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Question 1
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer is admitted to the Acute Medical Unit for the management of hypercalcaemia. He is currently taking slow-release morphine sulphate (MST) 90mg bd to control his pain along with regular naproxen and paracetamol. While in the hospital, he reports experiencing pain in his right arm where a skeletal metastasis is present. What medication would be the most suitable to prescribe for his pain?
Your Answer: Oral morphine solution 30mg
Explanation:The patient is experiencing break-through pain and bisphosphonates are not appropriate for acute pain relief. The recommended break-through dose is 30mg, which is 1/6th of their total daily morphine dose of 180mg.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past few days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy object, and now experiences severe pain that radiates from his back down his left leg. During the examination, he reports experiencing paraesthesia on the lateral aspect of his left foot and the posterior aspect of his thigh. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The straight leg raise test is positive on the left side. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer: L5
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old man complains of back pain. What symptom may indicate a possible diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain at night
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old gymnast complains of experiencing pain in her lateral forearm that worsens when she straightens her wrist or fingers. Additionally, she occasionally feels a peculiar sensation in her hand similar to pins and needles. During the examination, she displays tenderness below the common extensor origin, with no pain over the lateral epicondyle itself. What is the probable reason for her forearm pain?
Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Radial tunnel syndrome and lateral epicondylitis have similar presentations, but radial tunnel syndrome causes pain distal to the epicondyle and worsens with elbow extension and forearm pronation. This can make it challenging to differentiate between the two conditions. Radial tunnel syndrome is more common in athletes who frequently hyperextend their wrists or perform supination/pronation movements, such as gymnasts, racquet players, and golfers. Patients may also experience hand paraesthesia or wrist aching. Cubital tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, causes tingling and numbness in the 4th and 5th fingers, while olecranon bursitis results in swelling over the posterior elbow.
Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with malaise, anorexia and pain in his shoulders and hips over the last 3 months. Examination is unremarkable, except for a mildly painful limitation of his hips and shoulders. His muscles are tender, but not weak. Blood tests reveal a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 60 mm/h (normal <20 mm/h).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Joint and Muscle Pain: A Case Study
A 75-year-old male patient presents with pain and stiffness in the joints and muscles around the pelvic and shoulder girdles, lasting for longer than 45 minutes in the morning. He also reports constitutional symptoms of malaise, fatigue, anorexia, and sometimes depression. Based on this presentation, the following differential diagnoses can be considered:
Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR)
PMR is a rare condition that is most often diagnosed in those over 70 years old and is more common in women than men. Patients with PMR present with pain and stiffness in the joints and muscles around the pelvic and shoulder girdles, along with constitutional symptoms. Diagnosis is made based on the history, and blood tests often show a raised ESR and CRP. Treatment is with prednisolone, and rapid response to corticosteroid treatment is a very good indicator of a diagnosis of PMR.Osteoarthritis
Although osteoarthritis may present with painful hip joints, it is less common in the shoulder. Furthermore, constitutional symptoms, such as malaise and anorexia, are not seen in osteoarthritis. Examination findings in osteoarthritis usually reveal limited range of movement, crepitus, and possible joint instability, and there is unlikely to be any associated muscle tenderness. ESR, a marker of inflammation, is not seen in osteoarthritis.Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
SLE is an autoimmune condition that is most common in women of childbearing age and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. While arthritis is one of the symptoms of SLE and there may be a raised ESR, alongside constitutional symptoms, the presentation in this patient, especially given his age and sex, suggests an alternative diagnosis to SLE initially. SLE may present with other symptoms as well, such as the characteristic butterfly rash, which is present in 30–60% of patients.Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
The onset of RA is generally in the middle-aged, and women are affected 2.5 times more than men. Although the ESR may be raised and the patient may feel generally unwell, the history given here is not typical of RA. The joints most typically affected by RA are the small joints of the hands and feet and the cervical spine.Gout
Gout presents as a mono -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with symptoms of urticarial rash, angioedema, and wheezing. According to her mother, she had recently attended her younger sister's party and had been assisting in inflating balloons. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Latex allergy
Explanation:Latex allergy often presents as a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, which can lead to anaphylaxis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer adrenaline promptly and follow standard anaphylaxis management protocols.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with psoriatic arthritis presents with a severely painful red eye. The pain has been affecting his sleep for a few days. On examination, his visual acuity is normal but there is inflammation of the scleral, episcleral and conjunctival vessels. Both pupils are equal and react normally to light. There is no blanching of the episcleral vessels when 2.5% phenylephrine is applied to the eye.
Which of the following is this patient most likely to be suffering from?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Differentiating Ocular Inflammatory Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment
Scleritis: A severe inflammation of the sclera, often associated with underlying inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include severe eye pain, watering, photophobia, and affected visual acuity. Treatment requires systemic medication such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressants.
Sjögren Syndrome: An association of dry eye and/or dry mouth with rheumatoid arthritis or other connective-tissue disorders. Pain is not a feature, but conjunctival hyperemia may be present.
Anterior Uveitis: Inflammation of the iris with or without ciliary body involvement, often seen in patients with inflammatory bowel disease or ankylosing spondylitis. Symptoms include an acutely painful red eye with photophobia and a small, irregular, poorly reactive pupil.
Conjunctivitis: Inflammation of the conjunctival vessels, causing sore red eyes with a sticky discharge. Pain is not a feature, and scleral and episcleral vessels are not affected. Often caused by bacterial or viral infections or irritants/allergens, it is usually self-limiting but may require topical antibiotics.
Episcleritis: A mild inflammation of the episclera, often seen as an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include mild eye irritation, redness, and sometimes photophobia. Application of 2.5% phenylephrine causes episcleral vessels to blanch, distinguishing it from scleritis. Visual acuity is unaffected, and it is usually self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male is prescribed colchicine to alleviate his gout symptoms that are not responding to diclofenac. What is the most crucial side effect to caution him about?
Your Answer: Sore throat
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female complains of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. The doctor suspects meralgia paraesthetica. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Anterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
Correct Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Explanation:A possible cause of burning pain in the thigh is compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve, which can lead to a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. Meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by burning pain in the thigh, may result from compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.
Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.
Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 10-year-old patient develops an eczematous, weeping rash on their wrist after getting a new bracelet. According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is this an example of?
Your Answer: Type IV reaction
Explanation:Allergic contact dermatitis, which is often caused by nickel, is the type IV hypersensitivity reaction observed in this patient.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling fatigued all the time. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she complains of having 'stiff joints,' you find no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:
Hb 12.5 g/dl
Platelets 135 * 109/l
WBC 3.5 * 109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 µmol/l
Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
TSH 1.30 mu/l
CRP 8 mg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.
Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Following the FRAX/NOGG guidance and the results of her DEXA scan, you have prescribed alendronic acid as part of her treatment plan. During your counseling session, she asks why she cannot take this medication like her other medications after breakfast. What is the potential risk if she does not take the medication as instructed?
Your Answer: Osteonecrosis of the jaw
Correct Answer: Oesophageal reaction
Explanation:When taking oral bisphosphonates, it is important to swallow them with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or any other oral medication. After taking the medication, the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. Effective counseling on administration is necessary as oral bisphosphonates can cause oesophageal retention and increase the risk of esophagitis. Oesophageal disorders and an unsafe swallow are contraindications for oral bisphosphonate therapy. Acute phase response may occur as a reaction to the bisphosphonate therapy itself, not the route of administration. Long-term bisphosphonate therapy is associated with atypical stress fractures, but this risk is not affected by the route of administration. Hypocalcaemia may occur with long-term bisphosphonate therapy, but it is not associated with the route of administration.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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A 56-year-old plumber comes to the morning clinic with a swelling on his left knee. Upon examination, there is a 3-4 cm swelling on the front of the knee, which is slightly tender to touch. He has complete mobility with no cracking sounds. You suspect he has what is commonly referred to as 'housemaid's knee', which is inflammation of which bursa?
Your Answer: Prepatellar bursa
Explanation:The bursae located in different parts of the body can become inflamed due to various reasons. The prepatellar bursa, situated in front of the patella, can become inflamed due to excessive friction between the skin and patella, which is commonly seen in people who work on their knees. This condition is often referred to as ‘Housemaid’s knee’. Inflammation of the infrapatellar bursae, located below the patella, can also occur due to similar friction between the skin, patellar tendon, and tibial tuberosity. The suprapatellar bursa, which is an extension of the knee joint cavity, can also become inflamed due to infection that can spread to involve the joint. The calcaneal bursae, located at the back of the calcaneus bone, near the Achilles’ tendon, can become inflamed due to overuse, such as in runners. This condition causes pain in the heel.
Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.
Hb 125 g/l
Platelets 390 * 109/l
WBC 9.5 * 109/l
ESR 78 mm/h
Rheumatoid Factor Negative
Antinuclear Antibody Negative
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinucleur antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinucleur antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Correct
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The hand radiograph of a 43-year-old woman demonstrates periarticular osteoporosis, loss of joint space and bone erosions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation:Radiographic Features of Common Rheumatologic Conditions
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized by periarticular osteoporosis, narrowing of joint space, juxta-articular bony erosions, subluxation, gross deformity, and periarticular soft tissue swelling. In the hands, swan neck deformity of fingers, ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, boutonnière deformity of the thumb, and Bouchard’s nodes are common. However, the presence of Bouchard’s nodes without Heberden’s nodes is more indicative of RA than osteoarthritis.
Gout may present with gouty tophi, which are soft tissue masses created by the deposition of urate crystals. Punched-out erosions caused by bone absorption may also be present. These changes tend to be sporadic and asymmetrical.
Osteoarthritis is characterized by subchondral bone cysts, osteophytes, narrowing of joint space, and subchondral sclerosis. Clinically, both Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may be present.
Psoriatic arthritis most commonly affects the hands and feet. Radiographic features include erosions along the shaft of the phalanges, leading to ‘pencil-in-cup’ deformity and tufting of the bones. Unlike RA, osteoporosis is not a feature, and typically the more distal joints are affected.
Hypercalcaemia does not have specific radiographic features. The changes seen would be those associated with the underlying cause of the hypercalcaemia, such as hyperparathyroidism or cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with a worsening headache for one day. She noticed that the pain significantly worsened when she was brushing her hair. She also complains of pain in her jaw while talking.
