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Question 1
Correct
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What is accurate about the cardiac complications observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: A mitral valve prolapse murmur is common
Explanation:Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the recommended treatment by NICE for an adult patient with bipolar disorder who does not respond to lithium monotherapy for prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Consider olanzapine plus valproate
Correct Answer: Consider lithium plus valproate
Explanation:Adding valproate should be carefully considered, especially for women who are capable of bearing children. The potential benefits of the medication should be weighed against the risks that may arise if the woman becomes pregnant.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A teenager complains that her boyfriend is extremely conceited, believes he is the center of the universe, and will go to any lengths to achieve his desires. What personality disorder is he most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:The inclination to prioritize one’s own desires over others, regardless of the consequences, is a shared characteristic of both antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders. Nevertheless, the conceitedness and exaggerated belief in one’s own significance are particularly indicative of narcissistic personality disorder.
Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)
Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the first-line recommendation by NICE for the long-term management of adult bipolar disorder?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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For what purpose was the SUSS test created to assess?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:The SUSS test was created to aid in the evaluation and assessment of anorexia nervosa by providing a more precise method of measuring power. Traditional neurological examinations of anorexia patients often miss significant power deficiencies caused by muscle loss. The test requires patients to transition from lying down to sitting up, then squatting, and finally standing up again, with a structured scoring system in place.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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The most likely finding in a 23-year-old woman with a history of bulimia nervosa who is using repetitive vomiting to lose weight and presents with leg cramps and ECG changes of PR prolongation and ST segment depression is electrolyte imbalances, specifically hypokalemia.
Your Answer: Hypokalemia
Explanation:Bulimia-related vomiting can lead to a condition called hypokalemia, which is characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood and metabolic alkalosis. Hypokalemia can cause specific changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG), including prolongation of the PR interval, depression of the ST-segment and T-wave, and the formation of U-waves.
Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is referred by his primary care service due to concerns about social anxiety and isolation.
His mother reports that he avoids socialising and instead spends his time on the internet in chat rooms. He expresses numerous beliefs that are considered to be paranoid, for example, that the government is trying to suppress the minds of the public by encouraging unhealthy diets.
He is highly animated throughout the discussion and smiles and laughs for much of the interview. He states that the COVID pandemic introduced him to the concept of viruses and that this was a sign to him that his purpose in life is to educate the public that viruses are not real.
He is very suspicious of psychiatrists and suggests that as an arm of the state they will try and limit him so that the government remains in power.
Based on this presentation, which personality disorder would you most expect to be present?Your Answer: Schizoid
Correct Answer: Schizotypal
Explanation:Paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder share some common traits such as suspiciousness, interpersonal aloofness, and paranoid ideation. However, schizotypal personality disorder also includes symptoms like magical thinking, unusual perceptual experiences, and odd thinking and speech. In this particular case, the individual’s inappropriate affect and ideas of reference suggest schizotypal personality disorder rather than paranoid personality disorder. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are often perceived as strange, eccentric, cold, and aloof, but they do not usually exhibit prominent paranoid ideation. Interestingly, research has shown that schizotypal personality disorder is a significant predictor of belief in conspiracy theories (March, 2019).
Schizotypal Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria
Schizotypal personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that is characterized by a pervasive pattern of discomfort with close relationships, distorted thinking and perceptions, and eccentric behavior. This disorder typically begins in early adulthood and is present in a variety of contexts. To be diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:
1. Ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference).
2. Odd beliefs of magical thinking that influences behavior and is inconsistent with subcultural norms.
3. Unusual perceptual experiences, including bodily illusions.
4. Odd thinking and speech.
5. Suspiciousness of paranoid ideation.
6. Inappropriate or constricted affect.
7. Behavior of appearance that is odd, eccentric, of peculiar.
8. Lack of close friends of confidants other than first-degree relatives.
9. Excessive social anxiety that does not diminish with familiarity and tends to be associated with paranoid fears rather than negative judgments about self.It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizotypal personality disorder, as it has abandoned the categorical approach in favor of a dimensional one.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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What factor is most likely to trigger a manic episode?
