scaphoid fracture in the right wrist. What is the best course of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Cast and X-ray again after 2-weeks

      Correct Answer: Cast for 6-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      When someone falls on an outstretched hand, they may suffer from a scaphoid fracture, which is a common injury. However, the problem with this type of fracture is that it may not show up on an X-ray. This is because the scaphoid bone receives a retrograde blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which increases the risk of avascular necrosis if the fracture goes undetected. Symptoms of a scaphoid fracture include wrist pain, especially when the thumb is compressed longitudinally and the wrist is deviated ulnarly. Signs of this injury include tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and wrist joint effusion. To diagnose a suspected scaphoid fracture, a scaphoid series of x-rays should be performed. If the fracture cannot be imaged, MRI scans can be used. If an undisplaced fracture is detected, a neutral forearm cast should be applied for 6-8 weeks. It is important to note that rest alone will not heal a scaphoid fracture, and without treatment, it can progress to avascular necrosis. Immediate screw fixation is not necessary for an undisplaced scaphoid fracture. If a fracture is suspected but cannot be imaged, a cast should still be applied, and the patient should be re-imaged using x-ray scans in two weeks. Screw fixation may be used to treat a displaced scaphoid fracture, as casting alone is less likely to promote healing.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 49 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of painful genital ulceration. She has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of painful genital ulceration. She has been experiencing recurrent episodes for the past four years. Despite taking oral acyclovir, her symptoms have not improved significantly. Additionally, she has been suffering from mouth ulcers almost every week for the past year, which take a long time to heal. The patient's medical history includes treatment for thrombophlebitis two years ago. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus type 2

      Correct Answer: Behcet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.

      The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 50 - A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have been ongoing for the past 3 weeks and she describes them as severe (8/10) and throbbing in nature. She reports that the headaches worsen whenever she talks for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has been experiencing fatigue and slight blurred vision since the onset of the headaches, which is unusual for her. Based on the probable diagnosis, what investigation and treatment options would you prioritize?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone and vision testing

      Explanation:

      After being diagnosed with temporal arthritis, it is important to conduct vision testing as a crucial investigation. This autoimmune condition affects blood vessels and can be effectively treated with steroids, with an initial dose of 40-60 mg being recommended to alleviate symptoms and prevent further progression. If left untreated, temporal arthritis can lead to irreversible blindness due to occlusion of the ophthalmic artery, which may be preceded by transient visual problems. Unlike renal function, which is not significantly impacted by temporal arthritis, aspirin and a CT head are typically used to diagnose ischemic stroke or TIA. While co-codamol can effectively treat tension headaches, an MRI head is not a primary investigation for temporal arthritis due to its high cost. Additionally, fludrocortisone is not the first line of treatment for this condition.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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Musculoskeletal (22/50) 44%
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