Which of the following investigations is the gold standard test to confirm the suspected diagnosis of giant-cell arteritis (GCA) in this patient?Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible vision loss. The gold-standard test for GCA is temporal artery biopsy, which should be performed as soon as the disease is suspected. However, treatment with corticosteroids should not be delayed until the biopsy results are available. Investigating antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is not useful, as they are usually negative in GCA. A CT scan of the brain is not typically performed for suspected GCA, but a CT angiography may be used to evaluate other large arteries. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are commonly elevated in GCA and are part of the initial evaluation. A full blood count with peripheral smear may show normocytic normochromic anemia with or without thrombocytosis. Early recognition and appropriate management of GCA are crucial to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Correct
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A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. During the examination, you observe a rash on his nose and detect 2+ protein in his urine upon dipping. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this individual are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), as evidenced by the presence of the butterfly rash, joint pain, and proteinuria. In SLE, the impaired kidney function is responsible for the proteinuria. It is worth noting that SLE is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.
Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower back pain. He reports that his back has been getting stiffer over the past few months and has worsened. During the examination, you find out that he is also experiencing enthesitis of the Achilles tendon. You suspect a particular diagnosis and want to confirm it. What antigen's presence would confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful right big toe. Joint aspiration reveals no organisms, but there are numerous neutrophils containing long needle-shaped crystals.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gouty arthritis
Explanation:Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by hyperuricaemia, most commonly affecting middle-aged men. Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and examination of joint fluid. Treatment is with high-dose NSAIDs or coxibs initially, followed by allopurinol in the long term. RA presents as an acute monoarticular arthritis in only 10% of cases, and is more common in women between the ages of 35 and 55. Septic arthritis and gonococcal arthritis are bacterial infections that present with a hot, red, swollen joint and constitutional symptoms. Reactive arthritis is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually presenting as an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 56-year-old construction worker comes in for evaluation. He has a history of osteoarthritis in his hands but no other significant medical history. Despite taking paracetamol regularly, he is still experiencing significant pain, particularly in the base of his thumbs. What would be the most appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer: Add topical ibuprofen
Explanation:According to the 2008 NICE guidelines, the initial treatment for osteoarthritis should involve the administration of paracetamol and topical NSAIDs, particularly for knee and hand joints.
The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.
Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.
Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Correct
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A 26-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department after falling on his left hand. He reports experiencing pain in his hand, specifically in the anatomical snuffbox. Despite an x-ray being taken 2 hours after the fall, no fractures were detected in any of his carpal bones, and he was discharged with pain relief. However, he returns 10 days later, complaining of persistent pain and extreme tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox of his left hand. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:Fractures in the anatomical snuffbox area can be difficult to detect on x-rays immediately after a fall on the outstretched hand. However, the fracture line may become visible several days later, and patients may experience persistent pain in the area. It is crucial to identify these fractures promptly to prevent non-union and avascular necrosis. It is important to note that a Colles fracture, which also occurs after a fall on the outstretched hand, does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox. Similarly, a Barton’s fracture, which is intraarticular in nature, can be seen clearly on initial x-rays and does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox.
Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.
Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.
Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Correct
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Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?
Select the SINGLE result from the list below.Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack
Explanation:To effectively treat gout, it is important to understand the proper use of allopurinol. Starting prophylactic treatment with allopurinol should be delayed until 1-2 weeks after the inflammation has settled to avoid exacerbating and prolonging the attack. It may take several weeks to reduce uric acid levels to normal, and the dose should be titrated every few weeks until sUA levels are below 300 mmol/l. It is not recommended to start allopurinol during an acute attack, as it is unlikely to lead to complete remission of symptoms. Allopurinol use is not associated with an increased risk of acute pyelonephritis, but renal impairment may occur if the starting dose is too high. In mild cases, self-care may be considered, but if drug treatment is necessary, NSAIDs or colchicine can be prescribed. It is important to measure the baseline sUA level and consider prophylaxis in high-risk patients. When starting allopurinol, a low dose of NSAID or colchicine should be co-prescribed for at least 1 month to prevent acute attacks of gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica. He is started on prednisolone 15 mg od. What is the most suitable method for bone protection?
Your Answer: Ensure calcium and vitamin D replete
Correct Answer: Start oral alendronate + ensure calcium and vitamin D replete
Explanation:Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is seen for follow-up after experiencing his third episode of gout in the past year, affecting his first metatarsophalangeal joint. His serum uric acid level is measured at 485 µmol/l. What is the recommended course of action for his ongoing management?
Your Answer: Wait a further four weeks then start allopurinol 300mg od
Correct Answer: Start allopurinol 100mg od + diclofenac 50mg tds
Explanation:Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Correct
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A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early morning stiffness.
Which of the following treatments would you recommend?Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs
Explanation:Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the primary treatment for relieving symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). It is recommended to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor to protect the stomach. If one NSAID is ineffective, switching to another may be helpful. Slow-release NSAIDs may be beneficial for morning stiffness and pain. Colchicine is not recommended for AS due to severe side-effects. Paracetamol and codeine have no direct evidence for treating AS symptoms, but may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if appropriate. Surgery may be necessary in cases of structural damage, severe deformity, spinal instability, or neurological deficit. Oral corticosteroids should be avoided due to long-term side-effects, but intra-articular injections may provide relief during acute flares. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)-blocking drugs are effective in reducing symptoms and inflammation in those with persistent, active inflammation. Rituximab has no role in treating seronegative arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old gardener complains of a gradually worsening left elbow pain for the past two weeks. The pain intensifies when the elbow is straight and there is resistance during wrist extension and supination. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis is lateral epicondylitis, which is caused by repetitive arm movements. The pain is typically more severe when the wrist is extended against resistance and the elbow is straightened. This description does not match the symptoms of anterior interosseous syndrome, carpal tunnel syndrome, or medial epicondylitis.
Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his calf during a football game, causing him to limp off the field. Upon examination by the team doctor, he exhibits a positive Simmond's sign. What type of injury is he likely to have suffered?
Your Answer: Dislocation of the peroneal tendon
Correct Answer: Achilles tendon rupture
Explanation:If a person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in their ankle, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, or is unable to continue playing a sport or running, an Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected. Posterior ankle impingement is characterized by pain during forced plantar flexion when jumping or kicking, and is most commonly seen in gymnasts, ballet dancers, and footballers. Navicular bone fractures, which are stress fractures, are frequently observed in athletes who engage in sports that involve sprinting and jumping. Athletes who have had multiple ankle sprains may experience peroneal tendon dislocation due to friction and inflammation of the tendon. Stress metatarsal fractures, also known as march fractures, are most commonly seen in soldiers, hikers, and hospital doctors who spend extended periods standing and walking.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Correct
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You assess a 45-year-old male with Marfan's syndrome. What is the probable reason for mortality in individuals with this condition?
Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Aortic dissection may be more likely to occur in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome due to the dilation of the aortic sinuses.
Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Correct
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A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her left wrist, persisting for the past week. She also notices that her left wrist seems more swollen than her right. During the examination, she experiences discomfort over her radial styloid when her thumb is forcefully flexed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is positive for Finkelstein test, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid when the thumb is forcefully abducted or flexed. Unlike De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis affects both sides of the body. Mallet thumb is an injury that causes the thumb to bend towards the palm. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that primarily affects the elderly due to mechanical wear and tear.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Correct
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As a foundation year two doctor in general practice, you encounter a thirty-four-year-old priest who reports knee pain without any history of trauma. Upon examination, you note stable observations and slight swelling with pain and tenderness overlying the knee. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infrapatellar bursitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this gentleman’s condition is infrapatellar bursitis, which is often associated with kneeling, particularly in clergymen. Although prepatellar bursitis may also be a possible cause, it is more commonly observed in housemaids who kneel in a more upright position. Osteoarthritis, which is characterized by knee pain and a feeling of instability, is more prevalent in individuals over the age of forty-five, making it less likely for this patient. Cruciate ligament damage, meniscal tear, and ruptured bursa are also potential causes, but they are typically associated with a history of trauma.
Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Correct
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A 67-year-old female presents to rheumatology out-patients referred by her GP due to a history of arthritis in both hands. What x-ray finding would indicate a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other potential causes?
Your Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis
Explanation:Early x-ray signs of rheumatoid arthritis include juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia, which distinguishes it from osteoarthritis. Both RA and osteoarthritis may exhibit joint space reduction.
X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.
As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.
It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 32
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone 10 mg for the past 6 months. A DEXA scan shows the following results:
L2 T-score -1.6 SD
Femoral neck T-score -1.7 SD
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Vitamin D + calcium supplementation + oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Supplementation of vitamin D and calcium along with oral bisphosphonate.
Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing discomfort in the plantar midfoot area between the third and fourth toes while wearing high heels.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Morton’s neuroma
Explanation:Common Foot Conditions and Their Symptoms
Morton’s Neuroma: This condition is characterized by perineural fibrosis and common digital nerve degeneration, resulting in neuropathic pain in the forefoot and interdigital space. The third web space is most commonly affected, and pain is aggravated by narrow, tight, high-heeled shoes. Treatment involves local steroid injections and footwear advice.
Claw Toe: In this condition, there is MTP dorsiflexion with PIP and DIP flexion affecting any of the second to fifth toes. Patients often report pain at the PIP joint due to pressure from a shoe on the toe.
Achilles Tendonitis: This results in activity-related pain and swelling of the Achilles tendon, felt at the lower calf. The toes are unaffected. Management includes rest, NSAIDs, heel padding, physiotherapy, and steroid injections.
Hammer Toe: This is a deformity of the second, third, or fourth toe, characterized by progressive PIP flexion deformity and compensatory hyperextension of the MTP and DIP joints. The PIP joint becomes prominent dorsally, causing pain when rubbing against the shoe.
Plantar Fasciitis: This is a pain in the inferior heel at the attachment of the medial band of the plantar fascia to the medial calcaneal tubercle. It is a chronic inflammatory process and an overuse injury, with pain worst in the morning. Treatment involves shoes with arch support, soft heels and heel padding, regular stretching exercises, NSAIDs, and local steroid injections.
