00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a malodorous discharge from her left ear for the last 2 weeks. She also reports experiencing some hearing loss in her left ear and suspects it may be due to earwax. However, upon examination, there is no earwax present but instead a crust on the lower portion of the tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis media

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with unilateral foul smelling discharge and deafness, it is important to consider the possibility of a cholesteatoma. If this is suspected during examination, it is necessary to refer the patient to an ENT specialist.

      Pain is a common symptom of otitis media, while otitis externa typically causes inflammation and swelling of the ear canal. Impacted wax can lead to deafness, but it is unlikely to cause a discharge with a foul odor. It is also improbable for a woman of 45 years to have a foreign object in her ear for three weeks.

      Understanding Cholesteatoma

      Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.

      The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.

      During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.

      Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.

      In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a medical student in general practice, a 37-year-old male with chronic back...

    Correct

    • As a medical student in general practice, a 37-year-old male with chronic back pain comes in for a refill of his amitriptyline prescription. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibits monoamine reuptake on the presynaptic membrane

      Explanation:

      Amitriptyline belongs to the class of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).

      TCAs primarily act on the presynaptic neuron rather than the postsynaptic neuron. Their main mode of action involves inhibiting the reuptake of monoamines at the presynaptic membrane. This is achieved by binding to the ATPase monoamine pump located within the presynaptic membrane.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of oligomenorrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of oligomenorrhoea that has persisted for the past year. The GP orders blood tests to evaluate her baseline hormone profile. The results are as follows:

      FSH 5 U/L (2-8)
      LH 15 mmol/L (3-16)
      Oestradiol 210 mmol/L (70-600)

      Based on these findings, what is the probable underlying cause of her anovulation?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovary syndrome leads to anovulation with normal levels of FSH and estrogen, known as normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation. LH levels may be elevated or normal in this condition.

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation is caused by hypopituitarism or hyperprolactinemia, resulting in low levels of gonadotropins and estrogen. However, hyperprolactinemia can be ruled out based on gonadotropin and estrogen levels alone.

      Hypothalamic amenorrhea is a functional cause of hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, often due to factors such as low BMI, stress, or excessive exercise.

      Understanding Ovulation Induction and Its Categories

      Ovulation induction is a common treatment for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. The process of ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. Anovulation can occur due to alterations in this balance, which can be classified into three categories: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation, leading to a singleton pregnancy.

      There are various forms of ovulation induction, starting with the least invasive and simplest management option first. Exercise and weight loss are typically the first-line treatment for patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome, as ovulation can spontaneously return with even a modest 5% weight loss. Letrozole is now considered the first-line medical therapy for patients with PCOS due to its reduced risk of adverse effects on endometrial and cervical mucous compared to clomiphene citrate. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts primarily at the hypothalamus, blocking the negative feedback effect of estrogens. Gonadotropin therapy tends to be the treatment used mostly for women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

      One potential side effect of ovulation induction is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), which can be life-threatening if not identified and managed promptly. OHSS occurs when ovarian enlargement with multiple cystic spaces form, and an increase in the permeability of capillaries leads to a fluid shift from the intravascular to the extra-vascular space. The severity of OHSS varies, with the risk of severe OHSS occurring in less than 1% of all women undergoing ovarian induction. Management includes fluid and electrolyte replacement, anticoagulation therapy, abdominal ascitic paracentesis, and pregnancy termination to prevent further hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old man presents to an after-hours medical clinic following his return from...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to an after-hours medical clinic following his return from a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. He complains of abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and healing sores on the soles of his feet. Additionally, he has developed a new and extremely itchy rash that began in the perianal area and has spread to his buttocks over the last two hours. His vital signs include a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 92 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/86 mmHg. He is not running a fever. What is the probable pathogen responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Correct Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Explanation:

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old male visits his doctor after injuring himself while doing 'hammer curls',...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male visits his doctor after injuring himself while doing 'hammer curls', a workout that requires flexing the elbow joint in pronation. He reports experiencing elbow pain.

      During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in elbow flexion and detects local tenderness upon palpating the elbow. The doctor suspects that there may be an underlying injury to the nerve supply of the brachialis muscle.

