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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients

      The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      129.6
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of anorexia, decreased appetite, night...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of anorexia, decreased appetite, night sweats, and weight loss over the last six months. He has been coughing up phlegm and experiencing occasional fevers for the past month. A chest X-ray reveals a sizable (4.5 cm) cavity in the upper left lobe. What diagnostic test would provide a conclusive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scanning of the chest

      Correct Answer: Sputum sample

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Tuberculosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs. The diagnosis of TB relies on various diagnostic methods. Here are some of the commonly used diagnostic methods for TB:

      Sputum Sample: The examination and culture of sputum or other respiratory tract specimens can help diagnose pulmonary TB. The growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions confirms the diagnosis.

      Blood Cultures: Blood cultures are rarely positive in TB. A probable diagnosis can be based on typical clinical and chest X-ray findings, together with either sputum positive for acid-fast bacilli or typical histopathological findings on biopsy material.

      Computed Tomography (CT) Scanning of the Chest: CT imaging can provide clinical information and be helpful in ascertaining the likelihood of TB, but it will not provide a definitive diagnosis.

      Mantoux Test: The Mantoux test is primarily used to diagnose latent TB. It may be strongly positive in active TB, but it does not give a definitive diagnosis of active TB. False-positive tests can occur with previous Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccination and infection with non-tuberculous mycobacteria. False-negative results can occur in overwhelming TB, immunocompromised, previous TB, and some viral illnesses like measles and chickenpox.

      Serum Inflammatory Markers: Serum inflammatory markers are not specific enough to diagnose TB if raised.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic methods is often used to diagnose TB. The definitive diagnosis requires the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      35.2
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical history of asthma and has been hospitalized in the past due to asthma and two recent cases of pneumonia. On examination, he has bilateral wheeze and a mild fever. His sputum is thick and sticky. Blood tests reveal an ESR of 72 mm/hr (1-10) and elevated IgE levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count. Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count.

      Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      50.9
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year old man is being evaluated by the respiratory team for progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man is being evaluated by the respiratory team for progressive cough and shortness of breath over the last 10 months. He has no history of smoking and is typically healthy. The only notable change in his lifestyle is that he recently started breeding pigeons after retiring. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with interstitial pneumonia.
      What is the most frequently linked organism with interstitial pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bacterial Pneumonia and Their Patterns in the Lung

      Bacterial pneumonia can be caused by various organisms, each with their own unique patterns in the lung. Mycoplasma, viruses like RSV and CMV, and fungal infections like histoplasmosis typically cause interstitial patterns in the lung. Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcus, Escherichia coli, and Klebsiella all typically have the same alveolar pattern, with Klebsiella often causing an aggressive, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of typical bacterial pneumonia, while Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia is typically of the alveolar type and seen in intravenous drug users or patients with underlying debilitating conditions. Mycoplasma pneumonia may also have extra-pulmonary manifestations. These conditions are sometimes referred to as atypical pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      32.1
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  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest X-ray, there are several rounded lesions with alveolar shadowing. Her serum test shows a positive result for cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Pulmonary Granulomas and Positive c-ANCA: A Case Study

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a rare autoimmune disease that often presents with granulomatous lung disease and alveolar capillaritis. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. Chest X-ray and computed tomography can show rounded lesions that may cavitate, while bronchoscopy can reveal granulomatous inflammation. In this case study, the chest radiograph appearances, epistaxis, and positive c-ANCA are more indicative of GPA than lung cancer, echinococcosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, or tuberculosis. While SLE can also cause pulmonary manifestations, cavitating lesions are not typical. Positive c-ANCA is associated with GPA, while SLE is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies, double-stranded DNA antibodies, and extractable nuclear antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      27.5
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident and Emergency with difficulty breathing. On arrival, his saturations were 76% on air, pulse 118 bpm and blood pressure 112/72 mmHg. He was given nebulised bronchodilators and started on 6 litres of oxygen, which improved his saturations up to 96%. He is more comfortable now, but a bit confused.
      What should be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary function testing

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Considerations and Interventions

      When managing a patient with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), it is important to consider various interventions based on the patient’s clinical presentation. In this case, the patient has increased oxygen saturations, which may be contributing to confusion. It is crucial to avoid over-administration of oxygen, as it may worsen breathing function. An arterial blood gas can guide oxygen therapy and help determine the appropriate treatment, such as reducing oxygen concentration or initiating steroid therapy.