Your Answer: Selegiline
Explanation:Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs
There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient who has been successfully titrated on clozapine begins to show signs of relapse despite no changes to his dose. He insists that his smoking status has not changed and he has not commenced any new medications. Levels are taken to investigate the possibility of compliance issues.
The following result is obtained:
Clozapine (plasma) = 560 µg/L
Norclozapine = 420 µg/L
Ratio = 1.3
Time of sample since last dose 11.5 hours
Clozapine dose = 600 mg / d
Smoker = No
Which of the following is most likely?:Your Answer: The ratio appears normal and does not suggest non-compliance
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis who has been observed to be low in mood. On review of her blood results you note significant hepatic impairment. You history and examination confirms that she is depressed. Which of the following medications would be indicated to manage her depression?:
Your Answer: Moclobemide
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that causes a gradual accumulation of iron in the body over time. If left untreated, this excess iron can be deposited in organs like the liver and heart, potentially leading to organ failure. Treatment typically involves phlebotomy, which removes excess iron from the body and helps maintain healthy iron levels.
Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs
Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:
Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride
Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)
Mood stabilizers: Lithium
Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the recommended initial treatment for PTSD according to NICE?
Your Answer: Trauma focussed CBT
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines in 2018, trauma focussed CBT is the recommended first-line therapy for PTSD, while drug treatment is not considered as the initial option.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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Among the listed herbal remedies, which one has the strongest evidence to back up its efficacy in treating depression?
Your Answer: Hypericum perforatum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What factor increases the likelihood of non-fatal repetition of self-harm?
Your Answer: Being single
Correct Answer: Alcohol dependency
Explanation:Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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Which antidepressants are recommended by the Maudsley guidelines for breastfeeding women?
Your Answer: Sertraline of mirtazapine
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about medication prescribed for insomnia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tolerance to the hypnotic effects of benzodiazepines may occur within a few days
Explanation:Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.
Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which symptom is not included in the somatic syndrome of depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low mood
Explanation:Anhedonia is commonly regarded as a psychological manifestation of depression.
Depression (Biological Symptoms)
Depression can be classified into biological (physical) of psychological symptoms. The terms used to describe biological symptoms include somatic, vital, melancholic, and endogenomorphic. These terms are used interchangeably in exams, so it is important to be familiar with them.
Biological symptoms of depression include decreased appetite, weight loss, lack of emotional reactivity, anhedonia, early morning waking, depression worse in the mornings, psychomotor changes (retardation and agitation), fatigue, reduced libido, constipation, and insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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If citalopram is prescribed to patients with a history of recurrent depression experiencing an episode of unipolar depression, the percentage of patients expected to achieve remission according to data from the STAR*D study is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:The frequently cited effectiveness rate of antidepressants is likely derived from the STAR*D study, which enrolled individuals with a history of recurrent depression and aimed to assess real-world outcomes.
STAR*D Study
The STAR*D trial, conducted in the USA, aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for major depressive disorder in real-world patients. The study involved four levels of treatment, with patients starting at level 1 and progressing to the next level if they did not respond. The outcome measure used was remission, and the study entry criteria were broadly defined to ensure results could be generalized to a wide range of patients.
A total of 4,041 patients were enrolled in the first level of treatment, making STAR*D the largest prospective clinical trial of depression ever conducted. In level 1, one-third of participants achieved remission, and a further 10-15% responded but not to the point of remission. If treatment with an initial SSRI fails, then one in four patients who choose to switch to another medication will enter remission, regardless of whether the second medication is an SSRI of a medication of a different class. If patients choose to add a medication instead, one in three will get better.
Overall, the STAR*D study provides valuable insights into the effectiveness of different treatments for major depressive disorder and highlights the importance of considering alternative treatments if initial treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What antibiotic is utilized for treating schizophrenia that is resistant to other forms of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Minocycline
Explanation:Treatment resistant schizophrenia may benefit from minocycline, a medication typically used for pneumonia and acne.