      What accurately describes the nerves that provide innervation to the brachialis muscle?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous and radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The brachialis muscle receives innervation from both the musculocutaneous nerve and radial nerve. Other muscles in the forearm and hand are innervated by different nerves, such as the median nerve which controls most of the flexor muscles in the forearm and the ulnar nerve which innervates the muscles of the hand (excluding the thenar muscles and two lateral lumbricals). The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the teres minor and deltoid muscles.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A teenage girl is hospitalized with E-coli 0157 following a trip to Germany...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is hospitalized with E-coli 0157 following a trip to Germany during an outbreak. What statement about the condition is false?

      Your Answer: It may be complicated by micro-angiopathic haemolytic anaemia.

      Correct Answer: Adults typically develop haemolytic uraemic syndome.

      Explanation:

      This complication is typically developed by children.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old male has just been prescribed olanzapine for his schizophrenia. However, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male has just been prescribed olanzapine for his schizophrenia. However, his family reports that he appears restless and has a blank stare. During your examination, you observe an upward deviation of both eyes.

      What could be the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve VI palsy

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric-crisis

      Explanation:

      Acute dystonia is characterized by sustained muscle contraction, such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. These symptoms are unlikely to be caused by a brain tumor.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often triggered by the initiation of anti-dopaminergic medication or withdrawal of dopamine agonists. Symptoms include fever, sweating, muscle rigidity, and confusion. Treatment involves discontinuing anti-dopaminergic medications and sometimes starting dopamine agonists like bromocriptine. Symptomatic care, such as cooling blankets, may also be provided. Antipyretics are not effective in treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction that typically occurs shortly after starting antipsychotics, particularly older typical antipsychotics. Treatment involves stopping the medication and administering antimuscarinic drugs.

      A cranial nerve III palsy would result in a ‘down and out gaze,’ while a cranial nerve VI palsy would cause an inability to effectively abduct the eye.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus is having an oesophagogastrectomy. During the mobilization of the lower part of the oesophagus, where is the thoracic duct most likely to be encountered by the surgeons?

      Your Answer: Immediately anterior to the azygos vein

      Correct Answer: Posterior to the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is situated at the back of the oesophagus and takes a leftward course at the Angle of Louis. It joins the aorta at T12 as it enters the thorax.

      The Thoracic Duct: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The thoracic duct is a continuation of the cisterna chyli located in the abdomen. It enters the thorax at the level of T12 and runs posterior to the esophagus for most of its intrathoracic course. At T5, it passes to the left side of the body. Lymphatics from the left side of the head and neck join the thoracic duct before it empties into the left brachiocephalic vein. In contrast, lymphatics from the right side of the head and neck drain into the right lymphatic duct, which eventually empties into the right brachiocephalic vein via the mediastinal trunk.

      The thoracic duct’s location in the thorax makes it vulnerable to injury during oesophageal surgery. To avoid damaging the duct, some surgeons apply cream to patients before oesophagectomy to help identify the cut ends of the duct. Understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the thoracic duct is essential for healthcare professionals involved in thoracic surgery and lymphatic drainage disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - As the FY1 on a busy surgical ward, you are preparing to discharge...

    Correct

    • As the FY1 on a busy surgical ward, you are preparing to discharge an 85-year-old male who underwent a total hip replacement following a neck of femur fracture. He hands you an envelope expressing his gratitude for your care. Upon opening it, you discover a cheque for £400 made out to you. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer: Thank the patient but refuse the money

      Explanation:

      The issue of accepting gifts from patients can be challenging, but the GMC has provided clear guidance on this matter in their document on financial and commercial arrangements and conflicts of interest. According to their guidelines on gifts, bequests, and donations, healthcare professionals should not encourage patients to give them money or gifts that could benefit them directly or indirectly. However, they may accept unsolicited gifts from patients or their relatives as long as it does not affect the way they provide care or influence patients to offer gifts.

      In this scenario, accepting the gift may not affect the way you treat the patient, but it is still advisable to decline it. While this may disappoint the patient, it is the safest course of action to avoid any potential conflicts of interest.

      As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the way in which penicillins work? ...

