00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic...

    Correct

    • A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic heart failure (NYHA class II) presents for a check-up. Their diabetes is currently managed through diet, but their HbA1c has increased to 64 mmol/mol (8.0%). Which of the following medications should be avoided due to contraindication?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management of medications. Some medications can exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should be used with caution. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can also cause fluid retention and should be used with caution. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect and should be avoided. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and to carefully consider their use in patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most frequent ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, typically seen in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, typically seen in patients of all ages?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of keratoconjunctivitis sicca include a sensation of dryness, burning, and grittiness in the eyes, which is caused by a reduction in the production of tears.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.

      The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.

      In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.

      Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement disorder. Various scans have been ordered to aid in the assessment. The scan results are as follows: MRI head shows normal age-related changes, while the SPECT scan reveals decreased dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. Based on this information, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain, leading to a range of symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is a common example, which affects the basal ganglia and causes movement disorders such as bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, tremor, and postural instability. Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is associated with atrophy of the medial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex, but does not typically involve movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily affects the striatum, leading to a loss of striatal volume and the characteristic symptom of chorea – jerky, uncontrollable limb movements. Multi-system atrophy is a rare condition that affects both the basal ganglia and cerebellum, leading to autonomic dysfunction, ataxia, and Parkinsonism, but cognitive impairment is not typically seen.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Sophie is a premature baby (28 weeks) who was born 3 weeks ago....

    Correct

    • Sophie is a premature baby (28 weeks) who was born 3 weeks ago. During the past week, she has been experiencing bloody stools, abdominal distension, and poor feeding. Upon physical examination, there is an increase in abdominal size with decreased bowel sounds. An abdominal X-ray reveals asymmetrical bowel loops that are dilated and have bowel wall oedema. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation...

    Correct

    • A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation of rotation and extension at the affected hip joint, and a radiograph shows a dense flattened and fragmented femoral head on the affected side.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perthes' disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ Disease: Avascular Necrosis of the Proximal Femoral Head in Children

      Perthes’ disease is a condition that results from avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head, which is caused by a compromised blood supply. It typically affects children aged 4-10, with boys being affected more frequently than girls. The disease presents with a painless limp and limited range of motion of the affected hip, followed by hip pain as necrosis develops.

      The diagnosis of Perthes’ disease is suspected clinically, and radiographs may be normal initially or show only a non-specific effusion. As the condition progresses, the joint space between the ossified femoral head and acetabulum widens, and narrowing or collapse of the femoral head causes it to appear widened and flattened. Eventually, femoral head collapse may ensue.

      Other conditions that may present similarly to Perthes’ disease include slipped upper femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and congenital dislocation of the hip. However, each of these conditions has its own unique features and diagnostic criteria.

      Overall, Perthes’ disease is a generalised disorder of cartilage development that predisposes children to repeated episodes of infarction in the proximal femoral epiphysis. The most significant factors determining prognosis are onset in the older child, epiphyseal protrusion, extensive involvement of the epiphysis, and arrest of subcapital growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a complaint of difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a complaint of difficulty sleeping due to a blocked nose at night. She uses inhalers regularly for wheezing during cold weather and experiences a cough at night. What is the most common complication of her underlying diagnosis that she may be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Nasal Polyps

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps and Associated Conditions

      Nasal polyps are a common condition that can cause a blocked nose, interrupting sleep and wheezing upon exertion. They are often associated with asthma, which is found along the atopic spectrum of diseases. Other conditions commonly associated with nasal polyps include allergic rhinitis and sinusitis.

      Allergic fungal sinusitis is another condition that can cause nasal polyps, but it is more commonly found in warmer climates and is not the most common cause in the United Kingdom. Paracetamol sensitivity is not associated with nasal polyps, but aspirin sensitivity is and can be part of Samter’s triad if the patient also has asthma.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is not associated with nasal polyps, and it would be rare to see in a young patient unless there was underlying alpha-1 anti-trypsin disease. COPD is most commonly seen in long-term smokers and presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath and a longstanding cough.

      Diabetes mellitus is not associated with nasal polyps and would present with other symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue. Understanding the conditions associated with nasal polyps can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man presents to you with right wrist discomfort three weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to you with right wrist discomfort three weeks after falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched hand. He went to the emergency department on the same day and had wrist x-rays, which were reported as normal. He was given pain relief and discharged without any follow-up.

      Currently, he is experiencing persistent pain that has not improved. On examination, the wrist appears normal, with no significant swelling or redness. The wrist's range of motion is slightly limited, likely due to pain. He is tender over the anatomical snuff box. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Refer to hospital for urgent orthopaedic/emergency department review

      Explanation:

      The presentation and examination strongly suggest a scaphoid fracture, making conservative treatment with splinting, pain relief, and physiotherapy unsuitable due to the risk of avascular necrosis caused by the scaphoid bone’s blood supply. While an outpatient x-ray is an option, some scaphoid fractures may not be visible on x-rays and may require a CT scan or MRI. As a result, the patient should be referred to an orthopaedic clinic, either directly or through the local emergency department.

      Anatomy of the Scaphoid Bone

      The scaphoid bone is a small bone located in the wrist. It has several important features that allow it to articulate with other bones in the wrist and hand. The bone has a concave surface that articulates with the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface that corresponds with the lunate. Proximally, it has a wide convex surface that articulates with the radius. Distally, it has a tubercle that can be felt and an articular surface that faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones.

      The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum, which is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis. It is important to understand the anatomy of the scaphoid bone in order to properly diagnose and treat injuries to the wrist and hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman presented with worsening pains in the small joints of both...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presented with worsening pains in the small joints of both her feet with swelling and redness. She experienced stiffness which was worse in the morning. She was initially started on oral prednisolone with a proton-pump inhibitor whilst awaiting a specialist review from a rheumatologist. After seeing the specialist who performed blood tests and x-rays on her feet she was started on a new medication called hydroxychloroquine.
      What serious side effects does the specialist need to counsel the patient on when starting this new medication?

      Your Answer: Stevens–Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine, a drug used to prevent and treat malaria, is now commonly included in treatment guidelines for conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and porphyria cutanea tarda. However, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential severe and permanent retinopathy that can result from chronic use of the drug. The mechanism behind this adverse effect is uncertain, but it can lead to permanent visual loss. To prevent eye toxicity, the daily safe maximum dose of hydroxychloroquine can be estimated based on the patient’s height and weight.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old presents to his General Practitioner with a 2-month history of pain...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old presents to his General Practitioner with a 2-month history of pain in his right elbow. His GP suspects that the patient has lateral epicondylitis.
      What examination findings would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pain worse on resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Common Elbow Pain Symptoms and Their Features

      Elbow pain can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some common elbow pain symptoms and their features:

      1. Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow)
      – Pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle
      – Pain worsens on resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended
      – Episodes typically last between six months and two years; patients tend to have acute pain for 6-12 weeks
      – Pain aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation

      2. Medial Epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow)
      – Pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle
      – Pain aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation
      – Symptoms may be accompanied by numbness/tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers due to ulnar-nerve involvement

      3. Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
      – Initially intermittent tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers
      – Pain worsens when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods
      – Later numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers with associated weakness

      4. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
      – Pain worsens when the wrists are in complete flexion for at least 30 seconds
      – The Phalen test is done to investigate its presence

      5. Olecranon Bursitis
      – Swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow with associated pain, warmth, and erythema
      – Typically affects middle-aged male patients

      Understanding Common Symptoms of Elbow Pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with painful red eyes and blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with painful red eyes and blurred vision. Upon examination, the eye appears red and tender with decreased visual acuity. There is no inflammation or discharge from the eyelids, and the anterior chamber is normal. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis but is currently not receiving treatment. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Blepharitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the margins of the eyelids, typically caused by the growth of eyelashes inwards. Symptoms include discomfort, redness, and dryness of the eyes, but no visual impairment. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary if suspected. Treatment involves conservative measures such as regular eye care using warm compresses.

      Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Patients may also experience watering and photophobia, as well as a gradual decrease in vision.

      Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease. With proper treatment, most patients with scleritis can achieve relief from their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old woman complains of experiencing pain during sexual intercourse with her partner...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of experiencing pain during sexual intercourse with her partner for the past year. She denies any discharge but mentions that her vagina feels dry and sore frequently. She has attempted to alleviate the soreness by using vaginal moisturisers and lubricants, which she believes have provided some relief. During the examination, the vagina appears dry and pale. What is the most appropriate treatment method for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Post-menopausal women often experience atrophic vaginitis, which is characterized by symptoms such as vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, and occasional spotting. During examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. Treatment options include the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these prove ineffective, topical oestrogen cream may be prescribed.

      Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      245
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A mother brings her 10-month-old child to surgery, worried that he is not...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old child to surgery, worried that he is not meeting developmental milestones compared to her friends' children. Upon observation, the child is able to sit without support but shows minimal interest in exploring his surroundings. He has a basic pincer grip, seems hesitant to engage with others, and only says mama. How would you describe his developmental progress?

      Your Answer: Isolated delay in fine motor skills

      Correct Answer: Normal development

      Explanation:

      Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes

      Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.

      It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women? ...