Treatment Options for Schizophrenia (Resistance)
Schizophrenia can be a challenging condition to treat, especially when it is resistant to standard therapies. In such cases, clozapine is the preferred treatment option. However, if this medication is not suitable of fails to produce the desired results, there are other options available, although their effectiveness is often limited.
There is little variation between the alternative treatments, and in practice, olanzapine is typically the first choice, often prescribed at doses higher than those recommended by the manufacturer. If this approach proves ineffective, a second antipsychotic medication may be added to the treatment regimen. Despite these efforts, treatment-resistant schizophrenia remains a significant challenge for clinicians and patients alike.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with elevated prolactin levels. What would be the most appropriate replacement medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about psychotic depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is classified by the ICD-11 and the DSM-5 as a subtype of depression
Explanation:Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman visits her GP due to a period of insomnia lasting 1 week. Sleep hygiene measures were not effective and the GP prescribed a course of zopiclone (7.5mg daily). The woman returns after 2 weeks and complains that the medication has not helped. According to NICE guidance, which of the following should the GP do next?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discontinue zopiclone and avoid further prescriptions of hypnotics
Explanation:Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.
Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A recommendation for the most effective treatment for primary negative symptoms of schizophrenia is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amisulpride
Explanation:While amisulpride has been found to be effective, the degree of its clinical impact is not particularly substantial.
Treatment of Negative Symptoms in Schizophrenia: Amisulpride as the Most Effective Option
Schizophrenia symptoms can be categorized into positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms involve an increase in symptomatic behaviors, while negative symptoms refer to a decrease of deficit. Negative symptoms include social withdrawal, apathy, lack of energy, poverty of speech (alogia), flattening of affect, and anhedonia. Among the available treatment options, amisulpride has the most robust data supporting its effectiveness in treating primary negative symptoms, according to the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Ed. Therefore, amisulpride is a recommended option for treating negative symptoms in schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What demographic is most frequently targeted in homicides committed by individuals receiving mental health treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acquaintance
Explanation:Homicide is a serious issue in the UK, with an average of 580 convictions each year. Shockingly, 11% of those convicted were patients under mental health services, although this figure has been decreasing. An independent review of mental health homicides found that 80% of perpetrators were male, with a mean age of 37. In most cases, the perpetrator knew the victim, with 33% being friends and 33% being partners. Illicit substances were used in 75% of cases, and 95% of perpetrators were in the community at the time of the offence. These findings highlight the need for continued efforts to prevent homicides and support those with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unusual perceptual disturbances
Explanation:Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by atypical perceptual experiences.
Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Piper methysticum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A recent meta-analysis examining the effectiveness of medication in treating PTSD discovered which treatments to be supported by evidence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:There is limited evidence suggesting that fluoxetine, paroxetine, and venlafaxine may be effective in treating PTSD, while SSRIs as a whole were found to be more effective than placebo. However, trials involving sertraline did not show any evidence of efficacy, and there is no evidence supporting the use of other drug treatments. Additionally, brofaromine is a type of reversible MAOi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannabis
Explanation:Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the cut-off score on the SCOFF questionnaire that suggests a probable case of anorexia or bulimia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the most common method of suicide in England?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hanging
Explanation:2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the primary treatment option for catatonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:When treating catatonia, the preferred initial treatment is benzodiazepines such as lorazepam. If this approach is unsuccessful, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) should be considered.
Catatonia Treatment
Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate estimate of the ratio of males to females with OCD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1:01
Explanation:Both males and females are equally likely to experience OCD, according to most studies. While some discrepancies have been reported, the majority support a 1:1 ratio.
Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic medication is most likely responsible for a female patient with schizophrenia experiencing cessation of her menstrual cycle and painful intercourse with her partner, after being prescribed a new medication six months ago?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Her symptoms are indicative of hyperprolactinemia.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Incorrect
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In the treatment of schizophrenia, what was the first method used by Cerletti and Bini?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:The inaugural application of ECT is attributed to Ugo Cerletti and Lucio Bini in 1938, when they administered it to a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia.