    Correct

    • What is the way in which penicillins work?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Antibiotic Action

      Antibiotics work by targeting specific components of bacterial cells to inhibit their growth and replication. Penicillins, for example, target the bacterial cell wall by binding to penicillin-binding proteins, preventing cross-linking, and stimulating breakdown by activating autolytic enzymes. While penicillins have a relatively narrow range of coverage, they have been modified to give wider action, but the same mechanism of action is used by more advanced penicillins such as amoxicillin and piperacillin.

      Other antibiotics target different components of bacterial cells. Rifampicin inhibits DNA synthesis, while trimethoprim inhibits folate production. Colistin inhibits membrane production, and chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis. Each antibiotic has a specific mechanism of action that makes it effective against certain types of bacteria.

      the mechanisms of antibiotic action is important for developing new antibiotics and for using existing antibiotics effectively. By targeting specific components of bacterial cells, antibiotics can effectively kill or inhibit the growth of harmful bacteria, helping to prevent and treat infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old patient comes in for a routine follow-up appointment and reports a...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old patient comes in for a routine follow-up appointment and reports a decline in exercise tolerance. They mention having difficulty with stairs and experiencing occasional central chest pain that radiates to their back, which is relieved by rest. The pain is not present at rest.

      During the examination, you observe a regular, slow-rising pulse and record a blood pressure of 110/95mmHg. Upon auscultation of the precordium, you detect an ejection systolic murmur.

      To further assess cardiac function and valves, an echocardiogram is scheduled. Based on the likely diagnosis, what additional exam findings are you most likely to discover?

      Your Answer: Fourth heart sound (S4)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and physical exam suggest the presence of aortic stenosis. This is indicated by the ejection systolic murmur, slow-rising pulse, and progressive heart failure symptoms. The fourth heart sound (S4) is also present, which occurs when the left atrium contracts forcefully to compensate for a stiff ventricle. In aortic stenosis, the left ventricle is hypertrophied due to the narrowed valve, leading to the S4 sound.

      While hepatomegaly is more commonly associated with right heart valvular disease, it is not entirely ruled out in this case. However, the patient’s history is more consistent with aortic stenosis.

      Malar flush, a pink flushed appearance across the cheeks, is typically seen in mitral stenosis due to hypercarbia causing arteriole vasodilation.

      Pistol shot femoral pulses, a sound heard during systole when auscultating the femoral artery, is a finding associated with aortic regurgitation and not present in this case.

      Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which drug is most likely to be impacted by a patient's acetylator status?...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is most likely to be impacted by a patient's acetylator status?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Hydralazine

      Explanation:

      Hydralazine’s efficacy is influenced by acetylator status.

      Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions

      Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.

      First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status

      First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.

      Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.

      Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag sepsis, possibly originating from the urinary tract. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is recorded as 90/60mmHg, and he exhibits cool, mottled skin peripherally. To increase his preload and stroke volume, a fluid bolus is administered. What other physiological parameter is likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: Increased heart rate

      Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      When stroke volume increases, pulse pressure also increases. This is important to consider in the management of shock, where intravenous fluids can increase preload and stroke volume. Factors that affect stroke volume include preload, cardiac contractility, and afterload. Pulse pressure can be calculated by subtracting diastolic blood pressure from systolic blood pressure.

      Decreased cardiac output is not a result of increased stroke volume, as cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to an increase in cardiac output.

      Similarly, decreased mean arterial pressure is not a result of increased stroke volume, as mean arterial pressure is calculated by multiplying cardiac output by total peripheral resistance. An increase in stroke volume would lead to an increase in mean arterial pressure.

      Lastly, increased heart rate is not a direct result of increased stroke volume, as heart rate is calculated by dividing cardiac output by stroke volume. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to a decrease in heart rate.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 43-year-old male patient, who is a heavy drinker, has been admitted to...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male patient, who is a heavy drinker, has been admitted to the hospital due to a variceal bleed. The patient requires a blood transfusion as his blood is clotting very slowly. It is suspected that his excessive alcohol consumption is hindering the liver's ability to recycle vitamin K, which is essential for coagulation. Can you identify the clotting factors that are dependent on vitamin K?