Understanding Common Foot Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 34
Correct
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Which of the following is least likely to be associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with several features that can be remembered using the acronym ‘A’s. These include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, and amyloidosis. However, achalasia is not a known association with ankylosing spondylitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 35
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman complains that she has had pain in her left elbow, left ankle, and right knee for the last few weeks. She recently returned from a trip to Brazil where she had been on a 3-week vacation with her family. She admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. On examination, there is tenderness and swelling of the tendons around the affected joints, but no actual joint swelling. She also has a skin rash, which is vesiculopustular.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Explanation:Gonococcal arthritis is characterized by migratory polyarthralgia, fever, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis, with a rash being a common feature. It is responsive to treatment and less destructive. Reactive arthritis is a triad of urethritis, seronegative arthritis, and conjunctivitis, often caused by infections of the digestive or reproductive systems. Tuberculous arthritis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and presents with pain, swelling, and stiffness of the affected joint, along with fatigue, malaise, and weight loss. Fungal arthritis is rare and causes a hot, swollen, red, and painful joint. Gout typically affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint and presents with hot, swollen, tender, and red joints, with normal uric acid levels not ruling out the diagnosis. Diagnosis is largely clinical, but synovial fluid examination can differentiate from pseudogout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 36
Correct
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A 48-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful, swollen left ankle after injuring it two days ago. He reports midfoot zone pain and has been using crutches since the injury. What is the most probable finding that would indicate the necessity for an X-ray?
Your Answer: Navicular bone tenderness
Explanation:Assessing Ankle Injuries: Indications for X-rays
When evaluating a patient with ankle pain, the Ottawa Rules can be used to determine if an X-ray is necessary. These rules have a high sensitivity for excluding fractures and can be applied to patients between the ages of three and 55. Bony tenderness at the navicular meets the criteria for an X-ray. However, bruising of the toes or non-tender swelling over the lateral malleolus do not necessarily require an X-ray. Inability to weight bear for four steps or tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal may indicate the need for an X-ray. Treatment for uncomplicated fractured toes involves neighbour strapping.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in the outer aspect of the left elbow. This pain has been going on for a few months and she occasionally feels the pain in the outer aspect of the left forearm as well.
She is otherwise healthy and physically active. She mentions that she enjoys rock climbing and often participates in climbing competitions.
Which one of the following findings on examination would necessitate a referral to an orthopaedic surgeon for further evaluation?
Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.
Your Answer: Reduced grip strength
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over the dorsum of the right hand
Explanation:Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that affects the tendons of the forearm extensor muscles. It is often caused by repetitive activities such as typing, playing tennis, or manual work. While it is a self-limiting condition, it can cause significant pain and functional impairment.
Symptoms of lateral epicondylitis include tenderness on palpation of the bony prominence of the lateral epicondyle, reduced grip strength, and pain on resisted middle finger extension and wrist extension. Diagnosis is usually clinical, and management can be initiated at primary care.
If a patient presents with loss of sensation over the dorsum of the hand, it may be an indication to refer them to an orthopaedic surgeon to rule out differential diagnoses. However, normal sensation is a common finding in lateral epicondylitis.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is important for proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old white man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His serum alkaline phosphatase level is 1000 iu/l (39–117 iu/l), calcium 2.25 mmol/l (2.2–2.67 mmol/l) and phosphate 1.2 mmol/l (0.8–1.5 mmol/l). Other liver function tests (LFTs) are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Bone Disorders and Blood Biochemistry: Understanding the Differences
Bone disorders can be difficult to diagnose, as many of them share similar symptoms. However, blood biochemistry can often provide clues to help differentiate between them. Here, we will discuss several common bone disorders and their associated blood biochemistry.
Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects patients over the age of 40. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, deformities, nerve compression, and pathological fractures. Blood biochemistry typically shows raised serum alkaline phosphatase, with normal calcium and phosphate levels. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Lung
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is the second most common form of lung cancer and is strongly linked to smoking. Symptoms include cough, wheeze, and haemoptysis. Squamous cell carcinomas can cause hypercalcaemia as part of the paraneoplastic syndrome, but normal calcium levels and lack of respiratory symptoms may rule out this diagnosis.
Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells of the bone marrow. Normal calcium levels and the mention of hearing loss may rule out this diagnosis.
Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a disease of inadequate bone mineralization, most commonly caused by vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms include bony pain, muscle tenderness and weakness, pathological fractures, and proximal myopathy. Blood biochemistry may reveal hypocalcaemia and raised alkaline phosphatase.
Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is caused by decreased bone density and tends to present initially with a fragility fracture. Blood biochemistry would be normal in a patient with osteoporosis.
In summary, understanding the differences in blood biochemistry can help differentiate between common bone disorders. This knowledge can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 39
Correct
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A typically healthy 44-year-old man is hospitalized with T11/12 discitis that is complicated by a T4 to L1 epidural abscess and a left psoas abscess. Following surgery to drain the abscesses, laboratory cultures reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus. Furthermore, blood cultures taken upon admission grow Staphylococcus aureus after 72 hours. What is the most suitable initial investigation to identify the source of the infection, given the pathogenic organism detected?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:In cases of discitis caused by Staphylococcus, an echocardiogram is necessary to check for endocarditis. Staphylococcus aureus is a highly aggressive pathogen that can spread throughout the body when it enters the bloodstream. In cases of deep abscesses caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a haematogenous source of spread should be investigated, with septic emboli from endocarditis being the most common cause. An echocardiogram is necessary to check for valvular injury or vegetations in all cases of Staphylococcus aureus-positive cultures. CT imaging is useful in identifying other abscesses and foci of infection, but is unlikely to identify a primary source of haematogenous spread. HIV testing is recommended for patients with Staphylococcus aureus sepsis, but it would not identify the primary source of bacteraemia. Midstream urine is not a reliable test for identifying a primary source of Staphylococcus aureus infection. The Duke’s Criteria for Endocarditis can be used to diagnose bacterial endocarditis, with a positive blood culture for a typical organism being one major criterion. Treatment for complicated discitis typically lasts for 6-12 weeks, with the first two weeks requiring intravenous treatment. If endocarditis is diagnosed, the length of intravenous therapy and overall treatment time may be altered.
Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old runner has approached you for advice after being diagnosed with a stress fracture in her left tibia. She is seeking guidance on how to reduce her risk of future stress fractures. What are the risk factors that athletic females are most susceptible to when it comes to developing stress fractures?
Your Answer: Increased body mass index, poor diet and smoking
Correct Answer: Inadequate calorie intake, menstrual irregularities and increased or new exercise intensity
Explanation:Women with low calorie intake or menstrual irregularities who increase their exercise are at risk of stress fractures due to the female athlete triad, which includes excessive exercise, reduced bone mineral density, and eating disorders or inadequate calorie intake. It is important to discuss eating habits and menstrual cycles when treating women with a history of stress fractures.
Stress fractures are small hairline fractures that can occur due to repetitive activity and loading of normal bone. Although they can be painful, they are typically not displaced and do not cause surrounding soft tissue injury. In some cases, stress fractures may present late, and callus formation may be visible on radiographs. Treatment for stress fractures may vary depending on the severity of the injury. In cases where the injury is associated with severe pain and presents at an earlier stage, immobilization may be necessary. However, injuries that present later may not require formal immobilization and can be treated with tailored immobilization specific to the site of injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 41
Correct
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A 29-year-old male complains of experiencing low back pain and stiffness for a few months now, with the worst symptoms occurring in the mornings. He reports that exercise helps alleviate the pain, but prolonged sitting at his desk exacerbates it. During the examination, there is limited lumbar flexion, and a pelvic X-ray reveals sacroiliitis. What is the best initial approach to managing this condition?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis, a spondyloarthropathy associated with HLA-B27 and commonly seen in men aged 20-30, can be managed with exercise regimes and NSAIDs as the first line of treatment. Pelvic X-rays are helpful in identifying subchondral erosions and sclerosis in the commonly affected sacroiliac joints. Physiotherapy and NSAIDs like ibuprofen are recommended as the initial management. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections are useful for unilateral joint symptoms, while methotrexate may be considered for peripheral joint involvement. Paracetamol can be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if needed, but ibuprofen should be the first-line option.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient presents to her GP with worries regarding her medication. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 2 years ago and is currently on azathioprine 120mg/day, divided into doses. She recently took a home pregnancy test which came back positive. What is the most appropriate approach to managing her medication?
Your Answer: Stop azathioprine and start high dose corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Continue azathioprine
Explanation:It is safe to continue using azathioprine during pregnancy, even if on an established dose. Discontinuing or reducing the medication could lead to disease progression and serious health risks for the patient. Therefore, the dose of azathioprine should not be lowered. Switching to corticosteroids would not be appropriate as the patient is already on a safe medication. Infliximab should only be used if necessary during pregnancy, so continuing with azathioprine is a better option. Methotrexate should never be used during pregnancy as it is known to be teratogenic.
Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to you with complaints of weakness in her right hand and tingling and paraesthesia in the lateral three digits. You notice that the sensory symptoms are replicated when you flex her wrist passively and hold it in that position. Can you identify the name of this sign?