A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What is the classification of dysthymic disorder according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief periods of normal mood may occur, but these cannot exceed two months to be consistent with a diagnosis
Explanation:Dysthymia is a type of mood disorder characterized by persistent low-grade depressive symptoms that last for at least two years. Although there may be brief periods without symptoms, there has never been a prolonged period of two months of more without symptoms since the onset of the disorder. While treatment for dysthymia can be effective, the results may be modest and short-lived, and the course of the disorder can be challenging. Dysthymia often begins in childhood of adolescence and is associated with a higher likelihood of substance misuse and co-occurring personality disorders, particularly when onset occurs before the age of 21. Co-occurring disorders are common in individuals with dysthymia.
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about the psychiatric care provided to individuals with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efavirenz is associated with depression and mania
Explanation:HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired coordination is an early indicator
Explanation:HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 21 year old gentleman with bulimia visits the clinic accompanied by his father who is extremely worried that the self-help techniques you recommended have not yielded positive results. Which of the following therapies offered by your facility would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Self-help is the initial treatment option for bulimia nervosa, with subsequent therapy involving cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) that is specifically tailored to address eating disorders (CBT-ED) on an individual basis.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 38
Incorrect
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What is a known factor that can lead to depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Organic Causes of Depression
Depression can have various organic causes, including medications, drug abuse, metabolic disorders, nutritional deficiencies, neurological conditions, haematological disorders, infections, and carcinomas. The following table provides a list of some of the organic causes of depression.
Category: Medications
Causes: Reserpine, interferon alpha, beta blockers, levodopa, digoxin, anabolic steroids, H2 blockers, oral contraceptivesCategory: Drug abuse
Causes: Alcohol, amphetamine, cocaine, hypnoticsCategory: Metabolic
Causes: Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, diabetes mellitusCategory: Nutritional
Causes: Pellagra, vitamin B12 deficiencyCategory: Neurological
Causes: Stroke, MS, brain tumour, Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, epilepsy, syphilis, subdural hematomaCategory: Haematological
Causes: Anemia, leukaemiaCategory: Other
Causes: Infection, carcinomaIt is important to note that depression can have multiple causes, and a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which SSRI is known to cause notable withdrawal symptoms in newborns?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Among which group did the AESOP study report the least occurrence of psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: White British
Explanation:The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What medication could potentially increase the likelihood of liver damage in a patient who has overdosed on paracetamol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Patients taking certain drugs, such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, rifampicin, and St John’s Wort, have a higher risk of liver damage due to the inducible metabolism of paracetamol. Phenytoin stands out as the only enzyme inducer in the list, which requires some lateral thinking to identify.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A woman is referred by her GP due to her persistent belief that she has stomach cancer. She remains convinced of this despite multiple normal investigations and reassurance from medical specialists. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:There is often confusion between hypochondriasis and bodily distress disorder. Hypochondriasis involves a fixation on having a particular illness, while bodily distress disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a high fever of 39.5°C. He reports a stiff neck and complains of a severe headache. He quickly becomes confused and there is evidence that he is experiencing hallucinations related to taste and smell.
He has a history of being in good health, but had a pacemaker implanted at the age of 30. He has not traveled outside of the country recently. The medical team has requested your assistance as the consulting psychiatrist.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) encephalitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate possible HSV encephalitis, with specific damage to the temporal and orbitofrontal regions causing hallucinations, loss of smell, and significant memory problems. Immediate treatment with acyclovir and dexamethasone is necessary, and referral for decompression may be necessary depending on the severity of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions
Explanation:PTSD can develop from a single traumatic event, such as a car accident, of from ongoing and repeated trauma, such as childhood abuse. The latter is known as complex PTSD. However, there is some discussion about whether complex PTSD and borderline personality disorder are distinct conditions, as they have many similar symptoms.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A child presents with paracetamol poisoning after accidentally ingesting a large amount. Blood tests show the need for treatment with N-acetylcysteine. IV N-acetylcysteine treatment is started, but the child experiences an anaphylactoid reaction characterized by a skin rash, itching, nausea, mild hypotension, and flushing.