      Your Answer: Factors II, VII, IX and X

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K and its Role in Clotting Factor Production

      The production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X is dependent on vitamin K. This vitamin acts as a cofactor during the production of these factors. Vitamin K is stored in the liver in small amounts and requires recycling via an enzyme to maintain adequate production levels of the clotting factors. However, liver disease or excessive alcohol consumption can disrupt the recycling process, leading to a relative deficiency of vitamin K. This deficiency can interrupt the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which can result in bleeding disorders. Therefore, it is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper clotting factor production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following statements relating to the hip joint is false?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the hip joint is false?

      Your Answer: When the knee is fully extended all ligaments of the knee joint are taut

      Correct Answer: The posterior aspect of the patella is extrasynovial

      Explanation:

      The knee is the largest synovial joint in the body and its posterior aspect is located within the synovial membrane. In case of an ACL injury, the knee may swell significantly and cause severe pain due to its extensive innervation from the femoral, sciatic, and obturator nerves. When fully extended, all ligaments are stretched and the knee is in a locked position.

      The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which receptor is predominantly targeted by noradrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor is predominantly targeted by noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: α 2 receptors

      Correct Answer: α 1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is derived from noradrenaline and has a potent effect on α 1 receptors, although it can also increase myocardial contractility. When administered through infusions, it causes vasoconstriction and a rise in overall peripheral resistance. Noradrenaline is the preferred inotrope for treating septic shock.

      Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.

      The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of loss of sensation on...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of loss of sensation on the lateral side of his right forearm after lifting weights. During the examination, the GP observes a decrease in the biceps reflex on the right arm.

      What nerve roots are likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: C5, C6

      Explanation:

      The biceps muscle is innervated by the nerve roots C5 and C6. Based on the patient’s history, it is likely that these nerves have been injured. The biceps reflex specifically tests the function of the C5 nerve root. Additionally, damage to the C6 nerve root can result in a loss of sensation in the lateral forearm.

      Anatomy of the Vertebral Column

      The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae, which are divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral. The cervical region has seven vertebrae, the thoracic region has twelve, the lumbar region has five, and the sacral region has five. However, the spinal cord segmental levels do not always correspond to the vertebral segments. For example, the C8 cord is located at the C7 vertebrae, and the T12 cord is situated at the T8 vertebrae.

      The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck and are responsible for controlling the muscles of the upper extremities. The C3 cord contains the phrenic nucleus, which controls the diaphragm. The thoracic vertebrae are defined by those that have a rib and control the intercostal muscles and associated dermatomes. The lumbosacral vertebrae are located in the lower back and control the hip and leg muscles, as well as the buttocks and anal regions.

      The spinal cord ends at the L1-L2 vertebral level, and below this level is a spray of spinal roots called the cauda equina. Injuries below L2 represent injuries to spinal roots rather than the spinal cord proper. Understanding the anatomy of the vertebral column is essential for diagnosing and treating spinal cord injuries and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man is brought to the ED by his spouse, who suspects...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is brought to the ED by his spouse, who suspects he had a stroke. The man is exhibiting signs of slurred speech and disorientation to time and space, but there is no limb weakness.

      According to collateral history, the man has a history of epilepsy, although he has not had a seizure in several months. He does not smoke and did not consume any alcohol or drugs before coming to the ED. A CT scan is normal, and a focal seizure is suspected as the cause of his symptoms.

      Which part of the brain is likely affected?

      Your Answer: Motor cortex

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Localising features of a temporal lobe seizure include postictal dysphasia and lip smacking.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about the appearance...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about the appearance of lumps in her lower abdomen. She has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has been using insulin for more than a decade. The lumps have developed in the areas where she administers her insulin injections.

      What is the probable cause of the lumps?

      Your Answer: Glucose deposits

      Correct Answer: Lipodystrophy

      Explanation:

      Small subcutaneous lumps at injection sites, known as lipodystrophy, can be caused by insulin.

      The type and location of the lump suggest that lipodystrophy is the most probable cause.

      Deposits of insulin and glucose are not responsible for the formation of these lumps.