Your Answer: Froment's sign
Correct Answer: Phalen's sign
Explanation:The patient has symptoms of median nerve palsy, which can be caused by carpal tunnel syndrome, a known risk factor during pregnancy. Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign can reproduce the symptoms, and Froment’s sign is associated with ulnar nerve palsies.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female comes to your clinic after experiencing recurrent miscarriages and no successful pregnancies. She has been referred to you for further evaluation. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- APTT: 42 (normal range: 27-35)
- Platelets: 95 (normal range: 150-400)
- PT: 12 seconds (normal range: 11-14)
What could be the possible reason for these abnormalities?Your Answer: Von Willebrand Disease (vWD)
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by an elevated APTT and normal PT, and can lead to thrombocytopenia. AITP only causes a decrease in platelets, while vWD and hemophilia A only affect the APTT. Although unfractionated heparin can prolong the APTT, low platelets are a rare long-term side effect and are unlikely to be the cause of her repeated miscarriages.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old runner complains of anterior groin pain accompanied by hip snapping. The pain is described as sharp and aggravated after prolonged sitting. During the examination, the patient displays limited range of motion and experiences pain when the hip is adducted and internally rotated while flexed to 90 degrees. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Snapping hip syndrome
Correct Answer: Femoroacetabular impingement
Explanation:Anterior groin pain in active young adults is often caused by femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), which is a common condition that can lead to persistent hip pain. Symptoms include hip/groin pain that worsens with prolonged sitting and is often accompanied by snapping, clicking, or locking of the hip. FAI is typically associated with prior hip pathology, such as Perthes disease in childhood, and is caused by an abnormality in hip anatomy that results in abnormal contact between the femur and acetabulum rim. Over time, this can cause soft tissue damage, including labral tears. Snapping hip syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by a snapping or clunking sound as tendons move over the hip bones during flexion and extension. This condition is usually painless unless there is an associated labral tear. Stress fractures, in contrast, typically improve with rest rather than worsening. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head is usually associated with other risk factors, such as steroid use, alcohol consumption, or autoimmune conditions. Initially, pain occurs during activity, but it can become constant as the condition progresses.
Causes of Hip Pain in Adults
Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with wrist pain after slipping in ill-fitting shoes. He reports having experienced progressive lumbar and hip pain over the past few years, which he attributed to old age. However, he denies any weight loss, night sweats, and feels otherwise well. A hand and wrist x-ray shows a hairline radial fracture. The patient's blood tests reveal Hb of 144 g/L, platelets of 340 * 109/L, WBC of 9.0 * 109/L, bilirubin of 14 µmol/L, ALP of 240 u/L, ALT of 30 u/L, γGT of 20 u/L, and albumin of 48 g/L. What is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Calcitonin
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the preferred treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, as illustrated by the case of an elderly man presenting with bone pain, isolated elevated ALP, and a fragility fracture. While calcitonin may be used in some cases, it is less effective and has a shorter duration of action. Calcium supplementation is not indicated unless the patient is experiencing hypocalcemia. DEXA scans are not necessary for diagnosis in this case, as the patient will already be started on bisphosphonates. While orthotics may be helpful for ill-fitting footwear, they do not address the underlying issue of Paget’s disease and the fragility fracture.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with malaise, fever, backache and joint pains of 1-week duration. On examination, arthritis is present asymmetrically in the lower limbs, involving the knees and metatarsophalangeal (MTP) and toe joints. An eye examination reveals conjunctival congestion, and there is a vesicular crusting lesion on his left sole. Investigations reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 60 mm/h (normal <20 mm/h) and C-reactive protein (CRP) of 50 u/l (normal <5 u/l). Rheumatoid factor is negative and HLA-B27 positive.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of joint inflammation that occurs after an infection, often caused by dysentery or a sexually transmitted infection. It is more common in men who have the HLA-B27 gene. Reactive arthritis is part of a group of diseases called spondyloarthropathies, which also includes ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, and undifferentiated arthritis. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, reactive arthritis is not associated with rheumatoid factor. Symptoms of reactive arthritis include sudden, asymmetrical lower limb joint pain, which can occur a few days to weeks after the initial infection. Enthesitis, or inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bones, is also common and can cause plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendonitis. In some cases, reactive arthritis can also cause back pain and inflammation of the sacroiliac joint, as well as a sterile conjunctivitis. Treatment involves addressing the initial infection and may include medications such as sulfasalazine or methotrexate for relapsing cases. It is important to trace and treat sexual partners if necessary. Gout, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis are other types of joint inflammation that have different symptoms and causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 48
Correct
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A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's disease. His gastroenterologist decides to begin azathioprine for remission maintenance after the surgery. What is the crucial enzyme level to test before starting this treatment?
Your Answer: Thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT)
Explanation:Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 49
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and stiffness in her fingers on both hands for the past few weeks. During examination, she is found to be afebrile and her fingers are generally swollen and sausage-shaped. Her nails are also pitted with onycholysis.
What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview
Arthritis is a common condition that affects millions of people worldwide. However, not all types of arthritis are the same. Here is a brief overview of some of the most common types of arthritis and how they differ from each other.
Psoriatic Arthritis: This type of arthritis is often seen in people with psoriasis and is characterized by painful, swollen joints. Dactylitis, or swelling of the whole digit causing ‘sausage-shaped’ fingers or toes, is a common feature. Nail changes, such as pitting and onycholysis, are also associated with psoriatic arthritis.
Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a type of septic arthritis caused by the sexually transmitted infection Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It typically presents with fever, a rash, and an acutely swollen joint, but there is no nail involvement.
Osteoarthritis (OA): This is a disease of synovial joints in which there is a loss of cartilage. It is uncommon for OA to be diagnosed in anyone under the age of 45. Dactylitis and nail changes are not associated with OA.
Reactive Arthritis: This is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually either an acute gastrointestinal or sexually transmitted infection. The clinical features of dactylitis and nail changes described in this case are not associated with reactive arthritis.
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): This is an inflammatory condition that tends to affect the small joints of the hands but can affect any synovial joint. Nail changes are not usually associated with RA, and general swelling of the whole digit (dactylitis) is not a typical feature.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of arthritis and their unique features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male patient comes to the GP clinic with a history of lower back pain and stiffness that has been gradually worsening for the past 6 months. He reports that the stiffness is more pronounced in the morning but improves throughout the day and with physical activity. He mentions that his mother has a form of arthritis but cannot remember which type. He denies experiencing any night sweats or weight loss.
What is a red flag symptom of lower back pain?Your Answer: Duration longer than 3 months
Correct Answer:
Explanation:One of the warning signs of lower back pain is when it starts before the age of 20 or after the age of 50. Morning stiffness may indicate an inflammatory cause for the pain, but it is not a definitive symptom. The presence of arthritis in the family may be significant, particularly if it is ankylosing spondylitis, which can be inherited through the HLA-B27 gene. However, the specific type of arthritis in the family was not specified. Being male is not considered a warning sign.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 51
Correct
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A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and swelling in both hands. She has had several episodes of vasospasm in her fingers, with pallor, cyanosis and subsequent redness caused by reactive hyperaemia. Blood tests reveal anti-double-stranded (ds)DNA antibodies and antinuclear antibodies (ANAs).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Autoimmune Connective Tissue Diseases: Characteristics and Differences
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjögren syndrome, Behçet’s disease, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and systemic sclerosis are all autoimmune connective tissue diseases with distinct characteristics. SLE is most prevalent in African-American women and presents with arthralgia, rashes, and fever. Sjögren syndrome is characterised by dry eyes and mouth, while Behçet’s disease is primarily characterised by recurrent mouth ulcers, genital ulceration, eye lesions, and cutaneous manifestations. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis predominantly affects the small vessels and presents with lesions involving the upper respiratory tract, lungs, and kidneys. Systemic sclerosis is a multisystem disease characterised by Raynaud’s phenomenon and either limited or diffuse cutaneous scleroderma. Understanding the differences between these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is seen in the rheumatology clinic after being diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 6 months ago. She was initially started on methotrexate, however, was unable to tolerate its side effects. The consultant is considering starting the patient on hydroxychloroquine.
What should happen before the patient begins treatment?Your Answer: Ultrasound of liver
Correct Answer: Examination by an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Patients who will be on long-term hydroxychloroquine treatment must now undergo an initial ophthalmologic examination. Recent studies indicate that hydroxychloroquine-induced retinopathy is more prevalent than previously believed. The latest guidelines from RCOphth (March 2018) recommend color retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula for patients who are expected to take the medication for more than five years. While it is recommended to conduct a complete blood count and assess renal and liver function when starting hydroxychloroquine, other options are unnecessary.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 53
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy who plays rugby complains of pain to his knee; he says his kneecap feels as though it is out of place at these times.
Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patellar subluxation
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults
Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Here are some of the most common causes:
1. Patellar subluxation: This is a temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella, which can cause the knee to give way or feel like it’s moving out of place. Conservative treatment with physiotherapy and knee braces is usually effective, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.
2. Chondromalacia patellae: This condition is caused by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella, and is a common cause of chronic knee pain in teenagers and young adults. Physiotherapy to alter patella-femoral alignment is the main treatment, along with analgesics and ice packs.
3. Osgood-Schlatter disease: This is a common cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys. It is caused by overuse of quadriceps, and is characterized by pain inferior to the patella. Treatment is with simple analgesics and ice packs.
4. Osteochondritis dissecans: This condition is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface, and affects the knee in 75% of cases. It tends to present in teenagers and young adults, with vague and achy joint pain that is made worse by activity. Treatment depends on the severity of the condition, and may include surgery.
Overall, knee pain in adolescents and young adults can be caused by a variety of conditions, and treatment depends on the underlying cause and severity of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 54
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy experiences facial swelling and a red, itchy rash shortly after receiving the first dose of the HPV vaccine. Upon arrival, paramedics observe a bilateral expiratory wheeze and a blood pressure reading of 85/60 mmHg. According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is this an example of?
Your Answer: Type I reaction
Explanation:Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 55
Correct
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During a routine medication review, you observe your patient, a 50 year-old male, displaying some skin changes. The knuckles of both hands have purplish plaques, and the patient's eyelids also appear purple. There is no history of skin problems in the patient's medical records. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with skin changes such as plaques on the knuckles and eyelids, scaling of the scalp, and changes to the nail beds and cuticles. It is often accompanied by inflammation of the proximal muscles causing weakness. It can be an autoimmune condition or a paraneoplastic syndrome and is treated with immunosuppressants.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 56
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman complains of a gritty sensation in her eyes and a dry mouth of several months’ duration. She has vague joint pains in her knees and ankles. Her husband mentions that she is also dyspnoeic on exertion and cannot keep up with him during their hikes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Sjögren syndrome
Explanation:Sjögren syndrome is a condition characterized by dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dryness in other areas such as the mouth, skin, or vagina. Enlargement of the salivary or parotid glands may also be present. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs without any other autoimmune disease and is associated with HLA-B8/DR3 in about 50% of cases. Secondary Sjögren syndrome occurs in the presence of other autoimmune disorders, commonly rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Other symptoms may include arthralgia, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, vasculitis, polyneuropathy, and pulmonary diffusion defects and fibrosis. Diagnosis is based on the Schirmer tear test, Rose Bengal staining, and lab tests showing raised immunoglobulin levels, circulating immune complexes, and autoantibodies. Treatment is symptomatic with artificial tear and saliva replacement solutions, hydroxychloroquine, and corticosteroids if needed. Polymyositis, polyarteritis nodosa (PAN), mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but do not fit the clinical picture in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 57
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her current medication. She is currently taking azathioprine 130 mg/day, in divided doses. Yesterday she took a home pregnancy test which was positive.