    Correct

    • In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Most Common Cancers in Women in the UK

      Breast cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in women in the UK, with approximately 54,800 cases in 2014. Lung cancer follows as the second most common cancer in women, with around 21,600 cases diagnosed in the same year. Bowel cancer ranks third, with approximately 18,400 cases diagnosed in 2014. Uterine cancer is the fourth most common cancer in women, with around 9,300 cases diagnosed. Leukaemia is the eleventh most common cancer in women, with approximately 3,800 cases diagnosed in 2014. These statistics are according to Cancer Research UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old footballer presents with persistent pain in his left knee that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old footballer presents with persistent pain in his left knee that began abruptly during a game. During the physical examination, you instruct the patient to lie down and flex his knee. As you internally rotate his foot, he experiences discomfort and you detect a clicking sensation. The patient inquires about the procedure, and you clarify that you are performing McMurray's test, a specialized examination for knee joint issues. What is the probable reason for his knee pain?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament tear

      Correct Answer: Meniscal tear

      Explanation:

      A positive McMurray test is indicative of a meniscal tear, which is typically caused by twisting of the knee. During the test, the knee is flexed while the sole of the foot is held, and one hand is placed on the medial side of the knee to pull it towards a varus position. The other hand is used to internally rotate the leg while extending the knee. If the patient experiences pain or a clicking sensation, the test is considered positive. On the other hand, a positive draw test is a sign of an anterior cruciate ligament tear, which is also commonly caused by twisting of the knee.

      Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of various neurological symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of various neurological symptoms that have persisted for the past few weeks. The doctor suspects that he may be experiencing idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).
      What is the primary symptom associated with IIH?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Clinical Features of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that presents with non-specific complaints, making it difficult to diagnose. However, there are several clinical features that can help identify the condition. The most common symptom is a severe daily headache, often described as pulsatile, that may be associated with nausea and vomiting. Other symptoms include pulse-synchronous tinnitus, transient visual obscurations, visual loss, neck and back pain, diplopia, and photophobia. IIH can occur in any age group but is most commonly seen in women of childbearing age. Horizontal diplopia occurs in about 33% of patients with IIH, while hearing loss is a rare presentation. Tinnitus is described by two-thirds of patients, with pulse-synchronous tinnitus being a relatively specific symptom for elevated intracranial pressure. By understanding these clinical features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage IIH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old male patient comes in for mole removal. Which areas of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient comes in for mole removal. Which areas of the body are more prone to developing keloid scars?

      Your Answer: Scalp

      Correct Answer: Sternum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keloid Scars

      Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.

      To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.

      It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past two months. During examination, she appears to be anaemic.
      What is the most probable vitamin deficiency causing her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Vegan Nutrition: Understanding the Availability of Vitamins

      As a vegan, it is important to understand the availability of vitamins in your diet. One vitamin that vegans are at risk of deficiency in is vitamin B12, which is primarily found in animal products such as meat, fish, eggs, and milk. However, there are vegan-friendly sources of vitamin B12 such as fortified cereals and plant-based milks.

      Contrary to popular belief, vitamin B6, vitamin A, vitamin B1, and vitamin C are all readily available in vegan-friendly foods. Vitamin B6 can be found in bread, whole grains, vegetables, peanuts, and potatoes. Vitamin A can be found in yellow, red, and green vegetables as well as yellow fruits. Vitamin B1 can be found in peas, fruit, whole grain bread, and fortified cereals. Vitamin C is predominantly found in fruits and vegetables such as oranges, peppers, strawberries, broccoli, potatoes, and Brussels sprouts.

      By understanding the availability of vitamins in vegan-friendly foods, vegans can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs and maintaining a healthy diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort. She also reports unintentional weight loss over the past four months. However, she denies any rectal bleeding or fatigue and has no significant family history.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Take urgent bloods and follow up in two weeks

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to the colorectal services

      Explanation:

      Referral for Investigation of Colorectal Cancer with a 2-Week Wait

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients aged 40 or over who present with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain should be referred for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait. Other criteria for a 2-week wait referral include patients with unexplained rectal bleeding, iron-deficiency anaemia, change in bowel habit, positive faecal occult blood tests, rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, and patients under 50 years with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss or iron-deficiency anaemia.

      Doing nothing and just following up with the patient, prescribing analgesia and following up in one month, referring the patient routinely, or taking urgent bloods and following up in two weeks would not be appropriate in the presence of red-flag symptoms and can create a serious delay in diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, referral for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait is the recommended course of action. However, taking urgent bloods and following up the patient in two weeks can still be done while the patient is waiting for the referral appointment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      30183.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old female patient presents to her GP with worries regarding her medication....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient presents to her GP with worries regarding her medication. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 2 years ago and is currently on azathioprine 120mg/day, divided into doses. She recently took a home pregnancy test which came back positive. What is the most appropriate approach to managing her medication?

      Your Answer: Continue azathioprine

      Explanation:

      It is safe to continue using azathioprine during pregnancy, even if on an established dose. Discontinuing or reducing the medication could lead to disease progression and serious health risks for the patient. Therefore, the dose of azathioprine should not be lowered. Switching to corticosteroids would not be appropriate as the patient is already on a safe medication. Infliximab should only be used if necessary during pregnancy, so continuing with azathioprine is a better option. Methotrexate should never be used during pregnancy as it is known to be teratogenic.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      104.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of recurring episodes of vertigo accompanied by a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of recurring episodes of vertigo accompanied by a sensation of 'fullness' and 'pressure' in her ears. She believes her hearing is impaired during these episodes. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meniere’s Disease

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The most prominent symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Other symptoms include a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease shows that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients are left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. To manage the condition, an ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis. Patients should inform the DVLA, and the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. During acute attacks, buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine may be administered, and admission to the hospital may be required. To prevent future attacks, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises may be of benefit.

      In summary, Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and can cause recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. While the cause is unknown, there are management strategies available to help control symptoms and prevent future attacks. It is important for patients to seek medical attention and inform the DVLA to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      108
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?

      Your Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      955.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old female is admitted to the Medical Admissions Unit with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female is admitted to the Medical Admissions Unit with symptoms of neck stiffness, photophobia, and fever. No rash is present, and her GCS is 15. Upon lumbar puncture, her CSF shows increased opening pressure and turbidity, with a raised white cell count and low glucose. Ceftriaxone is initiated, but what additional treatment is necessary to enhance outcomes?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation and CSF results strongly suggest bacterial meningitis, for which appropriate antibiotic therapy has been initiated. To improve neurological outcomes and reduce the risk of sequelae such as deafness, dexamethasone is the recommended additional treatment. However, it should be noted that dexamethasone is contraindicated in cases of septic shock or meningococcal septicaemia. Antivirals such as aciclovir are not indicated in bacterial meningitis, while fluconazole, an anti-fungal, is also not appropriate. Prednisolone has no role in the treatment of meningitis.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 54-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of fatty liver disease presents at...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of fatty liver disease presents at the clinic. During a liver screen to determine the cause of his condition, his hepatitis B serology is tested and the results are as follows:
      - HBsAg: Negative
      - HBcAg: Negative
      - Anti-HBs IgG: Positive
      - Anti-HBc IgG: Positive

      What is his hepatitis B status?

      Your Answer: Immunised

      Correct Answer: Cleared previous infection

      Explanation:

      To determine a patient’s immune status for Hepatitis B, a systematic approach is necessary. First, antigenic results are examined to determine if the virus is present, followed by antibody results to assess the body’s response to the virus. In this case, negative results for both HBsAg and HBcAg indicate no active infection, while the presence of antibodies to both antigens suggests a previous infection that has been cleared, resulting in immunity.

      In acute infection, both HBsAg and HBcAg are positive, with a limited antibody response. Chronic infection is characterized by ongoing viral infection and an inadequate immune response, resulting in the virus not being cleared. Immunization exposes the immune system to purified viral protein, resulting in the production of anti-HBs antibodies and conferring some immunity.

      To distinguish between immunization and previous infection, the absence of anti-HBc antibodies indicates immunization, as there are no viral antigens present. If an individual has never been exposed to any Hepatitis B antigens, all serology tests would be negative.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal scan of the presence of echogenic bowel in the male fetus. They had been trying to conceive unsuccessfully for three years until investigations revealed oligospermia and this pregnancy was a result of intrauterine insemination. Both parents are aged 35 years old. The father has had several episodes of upper respiratory tract infections that have required antibiotics and he has been admitted to hospital in the past with acute gastritis. The mother is fit and well without any significant past medical history.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Testing for the CFTR gene mutation in both parents

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic condition that requires two copies of a faulty CFTR gene, one from each parent. If symptoms are present, it is important to confirm the diagnosis in the father and determine if the mother is a carrier of the faulty gene before pursuing further testing. While a sweat test can diagnose CF in the father, it cannot determine carrier status in the mother. Invasive procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling should only be performed if there is strong suspicion of a chromosomal or genetic abnormality, and less invasive genetic testing of both parents should be considered first. Karyotyping is not a useful diagnostic tool for CF, as it only detects chromosomal abnormalities and not genetic ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 85-year-old woman presents with a history of falls. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman presents with a history of falls. She has a medical history of osteoporosis, constipation, frequent urinary tract infections, ischaemic heart disease, and urge incontinence. Upon conducting a comprehensive assessment, you determine that her falls are likely due to a combination of physical frailty, poor balance, and medication burden. Which medication should be discontinued first?