      While a lipoma could also cause similar lumps, it is less likely than lipodystrophy, which is a known complication of insulin injections, especially at the injection site. These lumps can occur in multiple locations.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who is worried about his facial expressions. The boy has been experiencing difficulty using the muscles in his face for the past month. He also reports weakness in his arms, but no pain.

      During the examination, the GP observes that the boy's facial muscles are weak, he struggles to puff out his cheeks, and has difficulty raising his arms in the classroom. Additionally, the boy has abnormally large gastrocnemius muscles and his scapulae are 'winged'.

      Which nerve is responsible for innervating the muscle that prevents the scapulae from forming a 'winged' position?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The Serratus Anterior Muscle and its Innervation

      The serratus anterior muscle is a muscle that originates from the first to eighth ribs and inserts along the entire medial border of the scapulae. Its main function is to protract the scapula, allowing for anteversion of the upper limb. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, which receives innervation from roots C5-C7 of the brachial plexus.

      Based on the patient’s clinical history, it is likely that they are suffering from muscular dystrophy, specifically facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. The long thoracic nerve is solely responsible for innervating the serratus anterior muscle, making it a key factor in the diagnosis of this condition.

      Other nerves of the brachial plexus include the axillary nerve, which mainly innervates the deltoid muscles and provides sensory innervation to the skin covering the deltoid muscle. The upper and lower subscapular nerves are branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provide motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve is also a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the latissimus dorsi.

      the innervation of the serratus anterior muscle and its relationship to other nerves of the brachial plexus is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology...

    Incorrect

    • As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology consultant, you are evaluating a 27-year-old patient who is unresponsive to current hyperhidrosis treatment. The consultant suggests starting botox injections to prevent sweating. Can you explain the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction?

      Your Answer: Blocks acetylcholine receptors on postsynaptic membrane

      Correct Answer: Inhibits vesicles containing acetylcholine binding to presynaptic membrane

      Explanation:

      Botulinum Toxin and its Mechanism of Action

      Botulinum toxin is becoming increasingly popular in the medical field for treating various conditions such as cervical dystonia and achalasia. The toxin works by binding to the presynaptic cleft on the neurotransmitter and forming a complex with the attached receptor. This complex then invaginates the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cleft around the attached toxin. Once inside the cell, the toxin cleaves an important cytoplasmic protein that is required for efficient binding of the vesicles containing acetylcholine to the presynaptic membrane. This prevents the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.

      It is important to note that the blockage of Ca2+ channels on the presynaptic membrane occurs in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung and is a paraneoplastic syndrome. However, this is not related to the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin.

      The effects of botox typically last for two to six months. Once complete denervation has occurred, the synapse produces new axonal terminals which bind to the motor end plate in a process called neurofibrillary sprouting. This allows for interrupted release of acetylcholine. Overall, botulinum toxin is a powerful tool in the medical field for treating various conditions by preventing the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the equivalent of cardiac preload? ...

    Correct

    • What is the equivalent of cardiac preload?

      Your Answer: End diastolic volume

      Explanation:

      Preload, also known as end diastolic volume, follows the Frank Starling principle where a slight increase results in an increase in cardiac output. However, if preload is significantly increased, such as exceeding 250ml, it can lead to a decrease in cardiac output.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old male patient complains of fever, malaise, weight loss, dyspnoea, and shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient complains of fever, malaise, weight loss, dyspnoea, and shoulder & hip joint pain. He has raised erythematous lesions on both legs. His blood tests reveal elevated calcium levels and serum ACE levels. A chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lung carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with raised serum ACE levels, sarcoidosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis. The combination of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on a chest x-ray is pathognomonic of sarcoidosis. Lung cancer is unlikely in a young patient without a significant smoking history, and tuberculosis would require recent foreign travel to a TB endemic country. Multiple myeloma would not cause the same symptoms as sarcoidosis. Exposure to organic material would not be a likely cause of raised serum ACE levels.

      Understanding Sarcoidosis: A Multisystem Disorder

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by the presence of non-caseating granulomas. The exact cause of this disorder is unknown, but it is more commonly seen in young adults and individuals of African descent.