What is the best course of management for her medication?Your Answer: Continue azathioprine
Explanation:Managing Treatment for Pregnant Patients with Autoimmune Diseases
When treating pregnant patients with autoimmune diseases, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different medications. In the case of a patient already on an established dose of azathioprine, it is generally recommended to continue this medication during pregnancy, as stopping or reducing the dose could put the patient at risk of disease progression. Methotrexate should never be used during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. High-dose corticosteroids may also pose risks to the developing fetus if used for prolonged periods. Stopping all treatment could trigger disease worsening, so it is important to carefully weigh the risks and benefits of any changes to medication. In some cases, infliximab may be necessary during pregnancy, but this should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist. Overall, managing treatment for pregnant patients with autoimmune diseases requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of different medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 58
Correct
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An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
ALP 890 u/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old African female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of escalating pain in her shoulders and thighs over the past week. She also reports aggravated knee pain. She was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis and has been taking the required medications. Her musculoskeletal symptoms disappear after discontinuing isoniazid. What type of antibodies are linked to her condition?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Correct Answer: Antihistone antibody
Explanation:The presence of antihistone antibodies is linked to drug-induced lupus, which is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. One of the drugs she was taking, isoniazid, is known to cause this condition. Rheumatoid factor is typically found in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, while anti Jo-1 antibody is associated with polymyositis and anti-Scl70 antibody is linked to diffuse systemic sclerosis.
Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.
The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.
The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 60
Correct
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A 50-year-old right-handed male gardener presents with elbow pain. He reports a gradual onset of pain in his left elbow over a period of four weeks with only mild relief from over-the-counter pain medication. The patient enjoys playing tennis and does yard work regularly. He does recall a fall at home four weeks ago where he landed on his right elbow. The patient denies any fever and feels generally well. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the left elbow with resisted wrist extension/supination and the elbow held in extension. There is no significant swelling over the olecranon. What is the most probable cause of this man's elbow pain?
Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is lateral epicondylitis, which is characterized by pain around the lateral epicondyle of the humerus that radiates to the forearm. The pain is exacerbated by repetitive movements with the dominant hand, which is common in the patient’s job as a cleaner. The pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension and supination while the elbow is extended. Medial epicondylitis, olecranon bursitis, radial head fractures, and septic arthritis are less likely differentials as they do not match the examination findings in this scenario.
Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman who has undergone a total hip replacement (THR) comes for evaluation because of discomfort on the side of her prosthesis. What is the primary cause for a revision surgery in a patient who has had a THR?
Your Answer: Infection
Correct Answer: Aseptic loosening of the implant
Explanation:The primary cause for the revision of total hip replacements is aseptic loosening, followed by pain and dislocation.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 62
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending the weekend painting her house. During examination, there is noticeable pain around the lateral epicondyle, leading to a possible diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following movements would typically exacerbate the pain?
Your Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended
Explanation:Lateral epicondylitis is aggravated when the wrist is extended or supinated against resistance while the elbow is extended.
Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 63
Incorrect
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You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local hospital after having a pneumothorax drained. This is his second admission in two years for the same issue. Upon examination today, his chest is clear with good air entry in all fields. However, you observe that he has pectus excavatum. He is 1.83m tall and weighs 72 kg. The only other relevant medical history is joint hypermobility, for which he was referred to a physiotherapist last year. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Correct Answer: Marfan's syndrome
Explanation:The presence of recurrent pneumothoraces and joint hypermobility suggests the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome.
Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 64
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with a 3-week history of shoulder pain in both shoulders. A shoulder X-ray taken 2 weeks ago did not reveal any signs of osteoarthritis. Her blood tests show an elevated ESR of 50mm/hour. What is the most appropriate course of action for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prescribe a trial of oral prednisolone 15mg daily and arrange follow up after 1 week to assess clinical response
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this patient strongly indicate the presence of polymyalgia rheumatica, and thus, a one-week course of steroids should be administered to produce a significant improvement. Prescribing paracetamol for a month is unlikely to yield any noticeable relief. An MRI scan is not likely to aid in the diagnosis. Administering a prolonged course of steroids without periodic review is not recommended.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 65
Incorrect
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You are conducting an infant assessment. What are the clinical manifestations of a clubfoot?
Your Answer: Inverted + dorsiflexed foot + pes planus which is not passively correctable
Correct Answer: Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is not passively correctable
Explanation:Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Foot Deformity in Newborns
Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a foot deformity characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot. It is a common condition that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns, with a higher incidence in males. In about 50% of cases, the deformity is present in both feet. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.
Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically made during the newborn exam, and imaging is not usually necessary. The deformity is not passively correctable, and the diagnosis is based on clinical examination.
In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management of talipes equinovarus, with the Ponseti method being the preferred approach. This method involves manipulation and progressive casting of the foot, starting soon after birth. The deformity is usually corrected within 6-10 weeks, and an Achilles tenotomy may be required in some cases. Night-time braces are then used until the child is 4 years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in about 15% of cases.
Overall, talipes equinovarus is a common foot deformity in newborns that can be effectively managed with conservative methods such as the Ponseti method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female complains of ankle pain after twisting it during a game of basketball. What is the least significant factor to consider when determining if an x-ray is necessary?
Your Answer: Tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone
Correct Answer: Swelling immediately after the injury and now
Explanation:Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries
The Ottawa Rules provide a guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary after an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate. An ankle x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone or medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.
The lateral malleolar zone is from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the fibular, while the medial malleolar zone is from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia. These rules help healthcare professionals determine whether an ankle x-ray is necessary, which can save time and resources. It is important to note that there are also Ottawa rules available for foot and knee injuries. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide efficient and effective care for ankle injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is recuperating after experiencing his initial bout of gout. He continues to experience some persistent discomfort in his big toe. He has no predisposing factors for gout and no signs of gouty tophi upon examination. At what point would it be appropriate to initiate uric acid-lowering treatment?
Your Answer: If one further attack of gout in the next 12 months
Correct Answer: Once his symptoms of acute gout have resolved
Explanation:It is now recommended to offer allopurinol to all patients after their first gout attack, without delay. However, it is advised to wait until the inflammation has subsided before discussing urate-lowering therapy with the patient. If the attacks are too frequent, allopurinol can be considered even before the inflammation has completely settled. These recommendations are provided by the 2017 British Society for Rheumatology and NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 68
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his thumb, middle, and index fingers for the past 8 months. This is beginning to interfere with his work as a financial analyst. He has a history of hypothyroidism for which he takes 75 micrograms of thyroxine daily. Other than that, his medical history is unremarkable. Which nerves are likely affected in this condition?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:To identify the affected nerve, it is crucial to accurately diagnose the underlying condition. The patient’s symptoms, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb and middle finger (and possibly the radial half of the ring finger), suggest carpal tunnel syndrome. Additionally, the patient’s occupation involving computer use and hypothyroidism are risk factors for this condition. Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed at the wrist within the carpal tunnel.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of long-standing issues with her hands, but lately, she has been experiencing pain in the joints of her fingers and difficulty opening jars. She has also observed a lump on the dorsal, distal part of her left index finger. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bouchard's node
Correct Answer: Herberden's node
Explanation:Nodal osteoarthritis is the usual cause of osteoarthritis in the hands, resulting from genetic factors. This type of arthritis leads to the development of Heberden’s nodes, which is swelling in the distal interphalangeal joints, and Bouchard’s nodes, which is swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joints. These nodes do not require any treatment. Pyogenic granuloma is a lesion that appears as a bright red or blood-crusted area, often following trauma, and is more common in children. A ganglion is a cystic lesion that occurs in the joint or synovial sheath of a tendon, most commonly in the wrist. A sebaceous cyst is a mobile, round cyst with a central punctum.
Clinical Diagnosis of Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis can be diagnosed clinically without the need for investigations, according to NICE guidelines. This means that a doctor can diagnose the condition based on the patient’s symptoms and physical examination alone. The guidelines state that if a patient is over 45 years old and experiences pain during exercise, but does not have morning stiffness or morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes, they can be diagnosed with osteoarthritis.
This approach to diagnosis is based on the fact that osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The symptoms tend to develop gradually over time, and are often worse after periods of inactivity or overuse. By focusing on the patient’s symptoms and history, doctors can make an accurate diagnosis and start treatment as soon as possible.
Overall, the clinical diagnosis of osteoarthritis is a simple and effective way to identify the condition in patients who meet the criteria. It allows for prompt treatment and management of symptoms, which can improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent further joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 70
Correct
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A 35-year-old Japanese man presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers, as well as painful nodules on his shin. He has a history of recurrent episodes of red eyes and thrombophlebitis in his legs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Behçet syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Behçet Syndrome from Other Rheumatic Diseases
Behçet syndrome is a rare inflammatory disorder that is most commonly seen in Turkey, Iran, and Japan. It is characterized by recurrent oral ulceration and can also involve the eyes, skin, joints, and other organs. Diagnosis is based on international criteria that require oral ulceration plus any two of genital ulcers, defined eye lesions, defined skin lesions, or a positive skin pathergy test. Treatment involves corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and other medications.
It is important to differentiate Behçet syndrome from other rheumatic diseases that can present with similar symptoms. Familial Mediterranean fever is another rare genetic disorder that can cause recurrent fever, arthritis, and serositis, but it typically affects different ethnic groups and has a different pattern of symptoms. Polyarteritis nodosa is a type of vasculitis that can cause systemic inflammation and damage to blood vessels, but it typically presents with different symptoms than Behçet syndrome. Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur after a bacterial infection, but it typically involves urethritis and conjunctivitis in addition to joint pain. Palindromic rheumatism is a rare type of arthritis that involves sudden attacks of joint pain, but it typically does not cause lasting joint damage.