      Your Answer: Alendronic acid

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      To avoid the risk of falls, it is not recommended to administer oxybutynin to frail elderly individuals. Instead, safer alternatives such as solifenacin and tolterodine should be considered. Mirabegron, a newer medication, may also be a viable option as it is believed to have fewer anti-cholinergic side effects. Discontinuing laxatives may not be helpful if the patient is still experiencing constipation. However, prescribing alendronic acid for osteoporosis and aspirin for ischaemic heart disease is appropriate given the patient’s medical history and risk of falls. While the use of trimethoprim as long-term prophylaxis for urinary tract infections is controversial, it should not be the first intervention to be discontinued.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 53-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of left-sided arm and facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of left-sided arm and facial weakness that started while he was watching TV for 5 hours. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, there is a significant motor weakness in his left arm with no effortful muscle contractions. Sensation to pain and light touch is reduced, and he has a left-sided facial droop. A CT scan of his head shows a hypodense lesion in the area of the right anterior cerebral artery. What is the recommended definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Thrombectomy

      Explanation:

      The recommended target time for thrombectomy in acute ischaemic stroke is within 6 hours of symptom onset.

      Thrombectomy is the preferred treatment for this patient who has presented with symptoms of left-sided paralysis and paraesthesia, along with vascular risk factors and confirmatory CT imaging indicating an ischaemic stroke. While aspirin may be given initially, thrombectomy is the most definitive treatment option within the 6-hour timeframe. Clopidogrel is used for secondary prevention, and thrombolysis is only indicated within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, making them incorrect choices for this patient.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      174.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He was prescribed medication but a few days later he complained of stomach cramps and loose stools.
      Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Common Oral Diabetic Medications

      Managing diabetes often involves the use of oral medications to help control blood sugar levels. However, these medications can come with side effects that need to be considered when choosing a treatment plan. Here are some common side effects of four oral diabetic medications:

      Metformin: The most common side effects of metformin are abdominal pain, anorexia, diarrhea, nausea, taste disturbance, and vomiting. There is also a risk of developing lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with a history of heart failure and concomitant use of drugs that can acutely impair renal function.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a less likely option due to its potential to exacerbate diabetes and cause hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in certain patients. It can also cause urinary retention in patients with enlarged prostates.

      Gliclazide: Gliclazide can encourage weight gain and may cause hypoglycemia if the dosage is excessive.

      Pioglitazone: Pioglitazone should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease or in combination with insulin due to an increased risk of heart failure, particularly in elderly people.

      It is important to be familiar with these side effects to ensure patient compliance with medication and to choose the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      200.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C infection attends for...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C infection attends for review. There is a past history of intravenous heroin abuse and alcoholism. He has been feeling progressively more unwell over the past six months, with weight loss and worsening ascites. He is on long-term sick leave and has been closely monitored by his live-in partner, who maintains that there has been no further drug abuse or consumption of alcohol.
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Chronic active hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Worsening Ascites

      Worsening ascites can be a sign of various underlying conditions. One possible diagnosis is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), which is a primary malignancy of the liver that often occurs in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. Another possible diagnosis is chronic active hepatitis, which is caused by the hepatitis C virus and can result in joint and muscle pain, nausea, and exhaustion. Superimposed hepatitis B infection can also cause liver injury and jaundice. Alcoholism, which can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, is another possible diagnosis, but it is not consistent with the clinical scenario given if there has been no further alcohol consumption. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is an acute bacterial infection of ascitic fluid that can cause fever, abdominal pain, and other symptoms. It is important to consider these and other possible diagnoses when evaluating a patient with worsening ascites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      4495.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack. She complains of feeling down, having difficulty concentrating, and loss of appetite since the incident. She attempted online cognitive behavioural therapy but it did not help. She feels that life has lost its meaning and that she is a burden to her family. You decide to initiate treatment with an SSRI. Which medication would be the most suitable to begin with?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      After a myocardial infarction, Sertraline is the preferred SSRI due to its extensive research in this patient population compared to other SSRIs. It is important to note that the patient may also be taking antiplatelets and should be cautioned about the potential for dyspepsia and gastrointestinal bleeding. Co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor should be considered.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and an ECG showing anterolateral T wave inversion. Her troponin I level at 12 hours is 300 ng/L (reference range < 50 ng/L). She is managed conservatively and discharged on aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and ramipril. What is the appropriate use of ticagrelor in this case?

      Your Answer: Is only given if aspirin is contraindicated

      Correct Answer: Should be prescribed for the next 12 months for all patients

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      92.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office....

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office. She reports that for the past two weeks, the baby has been experiencing poor feeding, with intermittent rapid breathing, wheezing, and sweating. Additionally, the baby's weight has dropped off the initial centile. During the examination, the pediatrician discovers hepatomegaly.
      What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Congestive heart failure

      Explanation:

      The neonate is displaying signs of heart failure, which may be caused by structural heart disease. Symptoms of heart failure in neonates include difficulty feeding, breathing problems, and an enlarged liver. Asthma is not typically diagnosed in this age group, and acute liver failure is rare and usually presents with growth issues and blood clotting problems. Viral wheezing is uncommon in neonates, and the poor feeding and weight loss suggest heart failure as the likely cause.

      How Congenital Heart Disease Presents

      Congenital heart disease can manifest in various ways. One of the earliest signs may be detected during the antenatal period when imaging of the heart is performed as part of the 18-20 week fetal anomaly scan. A murmur may also be detected during the routine newborn examination. Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, may also be present. In some cases, heart failure may occur, which can be characterized by poor feeding, shortness of breath, sweating, and hepatomegaly. It is important to be aware of these presentations in order to promptly diagnose and manage congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 40 year old male is brought to the Emergency Department following a...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old male is brought to the Emergency Department following a severe beating. Upon arrival, his eyes are shut and only open in response to pain. He emits a single groan and withdraws from painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The GCS score for this patient is 654, which can be remembered as MoVE. This scoring system assesses the patient’s level of consciousness by evaluating their eye opening, verbal response, and motor function. In this case, the patient’s eyes are closed but will open in response to pain, earning a score of 2 out of 4. The patient is unable to speak but makes a groaning sound, earning a score of 2 out of 5. The patient also flexes in response to pain, earning a score of 4 out of 6. GCS scores are regularly monitored in patients with head injuries to detect any changes in their neurological status, which could indicate swelling or bleeding.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      107.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath. She states that this occurred while walking up a flight of stairs and stopped once she sat down. The patient states that over the past few months she has been progressively unable to climb stairs due to shortness of breath and occasional central chest heaviness which occur when she starts climbing. She has a past medical history of diabetes and smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
      Her parameters are stable, with oxygen saturations of 97%, blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and heart rate of 90 bpm. A chest X-ray is done which comes back as normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Angina pectoris

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Chest Pain: Angina Pectoris, Anxiety Attack, COPD Exacerbation, Pneumothorax, and Unstable Angina

      Chest pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions, and it is crucial to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest angina pectoris, which is characterized by constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, triggered by physical exertion and relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). However, diabetic patients may present with dyspnea instead of typical anginal pain. The patient’s cardiovascular risk factors, including diabetes, smoking, and hypertension, further support the diagnosis of angina.

      Anxiety attacks can also cause chest pain, along with palpitations, nausea, vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremors, and urinary frequency. Therefore, anxiety should be considered as a possible diagnosis after ruling out life-threatening conditions such as ischemic heart disease.

      Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is another potential cause of chest pain, especially in smokers. However, the absence of a known COPD diagnosis and normal oxygen saturation levels make this diagnosis less likely in this case.

      Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung, can also cause chest pain, but a normal chest X-ray makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Finally, unstable angina is a severe form of angina that can occur unexpectedly and at rest, lasting longer than stable angina and not relieved by rest. It requires emergency treatment as it can quickly progress to a heart attack. However, in this case, the patient’s symptoms occur during exercise and resolve with rest, suggesting stable angina rather than unstable angina.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for chest pain includes angina pectoris, anxiety attack, COPD exacerbation, pneumothorax, and unstable angina. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, risk factors, and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3252.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 42-year-old man is brought in by ambulance after falling off a 6-foot...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought in by ambulance after falling off a 6-foot ladder and hitting his head. He has a deep laceration to the lateral left knee and is being kept overnight for observations. An x-ray of the left leg shows no fractures. He has a history of hypercholesterolemia.

      During the night, he is using the maximum dose of prescribed PRN morphine due to pain in his left leg. The doctor is called to review the patient and on examination, there is reduced sensation on the medial aspect of the plantar left foot.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve injury

      Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is the likely diagnosis in this case, as excessive use of breakthrough analgesia and a history of trauma followed by lower limb pain should raise suspicion. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure builds up in a compartment due to oedema and blood, resulting in venous compression and compromised transferring nerves. In this case, the patient’s medial plantar nerve has been compromised, leading to reduced sensation in the medial aspect of the plantar foot and paresthesia. The fact that the patient is using the maximum dose of PRN morphine should raise clinical suspicion of compartment syndrome, as it can be extremely painful. Pallor is a late sign, and x-rays may not show any findings in the context of compartment syndrome.

      Acute limb ischaemia is an unlikely diagnosis, as the usual presenting complaint is pain with associated pallor from reduced arterial perfusion, which is not present in this case. Common peroneal nerve injury is also unlikely, as this nerve supplies the dorsum and lateral aspects of the foot, whereas the medial plantar nerve has been compromised in this case. Posttraumatic osteomyelitis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents more than 48 hours after the trauma, and the loss of sensation in the medial aspect of the plantar foot cannot be explained by this condition.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18771.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at...