      The symptoms of sarcoidosis can vary depending on the severity of the condition. Acute symptoms may include erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, and polyarthralgia. On the other hand, insidious symptoms may include dyspnea, non-productive cough, malaise, and weight loss. Additionally, some individuals may develop skin symptoms such as lupus pernio, while others may experience hypercalcemia due to increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form.

      Sarcoidosis is also associated with several syndromes, including Lofgren’s syndrome, Mikulicz syndrome, and Heerfordt’s syndrome. Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of the disease that typically presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, fever, and polyarthralgia. Mikulicz syndrome is characterized by enlargement of the parotid and lacrimal glands due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or lymphoma. Finally, Heerfordt’s syndrome, also known as uveoparotid fever, presents with parotid enlargement, fever, and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis.

      In conclusion, sarcoidosis is a complex disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body. While the exact cause is unknown, early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications

      Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.

      On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man visits an after-hours medical facility in the late evening with...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man visits an after-hours medical facility in the late evening with a complaint of a severe headache that is focused around his left eye. He mentions experiencing haloes in his vision and difficulty seeing clearly. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and diabetes. During the examination, the sclera appears red, and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is an urgent ophthalmological emergency. They are experiencing a headache with unilateral eye pain, reduced vision, visual haloes, a red and congested eye with a cloudy cornea, and a dilated, unresponsive pupil. These symptoms may be triggered by darkness or dilating eye drops. Treatment should involve laying the patient flat to relieve angle pressure, administering pilocarpine eye drops to constrict the pupil, acetazolamide orally to reduce aqueous humour production, and providing analgesia. Referral to secondary care is necessary.

      It is important to differentiate this condition from other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. Central retinal vein occlusion, for example, would cause sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. Migraines typically involve a visual or somatosensory aura followed by a unilateral throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. Subarachnoid haemorrhages present with a sudden, severe headache, rather than a gradually worsening one accompanied by eye signs. Temporal arteritis may cause pain when chewing, difficulty brushing hair, and thickened temporal arteries visible on examination. However, the presence of a dilated, fixed pupil with conjunctival injection should steer the clinician away from a diagnosis of migraine.

      Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, haloes around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old teenage boy comes to see his General Practitioner with swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old teenage boy comes to see his General Practitioner with swelling in his left scrotum. He reports no pain or other symptoms. During examination in a supine position, the GP notes that the left testicle is smaller than the right and there are no abnormal masses on either side. The GP diagnoses the patient with a varicocele, which is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the venous plexus of the left scrotum. The question is, where does the left testicular (gonadal) vein drain into?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The left renal vein receives drainage from the left testicular vein, while the common iliac and internal iliac veins do not receive any blood from the testicles. The internal iliac veins collect blood from the pelvic internal organs and join the external iliac vein, which drains blood from the legs, to form the common iliac vein. On the other hand, the right testicular vein directly drains into the inferior vena cava since it is situated to the right of the midline. The great saphenous veins, which are located superficially, collect blood from the toes.

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath and palpitations. During the examination, you observe an irregularly irregular pulse. To check for signs of atrial fibrillation, you opt to conduct an ECG. In a healthy individual, where is the SA node located in the heart?

      Your Answer: Left ventricle

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The SA node is situated at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium, and is responsible for initiating cardiac impulses in a healthy heart. The AV node, located in the atrioventricular septum, regulates the spread of excitation from the atria to the ventricles. The patient’s symptoms of palpitations and shortness of breath, along with an irregularly irregular pulse, strongly indicate atrial fibrillation. ECG findings consistent with atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm and the absence of P waves.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 63-year-old woman, with a history of rate-controlled atrial fibrillation and HIV, visits...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman, with a history of rate-controlled atrial fibrillation and HIV, visits the emergency department due to vaginal bleeding. She is taking warfarin and denies any accidental overdose. Recently, her general physician prescribed a new medication.

      During her examination, her INR is discovered to be 7.

      What is the most probable medication that the patient was prescribed?

      Your Answer: Ritonavir

      Explanation:

      Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, strongly inhibits the CYP3A4 system and may interfere with warfarin metabolism. Conversely, the other options listed are CYP inducers and may increase warfarin metabolism, leading to a suboptimal therapeutic effect. To remember the most common CYP inducers, use the mnemonic SARS: St. John’s Wort, Anti-epileptics (phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine), Rifampicin, and Smoking.