      IV aminophylline may be considered if nebulisers and steroids have not been effective, but it is not necessary in this case. Pulmonary function testing is not beneficial in immediate management. Intubation is not currently indicated, as the patient’s confusion is likely due to excessive oxygen administration.

      Antibiotics may be necessary if there is evidence of infection, but in this case, an arterial blood gas is the most important step. Overall, management of acute exacerbation of COPD requires careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and appropriate interventions based on their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      39.5
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
      Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: D-dimer

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus

      Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.

      A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.

      A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.

      A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.

      An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      40.7
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  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
      - WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
      - Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
      - K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
      - AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
      - GGT: 48 U/L (<50)

      The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.

      One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.

      In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      4.9
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  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      pH 7.34 7.35–7.45
      pa(O2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pa(CO2) 7.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      HCO3- 36 mmol 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess +4 mmol −2 to +2 mmol
      What is the best interpretation of this man's ABG results?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Results: A Five-Step Approach

      Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results provide valuable information about a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status. Understanding ABG results requires a systematic approach. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to assessing ABGs.

      Step 1: Assess the patient and their oxygenation status. A pa(O2) level of >10 kPa is considered normal.

      Step 2: Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH <7.35) or alkalotic (pH >7.45).

      Step 3: Evaluate the respiratory component of the acid-base balance. A high pa(CO2) level (>6.0) suggests respiratory acidosis or compensation for metabolic alkalosis, while a low pa(CO2) level (<4.5) suggests respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. Step 4: Evaluate the metabolic component of the acid-base balance. A high bicarbonate (HCO3) level (>26 mmol) suggests metabolic alkalosis or renal compensation for respiratory acidosis, while a low bicarbonate level (<22 mmol) suggests metabolic acidosis or renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. Step 5: Interpret the results in the context of the patient’s clinical history and presentation. It is important to note that ABG results should not be interpreted in isolation. A thorough clinical assessment is necessary to fully understand a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29.6
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  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists in the Emergency Department, but he is not short of breath. There is no past medical history of note. Observations are recorded:
      temperature 36.6 °C
      heart rate (HR) 90 bpm
      blood pressure (BP) 115/80 mmHg
      respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/minute
      oxygen saturation (SaO2) 99%.
      A chest X-ray reveals a 1.5 cm sliver of air in the pleural space of the right lung.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation

      Correct Answer: Consider prescribing analgesia and discharge home with information and advice

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Primary Pneumothorax

      Primary pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Here are some management options for primary pneumothorax:

      Prescribe analgesia and discharge home with information and advice: This option can be considered if the patient is not breathless and has only a small defect. The patient can be discharged with pain relief medication and given information and advice on how to manage the condition at home.

      Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation: This option is not indicated for a patient with primary pneumothorax, as a trial of salbutamol is not effective in treating this condition.

      Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe: This option should only be attempted if the patient has a rim of air of >2 cm on the chest X-ray or is breathless. Aspiration can be attempted twice at a maximum, after which a chest drain should be inserted.

      Insert a chest drain: This option should be done if the second attempt of aspiration is unsuccessful. Once air has stopped leaking, the drain should be left in for a further 24 hours prior to removal and discharge.

      Insert a 16G cannula into the second intercostal space: This option is used for tension pneumothoraces and is not indicated for primary pneumothorax.

      In conclusion, the management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. It is important to choose the appropriate management option to ensure the best outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      58
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (3/10) 30%
Passmed