    Correct

    • You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at 30 weeks) and has recently been discharged from hospital after being admitted for 'breathing difficulties'. During the hospital stay, the baby received an injection called palivizumab, but the mother cannot remember the purpose of this medication. Can you explain the medication and its indication?

      Your Answer: Monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

      Explanation:

      To prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children who are at a higher risk of severe disease, palivizumab, a monoclonal antibody, is administered. Infants who are premature, have lung or heart abnormalities, or are immunocompromised are among those at risk of developing RSV.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in his hearing ability over the past few months. His wife urged him to seek medical attention as she noticed he was having difficulty hearing conversations and needed to turn up the volume on the TV and radio. Upon examination, otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. The Rinne's test is positive bilaterally, and the Weber test is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Presbycusis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age-related changes, tumors, infections, and genetic conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between some of the most common causes of hearing loss:

      Presbycusis: This is age-related hearing loss that affects high-frequency sounds and is irreversible. Management includes reassurance and discussion of hearing aid options.

      Acoustic Neuroma: This is a benign tumor of the vestibulocochlear nerve that can cause unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss, as well as facial numbness and balance problems. Bilateral hearing loss without other symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Cholesteatoma: This condition is characterized by recurrent or persistent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Otoscopy may reveal a deep retraction pocket or pearly white mass behind the intact tympanic membrane. This patient has sensorineural rather than conductive hearing loss.

      Ménière’s Disease: This condition typically presents with fluctuating hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. This patient does not have all the symptoms to meet the criteria for this diagnosis.

      Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that typically occurs in early adulthood and may be accompanied by tinnitus and transient vertigo. Sensorineural hearing loss in an older patient makes this diagnosis unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 61-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine health check. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine health check. He has a medical history of asthma and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His most recent HbA1c is 56 mmol/mol (7.3%). During the check-up, his blood pressure is measured at 160/80 mmHg. Subsequently, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is conducted, which shows an average daytime blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. What is the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of hypertension in diabetic patients, the first-line medication should be ACE inhibitors such as ramipril. However, this may not be suitable for individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent or women who may become pregnant. In case of a cough developing with ACE inhibitors, an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist like losartan should be prescribed. If the patient is not diabetic, calcium channel blockers like amlodipine or diuretics such as indapamide would be the preferred initial treatment. Beta blockers like propranolol are not typically the first choice for hypertension treatment, but may be considered for young patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or women attempting to conceive.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.

      NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.

      ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.

      Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old teacher who recently returned after completing a 3-month assignment in Thailand presented to the Emergency Department with fever, headache, confusion and vomiting in the last two days. She was suspected of having meningitis and underwent a lumbar puncture (LP). The LP findings are as follows:
      Normal opening pressure, clear cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
      Investigation Result Normal value
      CSF white blood cell count (WBC) 400 cells/µl, 70% lymphocytes < 5 cells/µl
      CSF protein 0.5 g/l 0.15–0.4 g/l
      CSF glucose 3.8 mmol/l 2.6–4.5 mmol/l
      CSF–plasma-glucose ratio 0.72 ≥ 0.66
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings can help diagnose different types of meningitis. Viral meningitis typically shows clear CSF with a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-1000 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), mildly elevated protein levels, and a normal or slightly low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Bacterial meningitis, on the other hand, often presents with turbid CSF, a high white blood cell count (>100 cells/µl, mostly neutrophils), elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Fungal meningitis, such as cryptococcal meningitis, usually shows clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), elevated protein levels, and a low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents with clear or cloudy CSF, a slightly elevated white blood cell count (5-100 cells/µl, mostly lymphocytes), significantly elevated protein levels, and a very low CSF-to-plasma-glucose ratio. A sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, which is not meningitis, typically presents with a sudden, severe headache and signs of increased intracranial pressure. The CSF in this case often shows xanthochromia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      123.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing chest pain. He is diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome and iron-deficiency anemia. A percutaneous coronary intervention is performed, and a coronary artery stent is inserted. Endoscopies of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract are performed and reported as normal. Upon discharge, he is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, lansoprazole, simvastatin, and ferrous sulfate in addition to his regular levothyroxine. Six weeks later, he reports feeling constantly fatigued to his GP, who orders routine blood tests. The results show a TSH level of 8.2 mu/l, which is elevated compared to the patient's previous two years of TSH levels within range. Which of the newly prescribed drugs is most likely responsible for the raised TSH?

      Your Answer: Ferrous sulphate

      Explanation:

      To avoid reduced absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be administered four hours apart.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      11132
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, and despite attempting lifestyle changes, his HbA1c remains at 56 mmol/mol. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
      Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 50-year-old man who is on antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia complains of extreme...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man who is on antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia complains of extreme restlessness. Which side-effect of the medication could be causing this?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Severe restlessness may be caused by antipsychotics, known as akathisia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports that she has a 2-year history of progressive memory impairment (especially for recent events), worsening apathy and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. She scores 22/30 on the Mini-Mental State Examination. Her BP is 140/90, and pulse 70 and regular. She is a non-smoker. She takes medication for hypertension.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia

      Dementia is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, accounting for over 60% of cases. It typically starts with memory impairment, particularly affecting recent events, and gradually progresses to language and visuospatial dysfunction, apathy, and behavioural problems.

      Vascular dementia is the second most common type of dementia, and it is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease. Depression can also cause memory impairment and apathy, but the characteristic pattern of memory disturbance seen in Alzheimer’s disease makes it a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      Mild cognitive impairment is a condition where memory impairment is present, but other cognitive domains and activities of daily living are preserved. It is estimated that between 5 and 20% of people over 65 have MCI, and about 30% of them will develop dementia within two years.

      Lewy-body dementia is another type of dementia that accounts for about 20% of cases. It typically presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations, which are not present in this vignette.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristic features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Sarah, 35, has come to her doctor complaining of weakness on the left...

    Correct

    • Sarah, 35, has come to her doctor complaining of weakness on the left side of her face, which is confirmed upon examination. Sarah also reports experiencing ear pain and an otoscopy reveals vesicles on her tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this case is Ramsay Hunt syndrome. This syndrome occurs when the Varicella Zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion, leading to the appearance of vesicles on the tympanic membrane, as well as other symptoms such as facial paralysis, taste loss, dry eyes, tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss. While Bell’s palsy could explain the facial weakness, the presence of tympanic vesicles and ear pain make this diagnosis less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia is unlikely to cause facial weakness, although it could explain the pain. An acoustic neuroma could explain both the facial weakness and ear pain, but the absence of tympanic vesicles makes this diagnosis less probable.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 10.0 g/dl and a white cell count of 23 Ă— 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Characteristics and Symptoms

      Leukaemia and lymphoma are both types of blood cancer, but they have distinct characteristics and symptoms. In this context, we will discuss the characteristics and symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL), and multiple myeloma (MM).

      CLL is the most common leukaemia in adults, characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients are often asymptomatic, and CLL is often picked up incidentally.

      ALL is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults.

      CML tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group. A classic symptom is a massive hepatosplenomegaly. Blood film would show PMNs, basophils, and myelocytes.

      HL is a possibility in this age group; however, the question asks for the ‘most likely’ diagnosis, which would be CLL as it is more common in this age group and the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      MM is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and does not present in the way described above. Bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia are common presentations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has progressively worsened. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly. What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?

      Your Answer: Serum IGF1 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for detecting pituitary tumors, which are often the cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to determine if a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not a specific investigation for acromegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 52-year-old man reports a sudden painless loss of vision which occurred yesterday...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man reports a sudden painless loss of vision which occurred yesterday evening. He describes this as a veil dropping over his left eye. The symptoms have since resolved and his vision is currently normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      Amaurosis fugax, or transient vision loss, is a common complaint that typically lasts from seconds to hours and may have an identifiable cause. It often presents as a grey curtain moving from the periphery towards the center of vision. Ischemic causes, such as giant cell arteritis, cerebrovascular ischemia, and retinal arteriolar emboli, are more common in patients over 45 years old. A monocular visual disturbance, as seen in this patient, is more likely to be due to a circulatory disturbance of the anterior circulation, such as the carotid artery.

      Retinal detachment is a time-critical eye emergency that presents with floaters, flashing lights, field loss, and a fall in visual acuity. Patients with high myopia are at high risk. Over time, a shadow may appear in the peripheral visual field, which, if ignored, may spread to involve the entire visual field in a matter of days.

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world and usually manifests after age 50. The disease is often bilateral and may be asymmetrical. Peripheral visual acuity is preserved in all forms of dry AMD, but the advanced, non-exudative form is associated with severe central visual-field loss.

      Central retinal artery occlusion results in inner layer oedema and pyknosis of the ganglion cell nuclei, leading to ischaemic necrosis and opacification of the retina. The most common presenting complaint is an acute, persistent, painless loss of vision. A history of amaurosis fugax may be present.