      The P450 system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body, and drug interactions can occur when certain drugs inhibit or induce the activity of these enzymes. The most common and important enzyme system involved in drug interactions is CYP3A4. Macrolides, antiretrovirals, and calcium channel blockers are substrates for this enzyme, while macrolides, protease inhibitors (including ritonavir), and imidazoles are inhibitors. Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone, rifampicin, and St John’s Wort are inducers of CYP3A4. Other enzyme systems affected by common drugs include CYP2D6, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2E1. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics are substrates for CYP2D6, while SSRIs and ritonavir are inhibitors. Warfarin and sulfonylureas are substrates for CYP2C9, while imidazoles, amiodarone, and sodium valproate are inhibitors. Theophylline is a substrate for CYP1A2, while ciprofloxacin and omeprazole are inhibitors. Chronic alcohol and isoniazid are inducers of CYP2E1. It is important to be aware of these interactions to avoid adverse effects and ensure optimal drug therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal swelling, nausea, and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal swelling, nausea, and mild jaundice. He has a history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) and a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.

      What is the approximate number of units of alcohol this man consumes per week? Round to the nearest unit.

      Your Answer: 23 units

      Explanation:

      Calculating Units of Alcohol

      To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for when answering questions about units of alcohol. For example, if the consumption is presented as a daily amount, you need to multiply by 7 to get the weekly amount. Additionally, if the volume is presented in centilitres, you need to convert it to millilitres before performing the calculation.

      For instance, let’s say you want to calculate the units of alcohol in a bottle of lager. If the ABV is 3% and the volume is 330ml, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml divided by 1000, which equals 0.99 units rounded up to 1 unit. If the person drinks two bottles a day, that’s 2 units per day or 14 units per week. Similarly, if the person drinks one bottle of wine per week, and the ABV is 12% and the volume is 750ml, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml divided by 1000, which equals 9 units per bottle.

      It’s important to be aware of potential pitfalls when calculating units of alcohol, such as checking the units of volume and adjusting for duration. By this simple calculation, you can be prepared for any question that may come up in an exam setting. The UK recommendations for alcohol consumption are no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While calculating units of alcohol may seem daunting, with practice and preparation, you can confidently tackle any question that comes your way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      174.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A newborn is delivered prematurely at 32 weeks of gestation to an immigrant...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn is delivered prematurely at 32 weeks of gestation to an immigrant mother who recently arrived. The baby is experiencing feeding difficulties and frequent vomiting. Upon examination, the infant appears hypotonic and has a bluish tint to their skin with a pale grey color. The mother was treated for meningitis with an antibiotic during her pregnancy in a low-resource area. Which antibiotic is the most probable cause of the adverse drug event?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Harmful Drugs and Medical Conditions for Developing Fetuses

      During pregnancy, certain drugs and medical conditions can harm the developing fetus. These harmful substances and conditions are known as teratogens. Some examples of teratogens include ACE inhibitors, alcohol, aminoglycosides, carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, cocaine, diethylstilbesterol, lithium, maternal diabetes mellitus, smoking, tetracyclines, thalidomide, and warfarin.

      ACE inhibitors can cause renal dysgenesis and craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to craniofacial abnormalities. Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity. Carbamazepine can result in neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome. Cocaine use during pregnancy can lead to intrauterine growth retardation and preterm labor. Diethylstilbesterol can cause vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma. Lithium can result in Ebstein’s anomaly, which is an atrialized right ventricle. Maternal diabetes mellitus can cause macrosomia, neural tube defects, polyhydramnios, preterm labor, and caudal regression syndrome. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to preterm labor and intrauterine growth retardation. Tetracyclines can cause discolored teeth. Thalidomide can result in limb reduction defects. Valproate can cause neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Warfarin can lead to craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these harmful substances and conditions to ensure the healthy development of their fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Reproductive System (0/1) 0%
General Principles (2/7) 29%
Neurological System (3/5) 60%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (2/4) 50%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/2) 50%
Endocrine System (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Basic Sciences (1/1) 100%
Passmed