What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suspend the IV acetylcysteine, apply supportive treatment and restart at a lower dose
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose can cause liver damage due to the production of a reactive metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) by cytochrome P450 enzymes. Glutathione detoxifies NAPQI at therapeutic doses, but overdose depletes glutathione. Antidotes such as acetylcysteine and methionine provide a substrate for glutathione synthesis, reducing hepatotoxicity. IV acetylcysteine is the preferred option and more effective than oral acetylcysteine and methionine. Adverse reactions to IV acetylcysteine are rare but can include urticaria, pruritus, facial flushing, wheezing, dyspnoea, and hypotension. These reactions are not true anaphylaxis and do not require prior exposure to N-acetylcysteine. Patients should be observed for signs of anaphylactoid reactions, and management is supportive with temporary halting of slowing of the infusion and administration of antihistamines. Patients with a history of atopy and asthma may be at increased risk of developing an anaphylactoid reaction. (Benlamkadem, 2018).
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about hypomania?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It does not severely affect psychosocial functioning
Explanation:A hypomanic episode does not result in significant impairment in social of occupational functioning of require hospitalization, and if it includes psychotic features, it is classified as a manic episode.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
Which group is identified by the Royal College of Psychiatrists as having a high likelihood of engaging in self-harm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asylum seekers
Explanation:Prisoners, asylum seekers, armed forces veterans, suicide bereaved individuals, certain cultural minority groups, and individuals from sexual minorities are more likely to engage in self-harm.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
What BMI range is considered healthy for an adult female in terms of weight?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 19
Explanation:There is no difference in BMI ranges between males and females.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
What would be the most suitable ICD-11 diagnosis for a surviving passenger of a plane crash who initially appears dazed and disorientated, becomes aggressive and exhibits symptoms of sweating and trembling, but returns to normal within three days?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress reaction
Explanation:Signs of temporary emotional and behavioral changes following a major trauma indicate the presence of an acute stress reaction.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes inhibition of the P450 system
Explanation:St John’s Wort is recognized as a substance that stimulates the P450 system.
Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 times higher
Explanation:Suicide Risk in Epilepsy
Several studies have shown that individuals with epilepsy have an increased risk of suicide. A large study published in the Lancet in 2007 found that individuals with epilepsy were three times more likely to commit suicide compared to those without epilepsy. This risk remained high even after excluding those with a history of psychiatric disease and adjusting for socioeconomic factors.
The highest risk of suicide was found in individuals with epilepsy and comorbid psychiatric disease, with a risk of 13.7 times higher than controls. The risk of suicide was also highest during the first six months after diagnosis, especially in those with a history of comorbid psychiatric disease.
These findings highlight the importance of addressing mental health concerns in individuals with epilepsy, particularly during the early stages of diagnosis. Healthcare providers should be aware of the increased risk of suicide in this population and provide appropriate support and resources to prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
What is the most well-established risk factor for puerperal psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parity
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for puerperal psychosis in individuals with a personal of family history of psychiatric illness is parity, with a higher incidence observed after the birth of the first child. However, the underlying cause for this increased risk remains uncertain.
Puerperal Psychosis: Incidence, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Postpartum psychosis is a subtype of bipolar disorder with an incidence of 1-2 in 1000 pregnancies. It typically occurs rapidly between day 2 and day 14 following delivery, with almost all cases occurring within 8 weeks of delivery. Risk factors for puerperal psychosis include a past history of puerperal psychosis, pre-existing psychotic illness (especially affective psychosis) requiring hospital admission, and a family history of affective psychosis in first of second degree relatives. However, factors such as twin pregnancy, breastfeeding, single parenthood, and stillbirth have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk. Treatment for puerperal psychosis is similar to that for psychosis in general, but special consideration must be given to potential issues if the mother is breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female who has experienced Herpes encephalitis presents with significant weight gain and intense cravings for carbohydrates. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome
Explanation:Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms
Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.
The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
Based on the NICE Guidelines, which factor is linked to a greater likelihood of experiencing discontinuation symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:According to NICE, paroxetine has a greater likelihood of causing discontinuation symptoms compared to other SSRIs.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient with anorexia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low cortisol
Explanation:Anorexia is marked by prolonged hypercortisolism, with increased levels of free cortisol in both the plasma and CSF. Dexamethasone typically fails to suppress cortisol in individuals with anorexia.
Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
A teenager is referred to you regarding his concern about the appearance of his nose. He complains that it is extremely large and has approached several surgeons in an attempt to get a reduction. Objectively you think his nose is an average size. Which of the following conditions would you suspect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Body Dysmorphic Disorder is a condition where individuals are preoccupied with one of more perceived flaws in their appearance, which may not be noticeable to others. They may feel excessively self-conscious and believe that others are judging them based on these flaws. This can lead to repetitive behaviors such as examining the perceived flaw, attempting to hide of alter it, of avoiding social situations that trigger distress. In contrast, Body Integrity Dysphoria is a rare condition where individuals experience discomfort of negative feelings about a specific body part, often leading to a desire to amputate of remove it, rather than improve its appearance.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
How should the norclozapine ratios be interpreted in therapeutic drug monitoring of clozapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levels taken less than 11 hours after the last dose are likely to result in high ratios
Explanation:It is important to take clozapine levels as trough samples, which means they should be taken 11-13 hours after the last dose. Samples taken outside of this time frame may produce inaccurate results. If the levels are taken too early (before 11 hours), the clozapine levels may be artificially high, resulting in high ratios. Conversely, if the levels are taken too late (after 11 hours), the clozapine levels may be artificially low, resulting in low ratios.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman, who was prescribed venlafaxine for depression, reports that she has stopped having periods and has started lactating. A pregnancy test has ruled out pregnancy. The patient is distressed by these symptoms. As investigations are being conducted, which alternative antidepressant would you recommend switching her to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:The women’s symptoms are indicative of hyperprolactinemia, which is likely caused by venlafaxine. To avoid exacerbating this condition, mirtazapine is the recommended treatment option as it is thought to have no impact on prolactin levels.
Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the diagnosis of PTSD according to the ICD-11 criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The traumatic event must be of a degree that would considered horrific in nature
Explanation:The ICD-11 requires that the traumatic event be of an extremely threatening of horrific nature, which can be experienced directly of indirectly. There is no specific timeframe for when symptoms must occur after the event. To diagnose PTSD, three core elements must be present: re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Flashbacks can range from mild to severe, with mild flashbacks involving a brief sense of the event occurring again and severe flashbacks resulting in a complete loss of awareness of present surroundings.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 60
Incorrect
-
What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines on bulimia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medication should not be offered as the sole treatment for bulimia
Explanation:Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
What is the recommendation of NICE guidelines regarding the use of a certain treatment for depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dosulepin
Explanation:NICE recommends against the use of dosulepin due to the higher risk of cardiac complications and overdose toxicity, which outweigh any potential benefits in terms of tolerability compared to other antidepressants.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder has had four episodes of depression and one episode of hypomania over the past 12 months. What should be used as maintenance therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium monotherapy
Explanation:The patient is experiencing rapid cycling bipolar disorder, which NICE recommends managing similarly to conventional bipolar disorder. Lithium monotherapy is the preferred first-line treatment for long-term management, while valproate should be avoided due to the patient’s potential for childbearing.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 63
Incorrect
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What is the recommended augmentation therapy for psychotic depression when using tricyclic antidepressants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:The recommended options for augmentation are olanzapine and quetiapine.
Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 64
Incorrect
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What is the classification of bulimia nervosa according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vomiting is not necessary for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa
Explanation:To diagnose bulimia, weight reduction methods are necessary, but vomiting is not the only method used. Some individuals with bulimia may opt for laxatives of excessive exercise instead. The SCOFF questionnaire is utilized to screen for both anorexia and bulimia, rather than the CAGE questionnaire.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 40 year old man with schizophrenia and essential hypertension (with a systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg) is admitted to hospital with a relapse in psychotic symptoms. He is currently on aripiprazole and wishes to explore other options. He has previously been tried with haloperidol. Which (if any) of the following would be contraindicated in this scenario?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Although many individuals may choose clozapine as the answer, it is not the correct option. The current recommendation is that clozapine should only be considered after a patient has attempted two prior antipsychotics, with only one of them being an atypical antipsychotic.