      Central retinal vein occlusion presents with variable visual loss, retinal haemorrhages, dilated tortuous retinal veins, cotton-wool spots, macular oedema, and optic disc oedema. Visual loss can be sudden or gradual, over a period of days to weeks, and ranges from mild to severe. Photophobia, pain, and eye redness may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to right-sided limb weakness, facial droop, and slurred speech. A CT head scan shows a left-sided infarct but no haemorrhage. Her admission ECG reveals new atrial fibrillation (AF). Aspirin 300mg is given for the acute stroke, and she is recovering well on the ward. After two weeks, what medication should be initiated to lower the risk of future strokes?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor

      Explanation:

      For patients with AF who have experienced a stroke or TIA, the recommended anticoagulant is warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. Aspirin/dipyridamole should only be used if necessary for the treatment of other conditions, which is not the case in this scenario. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for TIA patients without AF, but in this case, the patient had a stroke and would require long-term treatment with a different medication.

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke

      Atrial fibrillation is a significant risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.

      Overall, managing atrial fibrillation post-stroke requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and imaging results. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her for 3 days. She has no cough or runny nose. Her mother has kept her home from preschool. Upon examination, she has a fever and swollen tonsils with white patches. She also has tender lymph nodes in her neck.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Tonsillitis Based on Centor Score

      Tonsillitis is a common condition that can be caused by a bacterial or viral infection. Antibiotics are not always necessary for a sore throat, but in cases where the patient has a high probability of a bacterial infection-induced sore throat, antibiotic therapy may be beneficial. The Centor score is a tool used to predict bacterial infection in people with a sore throat. A score of 3 or 4 means that the patient has a high probability of having a bacterial infection-induced sore throat and may benefit from antibiotics.

      The first-line antibiotic therapy for tonsillitis is 10 days of phenoxymethylpenicillin. However, it is important to check the patient’s allergy status before prescribing penicillin. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, 5 days of erythromycin or clarithromycin can be used. Amoxicillin and other broad-spectrum antibiotics should be avoided in the blind treatment of throat infections.

      In cases where the Centor score is 2, a bacterial infection is less likely, and antibiotic therapy is unlikely to be required. In such cases, conservative management such as mouth rinses can be used to alleviate discomfort and swelling.

      It is important to note that antibiotic therapy should only be prescribed when necessary, and a delayed prescription may be considered in some cases. A delayed prescription should only be considered if it is safe not to treat immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively worsening erythematous rash on her nose, forehead, and cheeks accompanied by telangiectasia and papules for the past year. The rash is exacerbated by exposure to sunlight and consumption of hot and spicy foods. She has previously sought medical attention for this condition and has been treated with topical metronidazole, but her symptoms persist. She has no allergies and is otherwise healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The patient has an erythematous rash on the nose, forehead, and cheeks with telangiectasia and papules, worsened by sun exposure and spicy food, suggesting a diagnosis of rosacea. The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cases is topical metronidazole, while severe or resistant cases require oral tetracycline. However, in this case, oral doxycycline should be given instead of metronidazole as it has been ineffective. Oral clarithromycin, erythromycin, and flucloxacillin are not appropriate treatments for rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      808.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after consuming a cake containing...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after consuming a cake containing hazelnut chocolate spread. He has a known allergy to tree nuts and has previously been hospitalized due to an anaphylactic reaction.

      Upon examination, he displays a widespread, confluent erythematous urticarial rash at flexor sites. He is speaking in full sentences and has no signs of oral or peri-oral edema. There is no audible wheeze.

      His vital signs indicate a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, 98% oxygen saturation in room air, a heart rate of 115 beats/min, and a blood pressure of 97/68 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IM adrenaline only

      Explanation:

      In cases of anaphylaxis, the most crucial drug to administer is IM adrenaline, even if the patient does not have breathing difficulties. This patient is displaying signs of anaphylaxis, such as tachycardia and hypotension. The recommended site for administering IM adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. If the patient responds well to the first dose, they may be discharged after two hours of symptom resolution.

      IV chlorphenamine is no longer part of the initial management for anaphylaxis. Instead, non-sedating oral antihistamines are preferred after initial treatment. IV chlorphenamine may be used later in management if IM adrenaline is insufficient, and it can be continued orally or by injection for 24-48 hours to prevent relapse.

      IV hydrocortisone was previously recommended as an adjuvant drug in the management of acute anaphylaxis. However, due to the lack of evidence and delayed onset of action, it is no longer recommended in the initial management of anaphylaxis.

      Oral chlorphenamine is not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its sedating properties. Non-sedating oral antihistamines, such as cetirizine, are preferred in the management of allergic reactions and in stabilized patients after acute anaphylaxis has resolved (2021 Resus Council Guidelines). If the patient’s urticaria symptoms persist, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?

      Your Answer: More common in spring

      Correct Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses

      Explanation:

      The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 49-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness in both legs that started with leg pain a week ago. Upon examination, there is a decrease in patellar reflex bilaterally, and the patient has 3/5 strength throughout the neurological examination in the lower limbs bilaterally, but normal sensation. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. What is the most probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Coxsackievirus

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario is experiencing leg or back pain before the onset of weakness, which is a common symptom of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The ascending weakness of the legs, along with reduced reflexes and normal sensation, is a typical presentation of this disease.

      Escherichia coli is a frequent cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and gastroenteritis, but it is not associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Coxsackievirus is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults, but it is not linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Herpes simplex virus causes genital and labial sores, but it does not play a role in the development of this disease.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.

      Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper abdominal discomfort and distension. She has been taking aspirin regularly for the past 8 weeks due to a chronic back pain. She has been tested for Helicobacter pylori and was negative so the aspirin has been discontinued. A gastroscopy is performed which reveals the presence of gastritis and a benign duodenal ulcer that is not actively bleeding.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start intravenous proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastric Ulcers

      Gastric ulcers can be caused by long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and can lead to severe symptoms requiring hospitalization. Treatment options for gastric ulcers include intravenous proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) followed by long-term oral PPIs. A repeat gastroscopy is usually carried out to ensure that the ulcer has healed. In cases where the ulcer has perforated or is malignant, a partial gastrectomy may be indicated. Retesting for H. pylori may be necessary if the patient had previously tested positive. Adrenalin injection is only indicated for bleeding gastric ulcers. Placing the patient nil by mouth is not necessary for healing the ulcer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      459.3
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of xylometazoline hydrochloride nasal spray. He has been using this for the past four weeks to 'clear up his sinuses.'
      What is the most likely side effect this patient will develop based on his current management?

      Your Answer: Rebound nasal congestion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Long-Term Nasal Decongestant Use

      Nasal decongestants are a common treatment for nasal congestion, but long-term use can lead to adverse effects. One of the most significant risks is rebound nasal congestion, which can encourage further use and hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa. It is recommended to use nasal decongestants for a maximum of seven days to avoid this risk. Other adverse effects of long-term use include nasal burning, irritation, and dryness, but chronic rhinitis is not a recognized side effect. While cardiovascular effects like tachycardia and hypertension are possible, they are more common with oral decongestants. Septal perforation is a rare side effect of intranasal corticosteroids, not nasal decongestants. It is essential to understand the potential risks of long-term nasal decongestant use and to use them only as directed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains feeling as though her environment is not real, almost like a dream. Additionally, she has been informed that she begins to smack her lips, although she has no memory of doing so. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure

      Explanation:

      Focal aware seizures do not affect consciousness or awareness, and may involve automatic, repetitive actions such as lip smacking.

      Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 49-year-old man presents to his GP with a newly discovered lump in...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man presents to his GP with a newly discovered lump in his scrotum. He noticed it a week ago while performing self-examination in the shower. He reports no recent injuries and is in good health otherwise. He has no significant medical or surgical history and is in a committed relationship. His vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is soft and nontender without any signs of an inguinal hernia. On examination, a small, painless mass is palpable just behind and separate from the right testicle. The left testicle appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epididymal cyst

      Explanation:

      Scrotal swelling that is separate from the body of the testicle is likely caused by an epididymal cyst. This condition is common in middle-aged men and is typically benign. An ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment is usually conservative.

      If the swelling is accompanied by pain, redness, and fever, it may be epididymitis. This condition is caused by an infection and can also involve the testes, resulting in unilateral testicular pain and swelling. Treatment typically involves a single IM dose of ceftriaxone 500mg and oral doxycycline 100mg BD for 10-14 days.

      A firm and painless lump on the testicle may indicate a germ-cell tumor, which is the most common malignancy in younger males. Other risk factors include infertility, cryptorchidism, mumps orchitis, and Klinefelter syndrome. Hydrocele, on the other hand, is a collection of fluid within the membrane that surrounds the testes. It is common in neonates and can occur in adults due to recent testicular trauma or orchitis. Treatment for hydrocele is generally conservative.

      Epididymal cysts are a prevalent reason for scrotal swellings that are frequently encountered in primary care. These cysts are typically found at the back of the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They are often associated with other medical conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound may be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated...

    Incorrect

    • You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated glomerular filtration rate or eGFR = 32 ml/min per 1.73m2) with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) confirmed on mid-stream urine culture and sensitivity:
      Escherichia coli: heavy growth
      resistant to trimethoprim
      sensitive to nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav
      Which of the following antibiotics is it most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Antibiotic for a UTI: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) and a urine culture confirms the presence of bacteria. However, the causative organism is resistant to the first-line agents nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim, and the patient’s renal function contraindicates the use of nitrofurantoin.

      The next best option would be to use amoxicillin, as long as the organism is susceptible to it. Other suitable options include pivmecillinam and fosfomycin, if there is a high risk of resistance. Ciprofloxacin and co-amoxiclav are not appropriate for the treatment of a lower UTI.