By carefully considering the patient’s symptoms and medical history, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for patients with Behçet syndrome and other rheumatic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip and back pain that has been getting worse over the past 3 years. The patient reports that the hip pain is more severe when bearing weight and improves with rest. During the examination, you observe frontal bossing and leg bowing.
What is the initial treatment option that should be considered for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Vitamin D replacement
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone.
Replacing vitamin D is not an effective treatment for Paget’s disease.
Radiotherapy is used to treat osteosarcoma, not Paget’s disease.
Cinacalcet is used to treat hypercalcemia caused by hyperparathyroidism, not Paget’s disease.Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 72
Correct
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You are a GP trainee on attachment in the emergency department. You review a 15-year-old male with a large forearm wound as a result of deliberate self harm. The wound is 6 cm long and appears to involve the tendon sheath. The patient has scars from previous wounds across both forearms.
Which of the following features would require a referral to plastic surgery?Your Answer: Involvement of tendon sheath
Explanation:If there is a possibility of tendon sheath involvement in forearm wounds, it is recommended to seek the expertise of plastic surgery for potential surgical exploration. Failure to do so may result in tendon rupture.
The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. They originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 73
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding juvenile idiopathic arthritis is accurate?
Your Answer: Achilles tendonitis is a recognised association
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 74
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening right knee pain and limited mobility. He reports falling off his bike a few days ago but did not experience any knee pain until yesterday. Upon examination, the right knee appears red and hot with only 20º of flexion and a small effusion. The patient has a history of a conservatively treated ACL rupture in the other knee.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate 100 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, saturations 98% on room air, blood pressure 102/67 mmHg, and temperature 37.9ºC. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelets of 500 * 109/L, a white cell count of 13.6 * 109/L, a sodium level of 142 mmol/L, a potassium level of 5.0 mmol/L, a urea level of 4.0 mmol/L, a creatinine level of 110 µmol/L, and a CRP level of 130 mg/L. X-ray results show no obvious bony injury.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Urgent orthopaedic review
Explanation:Septic arthritis is most commonly observed in adults’ knees, which presents as sudden joint pain and immobility, accompanied by fever and elevated inflammatory markers. Urgent orthopaedic evaluation is necessary for aspiration and potential washout, as untreated septic arthritis can lead to joint destruction within hours to days. Discharging the patient with oral antibiotics or physiotherapy is not recommended. Administering colchicine is not appropriate as there is no history of gout or pseudogout, and X-ray results do not indicate chondrocalcinosis. Ordering an MRI knee scan may delay appropriate treatment and will not impact management.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision where he was the driver. A lorry in front lost control and caused significant damage to his car, resulting in the dashboard and footwell being pushed forward. The patient is currently stable but complains of severe pain in his right leg. Upon examination, his right leg is internally rotated, slightly flexed, adducted, and shortened compared to the left. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Femoral shaft fracture
Correct Answer: Posterior hip dislocation
Explanation:When a person has a posterior hip dislocation, their leg will appear shortened and internally rotated. This type of injury often occurs during car accidents, especially when the driver slams on the brakes to avoid a collision. The impact from the front of the car is then transferred through the leg to the hip joint, causing the femoral head to move behind the acetabulum. Pelvic fractures, on the other hand, typically cause pain when walking or touching the area, as well as instability, nerve or blood vessel damage in the leg, and signs of injury to pelvic organs such as bleeding from the rectum or blood in the urine. Anterior hip dislocations are less common than posterior ones, but they can cause the leg to appear abducted and externally rotated, with a noticeable bulge in the femoral head. These types of dislocations are often associated with hip prostheses. Finally, femoral shaft fractures can cause swelling, deformity, and shortening of the leg. Because such fractures require a significant amount of force to occur, there is usually also damage to the surrounding soft tissues and bleeding.
Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications
Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.
There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, with no leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.
The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.
Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with ankle pain following a football injury. He is able to bear weight, experiences pain below his lateral malleolus, and has no tenderness in the bone. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Request an ankle radiograph
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and review in 1 hour before discharge with advice
Explanation:Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules: Managing Foot and Ankle Injuries
Foot and ankle injuries are common, but it can be difficult to determine whether a patient has sustained a sprain or a fracture. The Ottawa ankle rules are a set of guidelines that can help clinicians decide whether a patient with foot or ankle pain requires radiographs to diagnose a possible fracture. By following these rules, unnecessary radiographs can be reduced by 25%.
When managing foot and ankle injuries, it is important to understand the Ottawa ankle rules and how they apply to each patient. If a patient does not meet the criteria for an ankle radiograph, simple analgesia and advice on managing a soft tissue injury may be sufficient. However, if a patient does meet the criteria, a radiograph may be necessary to diagnose a possible fracture.
By understanding and applying the Ottawa ankle rules, clinicians can provide appropriate and effective management for foot and ankle injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 77
Correct
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A 50-year-old builder presents to the General Practitioner with pain in his right elbow. He reports that the pain has been worsening over the past few months and is affecting his ability to work. He has not attempted any treatment yet.
Upon examination, there is no swelling at the right elbow joint. The elbow can be flexed and extended without pain, and there is a good range of motion. The pain is reproduced on resisted supination.
What is the most appropriate first line diagnosis-management pairing for this patient? Choose the SINGLE most suitable option from the list below.Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis – rest, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Explanation:Lateral epicondylitis is a condition that typically affects people in their fourth decade or older, and is caused by repetitive activity or minor trauma to the elbow. It is usually seen in the dominant arm and causes pain in the front of the lateral epicondyle, which can radiate down the forearm and lead to weakness of grip strength and difficulty in carrying objects. On examination, there is tenderness in the lateral epicondyle over the extensor mass, but no swelling or pain when flexing and extending the elbow. Treatment for lateral epicondylitis involves rest and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as first-line therapy, with physiotherapy recommended if there is no response after six weeks. Corticosteroid injections may be considered, but are unlikely to affect long-term outcomes. In contrast, medial epicondylitis affects the flexor-pronator muscles at their origin on the medial epicondyle, causing pain in that area. Treatment for both conditions is similar, involving rest and NSAIDs initially, with physiotherapy if necessary. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, presents with joint stiffness and reduced range of motion, and is not evident in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 78
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and a facial rash and is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Her rheumatologist initiates treatment with hydroxychloroquine. What is the most crucial parameter to monitor during her treatment?
Your Answer: Visual acuity
Explanation:The use of hydroxychloroquine can lead to a serious and irreversible retinopathy.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 79
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain. She has previously sought medical attention for this issue, but her high BMI of 30 kg/m² was deemed to be the cause and weight loss was recommended. Upon examination, the doctor notes a significant effusion in her left knee and limited range of motion. The metacarpophalangeal joints in her right hand appear swollen and her fingers have a sausage-like appearance. Her left hand does not show any obvious deformities. The patient has tested positive for HLA-B27 and has a blood pressure of 138/87 mmHg and a temperature of 36.7ºC. Based on this information, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur without prior psoriatic skin lesions and is often associated with dactylitis, also known as ‘sausage fingers’. HLA-B27 is commonly found in patients with psoriatic arthritis. Gout is unlikely in a woman under 60 and typically affects the big toe joint. Rheumatoid arthritis is also unlikely as it causes symmetrical polyarthritis and is associated with HLA-DRB1 rather than HLA-B27. Therefore, given the patient’s age, sex, dactylitis, and nail changes, psoriatic arthritis is a more likely diagnosis.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 80
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with a history of symptoms that highly resemble rheumatoid arthritis.
Which one of the following X-ray findings would indicate a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis
Explanation:Common X-Ray Findings in Arthritis
Arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. X-rays are often used to diagnose and monitor arthritis, as they can reveal changes in the bones and joints. Here are some common X-ray findings in arthritis:
Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia: This is an early X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by a loss of bone density around the joints.
Loss of joint space: Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint space narrowing, which occurs when the cartilage no longer keeps the bones a normal distance apart. This can be painful, as the bones rub or put too much pressure on each other.
Osteophytes: These are bony lumps (bone spurs) that grow on the bones of the spine or around the joints. They often form next to joints affected by osteoarthritis.
Subchondral cysts: This is a feature of a degenerative process (osteoarthritis). A subchondral cyst is a fluid-filled space inside a joint that extends from one of the bones that form the joint.
Subchondral sclerosis: This is a thickening of bone that happens in joints affected by osteoarthritis.
Overall, X-rays can provide valuable information about the progression of arthritis and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 81
Correct
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You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing hip discomfort. Do you suspect osteoarthritis as the diagnosis? If so, what signs or symptoms would warrant additional testing for a different diagnosis?
Your Answer: Morning stiffness lasting 4 hours
Explanation:If morning stiffness persists for more than 2 hours, it could be a sign of inflammatory arthritis and should be investigated further.
Osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip is a prevalent condition, with the knee being the only joint more commonly affected. It is particularly prevalent in older individuals, and women are twice as likely to develop it. Obesity and developmental dysplasia of the hip are also risk factors. The condition is characterized by chronic groin pain that is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest. However, if the pain is present at rest, at night, or in the morning for more than two hours, it may indicate an alternative cause. The Oxford Hip Score is a widely used tool to assess the severity of the condition.
If the symptoms are typical, a clinical diagnosis can be made. Otherwise, plain x-rays are the first-line investigation. Management of OA of the hip includes oral analgesia and intra-articular injections, which provide short-term relief. However, total hip replacement is the definitive treatment.
Total hip replacement is a common operation in the developed world, but it is not without risks. Perioperative complications include venous thromboembolism, intraoperative fracture, nerve injury, surgical site infection, and leg length discrepancy. Postoperatively, posterior dislocation may occur during extremes of hip flexion, presenting with a clunk, pain, and inability to weight bear. Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for revision, and prosthetic joint infection is also a potential complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 82
Correct
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A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph confirms mild osteoarthritis. What is the best initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Topical ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Osteoarthritis: A Guide to Medications and Lifestyle Changes
When it comes to managing osteoarthritis (OA), there are a variety of treatment options available. However, not all treatments are created equal. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for OA to hands and knees is with a topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or oral paracetamol. Oral NSAIDs are considered the second-line treatment choice, to be used only after inadequate response to oral paracetamol or topical NSAIDs.
