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  • Question 1 - Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following, EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Abstinence

      Correct Answer: Dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever. With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal. Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer: Uterine leiomyoma

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26 year old lady comes to see you in the antenatal clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old lady comes to see you in the antenatal clinic. She is 8 weeks pregnant and is concerned as she has a new cat and her friend told her she shouldn't be changing cat litter when pregnant. You send bloods which show high IgM for toxoplasmosis gondii. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Spiramycin

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite found in cat faeces, soil or uncooked meat. Infection occurs by ingestion of the parasite from undercooked meat or from unwashed hands. Spiramycin treatment can be used in pregnancy (a 3-week course of 2–3 g per day). This reduces the incidence of transplacental infection but has not been shown to definitively reduce the incidence of clinical congenital disease. If toxoplasmosis is found to be the cause of abnormalities detected on ultrasound scan of the foetus, then termination of pregnancy can be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Continue current treatment for further 6 months

      Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months. The second line options are Gonadotrophins or ovarian drilling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first visit to antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant and bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is the most appropriate advice to give?

      Your Answer: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status

      Explanation:

      For pregnant women who are screened and rubella antibody is not detected, rubella vaccination after pregnancy should be advised. Vaccination during pregnancy is contraindicated because of a theoretical risk that the vaccine itself could be teratogenic, as it is a live vaccine. No cases of congenital rubella syndrome resulting from vaccination during pregnancy have been reported. However, women who are vaccinated postpartum should be advised to use contraception for three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of threatened abortion:

      Your Answer: Bed rest

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Among the following which will not be elevated in the third trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which will not be elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Serum alkaline phosphatase

      Correct Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Normally, there will be a slight raise in prolactin level throughout pregnancy even despite estrogen stimulating and progesterone inhibiting prolactin secretion.

      Serum alkaline phosphatase levels will be increased in pregnancy due to placental ALP.

      During the first trimester of pregnancy there is a physiological mechanism by hCG causing cross-stimulation of the TSH receptors and as a result of this the concentration of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) normally decreases. During second trimester TSH concentration will again return back to its pre-pregnancy levels and then rises slightly by the third trimester. However, most of the changes still occur within the normal non-pregnant range, and the serum free T3 and T4 concentrations remain unchanged throughout pregnancy. But the total concentrations, which include both free and protein-bound fractions, elevates significantly due to an increase in the circulating binding globulins.

      Iron binding capacity reflects transferrin, a protein used for iron transportation, which is a globulin found in the beta band on electrophoresis. To counteract the reduction of plasma iron during pregnancy both transferrin and iron binding capacity are elevated during this period.

      When compared to the non-pregnant level, cortisol levels are been elevated up to three times than normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to...

    Correct

    • You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to finger splinter that has been removed. The HCA took some routine obs that show her blood pressure to be 162/110. She is 32 weeks pregnant. According to the NICE guidelines which of the following is appropriate?

      Your Answer: Admit and start oral labetalol

      Explanation:

      BP over 159/109 is classed as Severe. NICE guidance advises admission and treatment with oral Labetalol as 1st Line. Patient should have BP checked QDS and shouldn’t be discharged until BP is below 159/109

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 18 year old and has yet to begin her period. She stands...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old and has yet to begin her period. She stands at 4'10. She shows no signs of breast development. She has no pubic hair on pelvic examination. The patient has a cervix and uterus, according to digital inspection. The ovaries cannot be felt. Serum FSH and LH levels are drawn as part of the workup, and both are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's delayed puberty and sexual infantilism?

      Your Answer: Gonadal dysgenesis

      Explanation:

      In girls, delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea may be subdivided according to associated changes in stature. If the affected girl is short, the likely causes are gonadal dysgenesis (Turner syndrome) or hypopituitarism (with both gonadotropin and growth hormone deficiency). Gonadal dysgenesis results from the absence of a sex chromosome or other abnormality of a sex chromosome. In affected girls the gonads are streaks of fibrous tissue and contain no follicles, and these girls may have a variety of congenital anomalies, including a webbed neck, a shieldlike chest, or a small jaw.

      Kallmann syndrome presents with amenorrhea, infantile sexual development, low gonadotropins, normal female karyotype, and anosmia (the inability to perceive odours).

      In Müllerian agenesis, the Müllerian ducts either fail to develop or regress early in fetal life. These patients have normal ovarian development and normal secondary sexual characteristics. They present with a blind vaginal pouch and no upper vagina, cervix, or uterus, and primary amenorrhea.

      The McCune-Albright syndrome rather presents with precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder (OAB). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological choice?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Correct Answer: Darifenacin

      Explanation:

      Detrusor overactivity can be treated with anti-cholinergic agents such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, solifenacin, fesoterodine and darifenacin. They are used as first line agents. Imipramine is used for enuresis and desmopressin is used for nocturia.
      NICE pathway

      Prior to initiating anticholinergics:
      Bladder training
      Consider treating vaginal atrophy and nocturia with topical oestrogen and desmopressin respectively before commencing treatments below.
      Consider catheterisation if chronic retention
      1st line treatments:
      1. Oxybutynin (immediate release) – Do not offer to frail elderly patients
      2. Tolterodine (immediate release)
      3. Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
      DO NOT offer any of the 3 drugs below:
      1. Flavoxate
      2. Propantheline
      3. Imipramine
      2nd line treatment
      Consider transdermal anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
      Mirabegron
      Adjuvant Treatments
      Desmopressin can be considered for those with nocturia
      Duloxetine may be considered for those who don’t want/unsuitable for surgical treatment
      Intravaginal oestrogen can be offered to postmenopausal women with OAB

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Clinical Management (1/3) 33%
Passmed