      In summary, choosing the best antibiotic for a UTI requires consideration of the patient’s renal function and the susceptibility of the causative organism. Amoxicillin, pivmecillinam, and fosfomycin are suitable alternatives when first-line agents are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 72-year-old retired teacher visits the doctor with a painless gradual loss of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old retired teacher visits the doctor with a painless gradual loss of vision. She reports difficulty reading as the words on the page are becoming harder to see. Additionally, she notices that straight lines in her artwork are appearing distorted, which is confirmed by Amsler grid testing. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient’s gradual central loss of vision and difficulty reading is dry age-related macular degeneration. This subtype accounts for the majority of cases of macular degeneration and typically presents with a gradual loss of vision. Glaucoma and retinal detachment are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as peripheral vision loss and sudden vision loss with flashes and floaters, respectively.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals? ...

    Correct

    • Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals?

      Your Answer: Livedo reticularis

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and the presence of livedo reticularis skin rash. Meanwhile, tuberculosis is commonly associated with the skin condition lupus vulgaris.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing in his right ear, which feels congested, and he experiences frequent bouts of vertigo lasting up to a few hours at a time. There are no abnormalities found during the neurological examination.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vertigo Conditions: Ménière’s Disease, Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo, Central Vertigo, Labyrinthitis, and Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Ménière’s disease, for instance, is characterized by fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Patients are advised to undergo vestibular rehabilitation and avoid risky activities. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by movement, without tinnitus, hearing loss, or ear fullness. Central vertigo has a sudden onset, constant symptoms, and possible neurological abnormalities, requiring urgent hospital admission. Labyrinthitis causes acute vertigo and hearing loss, but the presence of ear fullness suggests Ménière’s disease. Vestibular neuronitis, caused by viral infection, results in isolated and prolonged episodes of vertigo without tinnitus or ear fullness. Accurate diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in addressing vertigo and its underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 14-year-old boy presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot, with a small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of that foot.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: L5 root lesion

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that provides motor and sensory innervation to the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg, as well as the dorsum of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by fibular neck fracture, results in footdrop and sensory loss in the affected areas.

      The sciatic nerve, which originates from the lumbosacral plexus, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and indirectly innervates the posterior leg/calf muscles and some intrinsic muscles of the feet. It also provides sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Sciatica, a common condition that causes pain radiating down the leg, is often caused by irritation of the sciatic nerve root.

      The posterior tibial nerve, another branch of the sciatic nerve, supplies motor innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg and sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by compression or trauma, results in ankle and sole of foot paraesthesiae.

      The L5 root innervates muscles responsible for ankle and great toe dorsiflexion, hip abduction, and sensory innervation to the buttocks, posterolateral thigh, and lateral calf. L5 radiculopathy, which causes pain radiating from the lower back to the foot, is a common condition associated with damage to this root.

      The deep peroneal nerve, a branch of the common peroneal nerve, innervates the muscles responsible for foot dorsiflexion and provides sensory innervation to the area between the first and second toes. Damage to this nerve, often caused by conditions such as LMD or diabetes, results in footdrop with minimal sensory loss and preserved eversion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She is also a heavy...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She is also a heavy drinker, consuming around 30-35 units per week. During the examination, a palpable gallbladder is detected, but there is no history of abdominal pain. The doctor orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:
      - Albumin: 28 g/L
      - Alk Phos: 320 U/L
      - ALT: 90 U/L
      - Bilirubin: 100 umol/L
      - INR: 1.5
      - GGT: 120 U/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is the correct answer for this question, as indicated by Courvoisier’s sign. This sign suggests that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones, but rather by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. While alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, the presence of a painless, enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a likely cause, as it would not result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice is not typically associated with this type of overdose.

      Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.

      Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

      In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. Upon examination, reduced breath sounds and dullness to percussion are noted in the right axilla. His heart rate is 98 bpm, blood pressure is 100/75 mmHg, respiratory rate is 30 per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. Blood tests, including an arterial blood gas with the patient on 2L/minute oxygen via a nasal cannula, reveal the following results:

      Hb 142 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l
      Platelets 502 * 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      WBC 15.8 * 109/l Urea 6.9 mmol/l
      Neuts 14.2 * 109/l Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l CRP 205.4 mg/l
      pH 7.29
      pO2 12.5 kPa
      pCO2 2.2 kPa
      HCO3- 13 mmol/l
      Base excess -7.2
      Lactate 3.1 mmol/l

      A chest x-ray shows consolidation of the right middle zone with blunting of the right costophrenic angle. The left lung field is clear. Based on these findings, what is the most likely acid-base disorder present in this patient?

      Your Answer: An uncompensated metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: A partially compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario has an acute sepsis with a right middle lobe pneumonia as the likely cause. The blood gas results show an acidosis with low bicarbonate and high lactate, indicating a metabolic cause. However, the pCO2 is low due to tachypnea, which suggests respiratory compensation for the metabolic acidosis. If the pH were normal, it would be considered a fully compensated acidosis, but since the patient is still acidotic, it is classified as a partial compensation. Normal blood gas ranges for pH, pO2, pCO2, and HCO3- are 7.35-7.45, 10.0-14.0 kPa, 4.5-6.0 kPa, and 22-26 mmol/l, respectively. A mixed acidosis would show both low bicarbonate and high pCO2, while an uncompensated metabolic acidosis would have low bicarbonate and normal pCO2, and an uncompensated respiratory acidosis would have high pCO2 and normal bicarbonate.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy

      Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is acidaemic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.

      The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.

      To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      67.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair thinning, fatigue, and dry skin. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Endocrine Disorders: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, Cushing syndrome, primary hypoparathyroidism, and secondary hypoparathyroidism are all endocrine disorders that can present with various symptoms. Hypothyroidism may cause cerebellar ataxia, myxoedema, and congestive cardiac failure, and is treated with replacement of thyroid hormone. Adrenal insufficiency may cause tiredness, weakness, and postural hypotension, among other symptoms. Cushing syndrome may present with central obesity, skin and muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis. Primary hypoparathyroidism may cause hypocalcaemia symptoms, while secondary hypoparathyroidism may also present with hypocalcaemia symptoms. Treatment options vary depending on the specific disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Among the fruit juices listed, which one is most likely to have an...

    Incorrect

    • Among the fruit juices listed, which one is most likely to have an interaction with atorvastatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Interaction of Juices with Medications: A Focus on Cytochrome P450 Enzymes

      Certain juices can interact with medications, potentially leading to adverse effects if dosage is not adjusted. Grapefruit juice, for example, can inhibit the CYP3A4 enzyme responsible for metabolizing 90% of drugs, leading to subtherapeutic drug levels. On the other hand, tomato, apple, lemon, and pineapple juices are not known to interact with any medications.

      To understand these interactions better, it is important to look at the role of cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism. These enzymes play a crucial role in metabolizing a wide variety of endogenous and exogenous chemicals, including drugs. Changes in CYP enzyme activity can affect the metabolism and clearance of various drugs, leading to adverse drug interactions.

      It is also important to note that certain drugs can either induce or inhibit the activity of various CYP isoenzymes, further affecting drug metabolism. For example, carbamazepine and rifampin can induce the biosynthesis of CYP2C9, while fluconazole and ritonavir can inhibit its activity.

      In summary, understanding the interaction of juices with medications requires a deeper understanding of the role of cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism and the potential effects of drug-induced changes in enzyme activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided pleuritic pain. On examination she has a temperature of 38.5 °C, a respiratory rate of 37/min, a blood pressure of 110/80 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Oxygen saturations are 95%. She has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the left lung base.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Cough and Fever: Bronchopneumonia vs. Other Conditions

      Bronchopneumonia is a common condition that presents with a cough and fever, along with other symptoms such as sputum production, dyspnea, and pleuritic pain. Examination findings may include decreased breath sounds and focal chest signs. A chest radiograph can confirm the diagnosis. In primary care, a CRB-65 score is used to assess mortality risk and determine where to treat the patient: one point each for acute confusion, respiratory rate (RR) ≥30/min, systolic blood pressure (BP) <90 mmHg or diastolic BP <60 mmHg, age >65 years).
      CRB-65 score Mortality risk (%) – Where to treat
      0 <1 At home
      1-2 1-10 Hospital advised, particularly score of 2
      3-4 >10 Hospital advised, may require stay in intensive therapy unit (ITU).

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, malignant mesothelioma, and tuberculosis. However, these conditions have distinct features that differentiate them from bronchopneumonia. For example, pneumothorax involves partial or full collapse of a lung, while pulmonary embolism results from obstruction of one or more of the pulmonary arteries. Malignant mesothelioma is a cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise.

      It is important to consider these differentials when evaluating a patient with cough and fever, and to use appropriate diagnostic tools to confirm the diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension. Now this is not adequately controlling his blood pressure, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment is planned. On routine baseline blood tests, prior to commencing treatment, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 49 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2).
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examine the patient, and perform urinalysis

      Explanation:

      Managing a Patient with Suspected Chronic Kidney Disease

      When a patient presents with suspected chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to perform a thorough examination and urinalysis to confirm the diagnosis. While patients with CKD stages 1-3 may not exhibit symptoms, those in stages 4-5 may experience endocrine/metabolic derangements or disturbances in water or electrolyte balance. Anaemia is often one of the first signs of CKD, but the lack of physical findings on examination does not exclude kidney disease. Initial screening for proteinuria can be done with a standard urine dipstick, and further testing may be necessary if the test is positive. Referral to a nephrology outpatient may be necessary, depending on the severity of the CKD. ACE inhibitors should only be started once the patient’s baseline renal function has been established, and blood tests should be rechecked in 2 weeks. Immediate admission is only necessary for patients with CKD stage 5 who present with acute indications for dialytic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found to have a blood pressure of 170/90 mmHg. She is a non-smoker and has a history of diabetes. Renal artery stenosis is suspected as the underlying cause of her condition.
      Which of the following tests is the gold-standard investigation for diagnosis of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intra-arterial renal arteriography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to reduced blood flow to the kidneys. There are several diagnostic tests that can be used to assess for this condition.