It’s important to note that nutraceuticals, including oral glucosamine and chondroitin, should not be offered for OA management. Instead, other treatment options initially include weight loss and exercise encouragement.
If medication is necessary, topical ibuprofen and paracetamol should be considered first line, ahead of oral NSAIDs or opioids. Oral NSAIDs, such as diclofenac with omeprazole, ibuprofen, and naproxen, are second line and should be given at the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) cover may be indicated for oral NSAIDs.
In summary, managing OA requires a multifaceted approach that includes lifestyle changes and medication when necessary. By following NICE guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals with OA can find relief and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 83
Correct
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A 55-year-old man, who lives alone, complains of pain in his right knee. He finds it difficult to walk long distances. A recent knee radiograph showed signs of osteoarthritis (OA). Examination revealed mild medial joint line tenderness and stable ligaments. His body mass index (BMI) is 25.
What would be the treatment of choice for this patient?Your Answer: Paracetamol with topical NSAIDs
Explanation:Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. There are various management strategies for OA, including pharmacological and non-pharmacological approaches.
Paracetamol with Topical NSAIDs
The first-line management strategy for knee and hand OA is to use paracetamol with topical NSAIDs, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.Oral NSAIDs
Oral NSAIDs should be used with caution in the elderly and those with renal disease. Topical NSAIDs are preferred in the first instance. If they are ineffective, oral NSAIDs may be used at the lowest effective dose, for the shortest period of time, and with a protein pump inhibitor co-prescribed.Oral NSAIDs with Gastric Protection
Oral NSAIDs can be given with gastric protection if topical NSAIDs plus paracetamol provide insufficient analgesia. However, it is not the first-line recommendation for relief of pain in osteoarthritis.Arthrodesis of the Knee Joint
Surgical management of OA is typically with joint replacement. Surgery may only be considered in those patients in whom non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures have proved ineffective and there is severe pain with functional limitation.Weight Loss and Physiotherapy
Weight loss and physiotherapy are part of the non-pharmacological management for OA. However, weight loss is only appropriate in those with a BMI of over 25 (overweight or obese). Physiotherapy and gentle exercise should be recommended to all patients with OA, regardless of age, pain severity, co-morbidity, or disability.Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 84
Correct
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A patient in his late 60s with advanced prostate cancer and bone metastases receives intravenous zoledronic acid for pain and bone fractures. However, he presents to the emergency department three days later with muscle spasms, body aches, and tingling around his lips. Additionally, he reports worsening nausea and vomiting since the day after the infusion. What are the expected serum study results for this patient?
Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct any hypocalcemia or vitamin D deficiency in the patient. This is especially important for patients with metastatic prostate cancer who may experience symptoms such as muscle spasms, tingling sensations, and nausea/vomiting, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. Bisphosphonates like zoledronic acid reduce bone turnover, which can further exacerbate the effects of calcium or vitamin D deficiency on serum calcium levels. Hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hypernatremia are unlikely to occur as a result of bisphosphonate therapy and are therefore incorrect options.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of fever.
On examination, the patient has bilateral conjunctival injection, a maculopapular rash across her trunk, and erythematous extremities. Her chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Her lips look cracked, and her tongue looks erythematous. She has no palpable lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following blood test results would support the likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP), normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis and Blood Test Results
Kawasaki disease is a clinical diagnosis that presents with a persistent fever and at least four of the following five criteria: bilateral conjunctival injection, polymorphous rash, oral changes, oedema and erythema in hands/feet, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Thrombocytosis is a common non-specific change seen in Kawasaki disease, and blood tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function, lipid profile, C-reactive protein (CRP), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can support the diagnosis, assess severity, and monitor disease and treatment. Neutropenia is not usually associated with Kawasaki disease, and a raised white cell count with a relative neutrophilia is commonly seen. An elevated CRP with a normal ESR or an elevated ESR with a normal CRP would not be expected in Kawasaki disease, as both markers reflect acute inflammation. Kawasaki disease is associated with normocytic anaemia, but not macrocytic anaemia. It is important to arrange an echocardiogram as soon as possible to look for any initial evidence of coronary artery aneurysm, a common complication of Kawasaki disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 86
Incorrect
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You are asked to evaluate a 60-year-old man who has been experiencing increasing dryness in his eyes and mouth for several years but has not sought medical attention for it. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, as well as ongoing arthralgia in his large joints. At the age of 42, he underwent an ileocaecal resection due to Crohn's disease. Which of his risk factors is most closely linked to Sjogren's syndrome?
Your Answer: Male sex
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis cases are often accompanied by Sjogren’s syndrome, which primarily affects women aged 40 to 60. This condition is characterized by arthralgia and sicca symptoms such as dry mouth and dry eyes. Other connective tissue disorders, as well as SLE, are also linked to Sjogren’s syndrome.
Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It is an autoimmune disorder that can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The onset of the condition usually occurs around ten years after the initial onset of the primary disease. Sjogren’s syndrome is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with this condition have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, check for hypergammaglobulinaemia, and low C4. Nearly 50% of patients with Sjogren’s syndrome test positive for rheumatoid factor, while 70% test positive for ANA. Additionally, 70% of patients with primary Sjogren’s syndrome have anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and 30% have anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
The management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears to alleviate dryness. Pilocarpine may also be used to stimulate saliva production. Understanding the symptoms and management of Sjogren’s syndrome is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure proper treatment and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 87
Correct
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Which X-ray alteration is not linked to osteoarthritis?
Your Answer: Periarticular erosions
Explanation:X-Ray Changes in Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the most common diagnostic tools used to identify osteoarthritis is an X-ray. X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by the acronym LOSS, which stands for loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.
Loss of joint space refers to the narrowing of the space between the bones in a joint. This occurs as the cartilage that cushions the joint wears away, causing the bones to rub against each other. Osteophytes are bony growths that form at the edges of the joint. These growths can cause pain and limit joint movement. Subchondral sclerosis is a hardening of the bone beneath the cartilage. This occurs as the bone tries to compensate for the loss of cartilage. Subchondral cysts are fluid-filled sacs that form in the bone beneath the cartilage. These cysts can cause pain and further damage to the joint.
In summary, X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by LOSS: loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. These changes can help doctors diagnose and monitor the progression of osteoarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
ALP 340 U/l
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 89
Correct
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A 70-year-old man complains of back pain that occurs during walking. Upon obtaining a thorough medical history and conducting a neurological and vascular assessment, the possibility of spinal stenosis is considered. Following the prescription of pain relief medication, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer for MRI
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes, an MRI is necessary for this presentation.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 90
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman complains of right elbow discomfort for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is tenderness on the lateral aspect of the forearm and pain on passive extension of the wrist, with the elbow fully extended. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Tennis elbow
Explanation:Tennis elbow is inflammation of the wrist extensor tendon at the insertion site into the lateral epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates down the forearm. Cubital tunnel syndrome is compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing sensory changes and weakness of hand muscles. Carpal tunnel syndrome is compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing paraesthesia and motor deficits in the first three digits. Golfer’s elbow is inflammation of the wrist flexor tendon at the site of insertion into the medial epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates into the forearm. Olecranon bursitis is inflammation of the bursa overlying the olecranon process, causing a swelling that may be tender or painless.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been experiencing pain in his distal right thigh for the past two weeks, which worsens when he runs. Upon examination, he is found to be overweight and has full mobility in his right knee. He can fully flex his right hip, but internal rotation causes discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes disease
Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children
Hip problems in children can be caused by a variety of conditions. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examinations and can be identified through positive Barlow’s and Ortolani’s tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain and viral infections.
Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can cause hip pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is another condition that typically affects children aged 10-15 years, particularly those who are obese or male. It can cause knee or thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which affects four or fewer joints, is the most common type and can cause joint pain and swelling, as well as a limp. Finally, septic arthritis is an acute condition that causes hip pain and systemic upset, such as fever and severe limitation of the affected joint.
Overall, hip problems in children can have a variety of causes and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 92
Correct
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A 28-year-old presents to his General Practitioner with a 2-month history of pain in his right elbow. His GP suspects that the patient has lateral epicondylitis.
What examination findings would confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Pain worse on resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended
Explanation:Common Elbow Pain Symptoms and Their Features
Elbow pain can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some common elbow pain symptoms and their features:
1. Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow)
– Pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle
– Pain worsens on resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended
– Episodes typically last between six months and two years; patients tend to have acute pain for 6-12 weeks
– Pain aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation2. Medial Epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow)
– Pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle
– Pain aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation
– Symptoms may be accompanied by numbness/tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers due to ulnar-nerve involvement3. Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
– Initially intermittent tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers
– Pain worsens when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods
– Later numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers with associated weakness4. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
– Pain worsens when the wrists are in complete flexion for at least 30 seconds
– The Phalen test is done to investigate its presence5. Olecranon Bursitis
– Swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow with associated pain, warmth, and erythema
– Typically affects middle-aged male patientsUnderstanding Common Symptoms of Elbow Pain
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 93
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing fever and passing seven loose, bloody stools per day for the past 48 hours. The patient is diagnosed with a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis. Additionally, he has a known anaphylactic allergy to aspirin. Considering his medical history, which medication should be approached with the most caution when treating this patient?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 94
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with dizzy spells and a swollen left calf. She has a postural drop in systolic blood pressure of >20 mmHg, low platelet count, and abnormal sodium and potassium levels. She has also had three spontaneous miscarriages and exhibits jerky explosive movements of her limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Thrombocytopenia, Deep Vein Thrombosis, Recurrent Miscarriages, and Chorea
Antiphospholipid Syndrome:
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a disorder characterized by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies that cause thrombosis and recurrent miscarriages. The patient’s symptoms of deep vein thrombosis, three spontaneous miscarriages, and chorea are consistent with this diagnosis. The blood test shows thrombocytopenia, which is also a common finding in antiphospholipid syndrome. The diagnosis requires a positive test on at least two occasions, 6 weeks apart, in one or more of the antiphospholipid antibody assays. Treatment involves lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin in patients with a history of thrombosis.Uncontrolled Epilepsy:
The patient’s explosive jerky movements of the limbs may indicate poorly controlled epilepsy. However, this diagnosis does not explain all of her other symptoms.Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP):
ITP is a disorder that causes a low platelet count and a characteristic purpuric rash. However, the absence of a rash and the multitude of other clinical signs make a diagnosis of ITP insufficient to explain the patient’s presentation.Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH):
SIADH is a disorder that causes water retention and hyponatremia. However, the patient’s symptoms do not fit with this diagnosis.Dehydration:
Severe dehydration may present with postural hypotension and an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, dehydration alone cannot explain the patient’s other symptoms.Conclusion:
Based on the patient’s clinical features, antiphospholipid syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. Further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 95
Correct
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As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked to assess a twenty-six-year-old man who fell on his right ankle while intoxicated last night. According to the patient, he was able to bear weight after the incident and continued his night out. However, he woke up the next day with ankle swelling and pain. Upon examination, you observed minimal swelling and bruising, but there is general tenderness and good mobility. What imaging modality would you recommend for this case?
