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Question 1
Incorrect
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a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings. Which is the cause for her bleeding?
Your Answer: A cervical polyp
Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
pain and bleeding during or after sex
pain during or after cervical screening
light discharge of mucus
spotting between periods
Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.
Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal mortality?
Your Answer: Sepsis
Correct Answer: Cardiac disease
Explanation:The most common cause of maternal mortality is Cardiovascular deaths due to post partum bleeding followed by hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, sepsis and complications of labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She attained menopause 6 years ago whereas her last vaginal examination 2 years prior, was normal. She now has a palpable mass measuring 8cm in diameter in the left ovarian area. Which is the best next step in her management?
Your Answer: Papanicolaou (Pap) smear and review in six weeks.
Correct Answer: Admission to hospital for early surgical exploration.
Explanation:This lady should be admitted to hospital for early surgical exploration. Taking into account her age, mild abdominal discomfort and a palpable lower abdominal mass, it is imperative that ovarian malignancy be ruled out as soon as possible. Patients with ovarian malignancy often present in advanced stages of cancer as the symptoms tend to be occult and non-specific. Other things to include in her workup would be her CA125 level. Any form of hormonal therapy is contraindicated until ovarian malignancy has been ruled out. A pap smear is not relevant here since we are suspecting an ovarian malignancy rather than cervical. Evaluation of her mass takes priority over an assessment for osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks duration. Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Pregnancy test.
Correct Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.
Explanation:It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).
The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.
In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain. Transvaginal ultrasound finding shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal. Which among the following risk factors is not related to the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Prior deep laceration of cervix
Correct Answer: Alcohol abuse
Explanation:This woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency, is a painless dilation of cervix resulting in the delivery of a live fetus during the 2nd trimester or premature delivery.
The following has been identified as the risk factors associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency:
– Congenital disorders of collagen synthesis like Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
– Prior cone biopsies.
– Prior deep cervical lacerations, which is secondary to vaginal or cesarean delivery.
-Müllerian duct defects like bicornuate or septate uterus.
– More than three prior fetal losses during the 2nd trimesterFrom the given options, alcohol abuse is the only one not associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She complains of a 6 week history of amenorrhoea and on diagnostic testing, has a positive pregnancy test. On past medical history, it is noted that she had a multiload (Cu375) intrauterine device inserted six months ago. On physical examination, The strings of the device are not visibly protruding through the external os, as would be expected. She is happy to proceed with the pregnancy, and asks what should be done next. What is the best next step in her management?
Your Answer: Ultrasound of the pelvis.
Explanation:The best next step is to order an ultrasound of the pelvis to locate the IUCD in the uterine cavity.
Once the device is located, appropriate advice can be given about the pregnancy proceeding.
Uterine sounding and hysteroscopy are contraindicated in the presence of a viable pregnancy due to risks of infection and abortion.
Pelvic X-ray is indicated if the device cannot be located during the pelvic ultrasound. It can show if the device is in the peritoneal cavity or has been expelled from the uterus. It should only be done after the pregnancy.
In cases where the device is in the peritoneal cavity, a laparoscopy is indicated for device removal.
Pregnancy termination is not indicated simply because of the presence of an intrauterine device (IUCD) in the uterus, unless other factors dictate that this is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?
Your Answer: Sacral promontory can not be felt
Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
Explanation:For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?
Your Answer: Internal and Common iliac nodes only
Correct Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation. Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?
Your Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide
Explanation:The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.
For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.
Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true?
Your Answer: Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery
Explanation:Molding allows the skull bones of the fetal head some mobility during the normal delivery of foetus as the skull changes its shape to accommodate passage through the mothers pelvis. However this does not occur in breach delivery where the skull is in circular shape. Babies born breech typically have craniofacial and limb deformations resulting from their in utero position. These babies characteristically have a long, narrow head, (“dolichocephaly” or “type 1”), with a prominent occipital shelf, redundant skin over the neck, overlapping lambdoidal sutures, and an indentation below their ears (from shoulder compression).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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