      Intra-arterial renal arteriography is an invasive test that involves passing radio-opaque dye through the renal arteries to assess for normal flow or stenosis. This is considered the gold-standard test for diagnosing renal artery stenosis. It can also be used as a therapeutic modality if stents can be used to increase the lumen of the artery.

      Renal ultrasound scan can be used to assess for a shrunken appearance of the affected kidney and reduced vascular flow in the renal artery. Duplex ultrasound can augment this scan.

      Peripheral plasma renin activity is no longer considered suitable for initial testing for renovascular disease. Investigations demonstrating the presence of stenosis or occlusion of the renal artery are preferred.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) arteriography can be performed to assess for patent renal arteries or stenosis. However, a plain MRI without contrast would not be as effective as an intra-arterial examination.

      A 24-hour urinary protein test may be arranged to assess for other causes of reduced renal function, but it would not be useful in assessing for patent renal arteries.

      Overall, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose renal artery stenosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A senior citizen who is taking digoxin asks you about the toxic effects...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen who is taking digoxin asks you about the toxic effects of digoxin therapy, having read about it on the internet.
      Which of the following is associated with digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ventricular beats

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Digoxin toxicity can occur suddenly in cases of overdose or gradually during long-term treatment. It is a common issue among elderly patients and is often associated with risk factors such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypercalcemia. The most common and earliest dysrhythmia in digoxin toxicity is the finding of premature ventricular beats on an ECG, along with sinus bradycardia. Other ECG changes may include depressed conduction, bigeminal and trigeminal rhythms, ventricular bigeminy, and bidirectional ventricular tachycardia. Hair loss is not associated with digoxin toxicity, but gum/gingival hypertrophy can be caused by other drugs. Loss of appetite, vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue are common symptoms reported by patients. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with digoxin toxicity to ensure proper treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, lethargic, and disoriented, and it is suspected that he has not had a meal in the past two days. The medical team decides to initiate chlordiazepoxide PRN and administer IV Pabrinex. Which specific vitamin, found in Pabrinex, can help halt the progression of symptoms leading to Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.

      When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.

      Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.

      To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

      In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner complaining of pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. Her symptoms have developed rapidly over the past two weeks. A blood test and bone marrow biopsy reveal a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia

      Acute leukaemia, specifically acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), is characterized by an increase in undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment approach for AML involves three components: induction, consolidation, and maintenance chemotherapy. Combination chemotherapy is used to eradicate blast cells, with maintenance chemotherapy given to eliminate any remaining disease.

      Iron transfusions may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency, but they are not a direct treatment for acute leukaemia. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are given irradiated blood components.

      Intravenous immunoglobulins are not a treatment for acute leukaemia but may be used to prevent infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia resulting from cancer treatment.

      Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat disease that has spread to the brain or spinal cord. Total body radiotherapy can also be used before a stem-cell transplant to reduce the risk of transplant rejection.

      Stem-cell transplants can be allogeneic (from a matched or partially matched donor) or autologous (from the patient’s own stem cells) and are used after remission induction with chemotherapy. The goal is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells and can be curative, but it is not a first-line treatment.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a trial of treatment with nicorandil may be appropriate.
      Which of the following statements is true about the anti-anginal drug nicorandil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ulceration is an unwanted effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects and Side Effects of Nicorandil

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina pectoris, a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. While it is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the less common side effects of nicorandil is stomatitis and oral ulceration. This can be uncomfortable and may require medical attention. However, most patients do not experience this side effect.

      Nicorandil works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, which reduces ventricular filling pressure and myocardial workload. This can be beneficial for patients with angina, but it can also cause hypotension (low blood pressure) in some cases.

      Another mechanism of action for nicorandil is its ability to activate ATP-dependent potassium channels in the mitochondria of the myocardium. This can help to improve cardiac function and reduce the risk of ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart).

      The most common side effect of nicorandil therapy is headache, which affects up to 48% of patients. This side effect is usually transient and can be managed by starting with a lower initial dose. Patients who are susceptible to headaches should be monitored closely.

      Finally, it is important to note that concomitant use of sildenafil (Viagra) with nicorandil should be avoided. This is because sildenafil can significantly enhance the hypotensive effect of nicorandil, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      In summary, nicorandil is a useful medication for treating angina, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and should always follow their doctor’s instructions for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis and on long-term methotrexate visits the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis and on long-term methotrexate visits the clinic with concerns about his recent exposure to chickenpox. He attended a family gathering where a child with chickenpox was present, but he cannot recall if he had the illness as a child. He is seeking advice on whether he needs any treatment.

      What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should receive VZIG if antibody tests are negative

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on long-term steroids or methotrexate and are immunosuppressed should be given VZIG if they are exposed to chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella. The correct course of action is to conduct antibody testing to determine if the patient is negative, and if so, administer VZIG to protect them from potentially developing a serious chickenpox infection. Although a chickenpox vaccine exists, it is not part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule and is not recommended for immunosuppressed individuals due to its live nature. IV aciclovir can be given for chickenpox infection in immunocompromised individuals, but VZIG is more appropriate as it can help prevent the infection from manifesting. Administering VZIG once the patient has already shown symptoms of chickenpox is too late, as it has no therapeutic benefit at that point. While oral aciclovir can be given prophylactically or to reduce the severity of symptoms, VZIG is more appropriate for immunosuppressed patients who are at high risk of severe chickenpox infection.

      Managing Chickenpox Exposure in At-Risk Groups

      Chickenpox is usually a mild illness in children with normal immune systems, but it can cause serious systemic disease in at-risk groups. Pregnant women and their developing fetuses are particularly vulnerable. Therefore, it is crucial to know how to manage varicella exposure in these special groups.

      To determine who would benefit from active post-exposure prophylaxis, three criteria should be met. Firstly, there must be significant exposure to chickenpox or herpes zoster. Secondly, the patient must have a clinical condition that increases the risk of severe varicella, such as immunosuppression, neonates, or pregnancy. Finally, the patient should have no antibodies to the varicella virus. Ideally, all at-risk exposed patients should have a blood test for varicella antibodies. However, this should not delay post-exposure prophylaxis past seven days after initial contact.

      Patients who meet the above criteria should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). Managing chickenpox exposure in pregnancy is an important topic that requires more detailed discussion, which is covered in a separate entry in the textbook.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg, which she experienced suddenly while picking up her child. During examination, she can only raise her right leg to 30 degrees due to shooting pains down her leg. There is reduced sensation on the dorsum of her right foot, especially around the big toe, and weak foot dorsiflexion. The ankle and knee reflexes seem intact, and a diagnosis of disc prolapse is suspected. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The characteristics of a L5 lesion include the absence of dorsiflexion in the foot and a lack of sensation on the top of the foot.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away from a heart attack at the age of 45. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:

      HDL: 1.4 mmol/l
      LDL: 5.7 mmol/l
      Triglycerides: 2.3 mmol/l
      Total cholesterol: 8.2 mmol/l

      Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected. The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes total cholesterol and LDL-C levels, tendon xanthoma, and family history of myocardial infarction or raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate for FH. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by age 10 if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

      Overall, early diagnosis and management of FH are crucial in preventing cardiovascular disease and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge that is causing itchiness and hindering her ability to focus on her studies. She reveals that she has previously attempted to treat these symptoms with over-the-counter remedies, as she has experienced two similar episodes within the past five months. The patient is sexually active and uses both condoms and oral contraceptives. During her visit, a urine dip test is conducted, which yields negative results for pregnancy, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. What would be the most effective course of action for managing this patient's recurring symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Explanation:

      For patients experiencing recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is recommended to consider an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole. Over the counter antifungal treatments, such as clotrimazole cream, are typically effective for one-off episodes of thrush. However, in cases of recurrent symptoms, a more comprehensive treatment plan may be necessary. It is important to ensure that the patient is not taking SSRI medications or has hypersensitivity to ‘azole’ antifungal medications before prescribing fluconazole. It should be noted that IM ceftriaxone and oral ciprofloxacin are used to manage Neisseria gonorrhoea, not thrush, and oral metronidazole is used to manage bacterial vaginosis, not thrush.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 35-year-old woman presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. She feels nauseous and has been vomiting since arriving at the Emergency Department. On questioning, the woman tells you that she takes no regular medication. She was last in hospital three years ago after she slipped and fell in the shower. She was not admitted. She travelled to Thailand to visit relatives two months ago.
      On examination, the woman’s abdomen is tender in the epigastrium. She is jaundiced. She is also tachycardia and pyrexia.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 280 IU 30–130 IU
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 IU 5–30 IU
      Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Amylase 900 u/l 30-100 u/l
      What is the best initial treatment for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admission, intravenous (IV) fluids, analgesia, and place a nasogastric tube

      Explanation:

      Initial Treatment for Pancreatitis: What to Do and What Not to Do

      Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. The initial management of pancreatitis involves admission, intravenous (IV) fluids, analgesia, and placing a nasogastric tube. However, there are certain things that should not be done in the initial treatment of pancreatitis.