Your Answer: No imaging
Explanation:The Ottowa ankle rules specify that imaging is necessary after trauma if there is point tenderness over the distal 6 cm of the lateral or medial malleolus, or an inability to bear weight by at least four steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department. X-ray is the recommended first-line imaging. As this patient does not exhibit any of these indications, an x-ray is not needed.
Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries
The Ottawa Rules provide a guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary after an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate. An ankle x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone or medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.
The lateral malleolar zone is from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the fibular, while the medial malleolar zone is from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia. These rules help healthcare professionals determine whether an ankle x-ray is necessary, which can save time and resources. It is important to note that there are also Ottawa rules available for foot and knee injuries. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide efficient and effective care for ankle injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man complains of pain and redness around his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Causes of Gout: Medications and Other Factors
Gout is a type of joint inflammation that occurs due to the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricemia, which is characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood (above 0.45 mmol/l).
Several medications and other factors can contribute to the development of gout. Diuretics such as thiazides and furosemide, as well as immunosuppressant drugs like ciclosporin, can increase the risk of gout. Alcohol consumption, cytotoxic agents, and pyrazinamide are also known to be associated with gout.
In addition, low-dose aspirin has been found to increase the risk of gout attacks, according to a systematic review. However, this risk needs to be weighed against the cardiovascular benefits of aspirin. Patients who are prescribed allopurinol, a medication used to treat gout, are not at an increased risk of gout attacks when taking low-dose aspirin.
Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential causes of gout, including medications and lifestyle factors, in order to prevent and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 97
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.
What is the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Use the FRAX tool
Explanation:Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.
Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.
NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.
If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 98
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for the last month without any apparent cause. During examination, she experiences pain when resisting wrist extension while the elbow is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Explanation:Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 99
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents with inner elbow and forearm pain that started after building a bookcase at home three days ago. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. During the examination, you notice tenderness in the medial elbow joint and the patient reports discomfort when resisting wrist pronation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Golfer's elbow
Explanation:Epicondylitis results from repetitive stress that leads to inflammation of the common extensor tendon located at the epicondyle. Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfer’s elbow, causes tenderness at the medial epicondyle and results in wrist pain on resisted pronation. Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, causes tenderness at the lateral epicondyle and results in elbow pain on resisted extension of the wrist.
Common Causes of Elbow Pain
Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.
Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.
Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.
Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients. Understanding the characteristic features of these conditions can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 100
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder girdle and low-grade fevers that have persisted for three weeks. He also mentions experiencing a brief loss of vision in his left eye. Based on the probable diagnosis, what laboratory test would be the most effective for diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Explanation:The diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica primarily relies on the detection of elevated inflammatory markers.
Among the laboratory tests, the most valuable in diagnosing PMR is the measurement of ESR levels.
Although CK and electromyography are commonly used in diagnosing muscle disorders, they may not be helpful in detecting PMR.
While CPR and white cell count may show increased levels in PMR, they are not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis.Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 101
Correct
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As a general practice doctor, you are attending to a 55-year-old man who has come in as a same-day emergency with new pain in his right leg and foot. The pain has been present for the past 48 hours and is worse at night. He reports that the pain is in the outer side of his calf and the top of his foot and toes. The patient has a medical history of osteoarthritis, gout, and hypertension, and is currently taking paracetamol, amlodipine, naproxen, allopurinol, and omeprazole.
Upon examination, there is no tenderness or joint deformity in the ankle or foot. The patient has limited movement of the ankle and experiences pain when dorsiflexing his foot. There is slightly altered sensation over the dorsum of his foot, but sensation in the rest of his leg is normal. Bilateral palpable dorsalis pedis pulses are present.
What is the most likely cause of this man's leg pain?Your Answer: L5 radiculopathy
Explanation:Nerve root pain can be identified by its distribution along the lateral calf and dorsum of the foot, as well as the presence of a neurological deficit such as sensory changes and weakness. This suggests that the L5 nerve is affected.
In contrast, joint diseases like gout and osteoarthritis typically cause pain localized to the affected joint, without any specific distribution on the foot. There is also no associated sensory loss, and movement of the joint is limited in all directions, not just dorsiflexion.
Peripheral vascular disease or deep vein thrombosis can cause symptoms throughout the entire limb, without any discernible distribution. While arterial disease may cause calf pain, it does not lateralize to the medial or lateral side of the calf. Additionally, if the foot is affected, the pain and sensory changes will be present on both the dorsum and sole.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. What is the most crucial side-effect to caution her about?
Your Answer: Sore throat
Correct Answer: Heartburn
Explanation:Patients starting bisphosphonates should be warned about potential oesophageal problems, particularly with alendronate. Any new symptoms following the introduction of this drug should be reviewed by a medical professional.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 103
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a pulsating headache and tenderness on palpation of the same area. He complains of pain in his jaw while eating.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Start oral steroids
Explanation:Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible loss of vision. The following are the appropriate steps in managing a patient with suspected GCA:
Prompt Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
1. Start oral steroids immediately: Delaying treatment can lead to vision loss. Steroids should be initiated even before the diagnosis is confirmed by temporal artery biopsy.
2. Admit and start on methotrexate if necessary: Patients on steroids are at high risk of side effects. Methotrexate or tocilizumab can be used in those who have steroid toxicity, along with tapering doses of steroids.
3. Arrange an urgent temporal artery biopsy: This is the gold-standard investigation for GCA. However, treatment should not be delayed till after the biopsy.
4. Do not refer to a rheumatologist on an outpatient basis: A rheumatologist will eventually be involved in the management of GCA, but immediate treatment is necessary.
5. Do not arrange an MRI scan of the brain: This is not indicated in the usual evaluation of GCA. It is used in specific cases of extracranial GCA or when there is strong clinical suspicion but a negative temporal artery biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral leg weakness, and back pain. The medical team suspects a spinal epidural abscess. What imaging test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: MRI lumbar/sacral spine
Correct Answer: MRI whole spine
Explanation:When there is suspicion of a spinal epidural abscess, a complete MRI of the spine is necessary to detect any skip lesions.
To accurately diagnose a spinal epidural abscess, a full spine MRI is essential. Neither plain x-rays nor CT scans can effectively identify the abscess. It is necessary to scan the entire spine, not just the suspected area, as there may be multiple separate abscesses that are not connected. The MRI should be requested and performed as soon as possible.
Understanding Spinal Epidural Abscess
A spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a serious condition that occurs when pus collects in the spinal epidural space, which is the area surrounding the spinal cord. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. SEA can be caused by bacteria that enters the spinal epidural space through contiguous spread from adjacent structures, haematogenous spread from concomitant infection, or direct infection. Patients with immunosuppression are at a higher risk of developing SEA. The most common causative micro-organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms of SEA include fever, back pain, and focal neurological deficits according to the segment of the cord affected.
To diagnose SEA, doctors may perform blood tests, blood cultures, and an infection screen. An MRI of the whole spine is necessary to identify the extent of the abscess. If the primary source of infection is not clear, further investigations may be required, such as echocardiography and dental x-rays. Treatment for SEA involves a long-term course of antibiotics, which may be refined based on culture results. Patients with large or compressive abscesses, significant or progressive neurological deficits, or those who are not responding to antibiotics alone may require surgical evacuation of the abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 105
Correct
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A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with right foot drop and numbness in her right hand, with thenar eminence wasting and sensory loss over the radial half of her hand.
Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate cause from the list below.Your Answer: Mononeuritis multiplex
Explanation:Neuropathies: Causes and Symptoms
Neuropathies are a group of disorders that affect the peripheral nervous system. Here are some common causes and symptoms of different types of neuropathies:
Mononeuritis Multiplex:
This neuropathy affects two or more non-anatomically related peripheral nerves. It is caused by vasculopathy of the vasa nervorum or infiltration of the nerves. Common causes include diabetes mellitus, leprosy, polyarteritis nodosa, and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include multiple concurrent peripheral nerve lesions without pain or paraesthesiae.Peripheral Sensory Neuropathy:
This neuropathy is most commonly caused by diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2) in the United Kingdom. It affects the sensory nerves and does not involve motor functions. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.Entrapment Neuropathy:
This neuropathy is caused by compression of peripheral nerves due to hypertrophied synovium or joint subluxation. It usually affects only one part of the body. The most common nerve compressions are cubital tunnel and carpal tunnel syndromes. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.Myasthenia Gravis (MG):
This autoimmune disorder affects the neuromuscular junction and causes fatigability of the muscle. It commonly affects the extraocular, bulbar, face, and neck muscles. Symptoms do not include pain or sensory loss, and wasting is only seen very late in the disease.Multiple Sclerosis:
This autoimmune disorder affects the central nervous system and causes spasticity, ataxia, and paraesthesiae in the affected limbs. It commonly affects the optic nerve, causing optic neuritis. Peripheral nerve involvement is not seen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 106
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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