Antipsychotics and Hypertension
Clozapine is the antipsychotic that is most commonly linked to hypertension. However, it is important to note that essential hypertension is not a contraindication for any antipsychotic medication. Therefore, no antipsychotics should be avoided in patients with essential hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old lady began experiencing low mood and anhedonia more than a year ago. For the past 6 months, she has been expressing to her doctor that her intestines have ceased functioning and has asked, 'Can you smell how rotten they are?' Her daughter is worried that her mother has lost a considerable amount of weight in the last 4 months and has lost all enthusiasm for life.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Severe depression with psychotic symptoms
Explanation:Based on the symptoms described, the most likely diagnosis is severe depression with psychosis. This is indicated by the nihilistic delusions, which are commonly seen in people with psychotic depression. Late onset schizophrenia is typically associated with persecutory delusions, whereas people with psychotic depression tend to report hypochondriacal and somatic delusions. These findings are supported by research on the clinical approaches to late-onset psychosis (Kim, 2022) and an international consensus on late-onset schizophrenia and schizophrenia-like psychosis (Howard, 2000).
Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of feeling 'on top of the world'. His girlfriend reports him being unusually irritable for the same period of time. He has only been having two hours of sleep each night for the past three nights but despite this says he feels full of energy. On examination he is extremely talkative, and his mood is liable. His girlfriend is concerned as for the past 24 hours he has been buying expensive items which they can't afford and do not need. He is admitted to a psychiatric ward for observation and continues to exhibit these signs for a further two days before he attempts to take his own life. His only psychiatric history is that of a moderate depressive illness six months ago which lasted two months.
Which of the following do you most suspect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar I disorder
Explanation:The individual exhibits symptoms of heightened mood and increased physical activity, indicating a possible episode of mania or hypomania. This presentation persists for a minimum of two weeks and necessitates hospitalization, meeting the criteria for a manic episode and thus a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man repeatedly visits his GP due to distress over his physical appearance. He believes that his ears are too large and this causes him to constantly check his appearance in the mirror and consider ear surgery. Upon examination, there is no obvious physical abnormality of his ears. You determine that his beliefs are overvalued ideas rather than delusional and there is no evidence of depression.
What would be your recommended approach for managing his concerns?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluvoxamine + CBT
Explanation:Referral for surgical correction of the deformity is not advisable as it may not address the underlying issue of non-delusional body dysmorphic disorder and the patient may shift their focus to another body part. Instead, treatment options such as SSRIs, clomipramine, and CBT should be considered. Antipsychotics may be more appropriate for delusional BDD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 69
Incorrect
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What is the recommended therapeutic range for lithium as a prophylactic treatment for bipolar disorder in a young and healthy adult who has recovered from their initial manic episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.6–0.75 mmol/L
Explanation:Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 70
Incorrect
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What is the policy in the UK regarding driving and seizures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A person will still lose their driving licence if they have a seizure due to a change in their medication
Explanation:Epilepsy and Driving Regulations in the UK
If an individual has experienced epileptic seizures while awake and lost consciousness, they can apply for a car of motorbike licence if they haven’t had a seizure for at least a year. However, if the seizure was due to a change in medication, they can apply when the seizure occurred more than six months ago if they are back on their old medication.
In the case of a one-off seizure while awake and lost consciousness, the individual can apply for a licence after six months if there have been no further seizures.
If an individual has experienced seizures while asleep and awake, they may still qualify for a licence if the only seizures in the past three years have been while asleep.
If an individual has only had seizures while asleep, they may qualify for a licence if it has been 12 months of more since their first seizure.
Seizures that do not affect consciousness may still qualify for a licence if the seizures do not involve loss of consciousness and the last seizure occurred at least 12 months ago.
It is important to note that the rules for bus, coach, and lorry licences differ. For these licences, an individual must be seizure-free for 10 years if they have had more than one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication. If they have only had one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication, they must be seizure-free for five years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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