      One of the things that should not be done is administering antibiotics unless the pancreatitis is complicated by pancreatic necrosis, an abscess, or a pseudocyst > 6 cm for < 6 weeks. Another thing that should not be done is performing surgical intervention unless the pancreatitis is complicated by the aforementioned conditions. It is important to note that acute pancreatitis can cause a fever without the presence of an abscess or pseudocyst. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s condition closely and perform further investigations if necessary. In addition, it is important to consider the patient’s medical history. If the patient has a history of excess alcohol consumption, this may be the cause of pancreatitis. In such cases, appropriate initial treatment should be given without delay. Overall, the initial treatment of pancreatitis should focus on stabilizing the patient’s condition and addressing the underlying cause of the condition. With proper management, the patient can recover from pancreatitis and avoid complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the clinic after missing one dose. She typically takes one tablet at 9 pm every day, but she forgot and remembered the next morning. Her last period was 12 days ago.

      What guidance should be provided to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take the missed dose immediately and then take the next pill at 10pm

      Explanation:

      If a woman on COCP misses one pill, she should take the missed pill immediately and then take the next pill at the usual time. There is no need for any further action or emergency contraception such as a copper IUD. She can continue with the 7-day pill-free break as normal. Discarding the missed pill is not recommended as it could increase the risk of an unwanted pregnancy. Starting the next pack without the 7-day break is also not necessary in this case. However, if she misses two pills and there are fewer than seven pills left in the pack, she would need to start the next pack without a break.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains on the right side of her face for the past two months. She reports having 10-20 episodes per day, each lasting for 30-60 seconds. She recently had a dental check-up, which was normal. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - At what age do most children attain urinary incontinence during the day and...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do most children attain urinary incontinence during the day and at night?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-4 years old

      Explanation:

      Reassurance and advice can be provided to manage nocturnal enuresis in children under the age of 5 years.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral leg weakness, and back pain. The medical team suspects a spinal epidural abscess. What imaging test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of a spinal epidural abscess, a complete MRI of the spine is necessary to detect any skip lesions.

      To accurately diagnose a spinal epidural abscess, a full spine MRI is essential. Neither plain x-rays nor CT scans can effectively identify the abscess. It is necessary to scan the entire spine, not just the suspected area, as there may be multiple separate abscesses that are not connected. The MRI should be requested and performed as soon as possible.

      Understanding Spinal Epidural Abscess

      A spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a serious condition that occurs when pus collects in the spinal epidural space, which is the area surrounding the spinal cord. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. SEA can be caused by bacteria that enters the spinal epidural space through contiguous spread from adjacent structures, haematogenous spread from concomitant infection, or direct infection. Patients with immunosuppression are at a higher risk of developing SEA. The most common causative micro-organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms of SEA include fever, back pain, and focal neurological deficits according to the segment of the cord affected.

      To diagnose SEA, doctors may perform blood tests, blood cultures, and an infection screen. An MRI of the whole spine is necessary to identify the extent of the abscess. If the primary source of infection is not clear, further investigations may be required, such as echocardiography and dental x-rays. Treatment for SEA involves a long-term course of antibiotics, which may be refined based on culture results. Patients with large or compressive abscesses, significant or progressive neurological deficits, or those who are not responding to antibiotics alone may require surgical evacuation of the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a previous medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral retinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.

      Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.

      Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.

      Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.

      For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 7-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he still wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
      What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.

      It is important to have a medical evaluation to rule out any underlying medical conditions, but once those have been ruled out, treatment is generally not recommended until the child is at least six years old. In the meantime, parents can use star charts and enuresis alarms to help motivate their child to stay dry at night.

      It is also important to consider any psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school performance, friendships, and home life, and try to speak to the child alone if possible to get a better understanding of any stressors that may be affecting them.

      There is no need for a referral for an ultrasound scan unless there is a suspicion of a structural abnormality. Desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for short-term relief, but oral imipramine is no longer recommended. Prophylactic antibiotics are also not indicated for nocturnal enuresis.

      Overall, parents should be reassured that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and with time and patience, it will likely resolve on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 32-year-old man from West Africa presents to his GP in January with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man from West Africa presents to his GP in January with symptoms of depression. He has no significant medical history but is a regular cannabis smoker. He has experienced similar episodes during the past two winters. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Seasonal Affective Disorder

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that typically occurs during the winter months. It is important to treat SAD in the same way as depression, following the guidelines set out by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). This involves starting with psychological therapies and monitoring the patient’s progress after two weeks to ensure that their symptoms have not worsened. If necessary, an SSRI can be prescribed.

      It is important to note that sleeping tablets should not be given to patients with SAD, as this can exacerbate their symptoms. While light therapy is often suggested as a treatment option, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited. As a result, it is not routinely recommended.

      In summary, SAD is a form of depression that requires careful management and treatment. By following the appropriate guidelines and avoiding certain medications, patients can receive the support they need to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 67-year-old man with a history of multiple myeloma complains of confusion, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of multiple myeloma complains of confusion, abdominal pain, and excessive thirst. The following blood results are available:
      - Sodium: 145 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L
      - Albumin: 35 g/L
      - Calcium: 3.55 mmol/L
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 120 IU/L
      - Urea: 7.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 130 µmol/L
      What is the primary initial approach to managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV 0.9% saline

      Explanation:

      In patients with hypercalcaemia, the initial treatment is IV fluid therapy. The man’s hypercalcaemia is caused by multiple myeloma, and he is experiencing polydipsia. Additionally, his sodium levels are nearing the upper limit of normal, indicating that he may be dehydrated.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is having difficulty reading the newspaper, particularly at night, and his symptoms appear to be fluctuating in severity. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes small deposits of extracellular material between Bruch's membrane and the retinal pigment epithelium, but otherwise the examination is unremarkable. The patient has a history of lifelong smoking. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Dry macular degeneration is also known as drusen. This condition is characterized by a gradual loss of central vision, which can fluctuate and worsen over time. Symptoms may include difficulty seeing in low light conditions and distorted or blurry vision. There are two forms of macular degeneration: dry and wet.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking co-codamol. Considering his impaired renal function, which opioid would be the most suitable option to alleviate his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic kidney disease are recommended to use alfentanil, buprenorphine, and fentanyl as their preferred opioids.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon examination, a rash with erythematous blisters is visible in the left trigeminal distribution. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

      Explanation:

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 19-9?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      CA 19-9 and Pancreatic Cancer

      Understanding Tumour Markers

      Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.

      Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.

      Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.

      Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.

      In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 5-year-old girl is discovered collapsed and unresponsive. Upon examination, there are no...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is discovered collapsed and unresponsive. Upon examination, there are no apparent obstructions in her airway. There are no signs of life and no indication of any respiratory efforts being made. Emergency assistance has been summoned and is en route.
      What is the most suitable course of action to take next in her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 5 rescue breaths

      Explanation:

      The correct initial step for paediatric basic life support (BLS) is to give 5 rescue breaths immediately, even before checking for a pulse. This is because respiratory causes are the most common in children. Checking for a femoral pulse is not necessary to determine the need for chest compressions, as palpation of the pulse is not a reliable indicator of effective circulation. Giving 2 rescue breaths is incorrect for children, as they require 5 rescue breaths to mitigate hypoxia. The correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 15:2, but the first step in paediatric BLS is always to give 5 rescue breaths.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of muscle weakness and pins and needles in both her feet which has now started to spread up into her legs. She reports having a stomach bug 3 weeks ago.

      During examination, Sophie is apyrexial. There is reduced tone in both lower limbs with reduced knee jerk reflexes and altered sensation. However, upper limb neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stephen’s symptoms of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy and hyporeflexia strongly suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, likely triggered by a recent gastrointestinal infection. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, presents with muscle fatigue and ocular manifestations, but normal tone, sensation, and reflexes. Polymyositis causes proximal muscle weakness, while acute transverse myelitis presents with paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. However, Stephen’s lack of bladder/bowel dysfunction and back pain, as well as the history of gastrointestinal infection, make Guillain-Barre syndrome the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 48-year-old woman is seen in the diabetes clinic with poorly controlled type...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is seen in the diabetes clinic with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 63 mmol/mol). She had to discontinue gliclazide due to recurrent hypoglycaemia and is currently on maximum dose metformin. Her BMI is 26 kg/m^2. What is the best course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add either pioglitazone, a DPP-4 inhibitor or a SGLT-2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 13-year-old boy experiences facial swelling and a red, itchy rash shortly after...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy experiences facial swelling and a red, itchy rash shortly after receiving the first dose of the HPV vaccine. Upon arrival, paramedics observe a bilateral expiratory wheeze and a blood pressure reading of 85/60 mmHg. According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I reaction

      Explanation:

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A mother brings her 8-year-old son into surgery. He has been experiencing recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old son into surgery. He has been experiencing recurrent headaches. What is the most common feature of migraine in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal disturbance

      Explanation:

      Children with migraine often experience nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine

      Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.

      In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol dependence presents with fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol dependence presents with fever and malaise. On admission, a chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with early cavitation. What is the probable causative agent responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).

      In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.