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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of psoriasis presents with pain in his left knee, middle finger, and heel. He reports a family history of psoriasis. During examination, red, inflamed, and silvery plaques are observed on his elbows and scalp. Additionally, there is tenderness and swelling in the affected joints. What HLA haplotype is linked to his joint pain?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is often observed in individuals who possess the HLA-B27 antigen, as evidenced by the presence of asymmetrical and oligoarticular arthritis with enthesitis in the left heel, along with a history of psoriasis and a familial predisposition to the condition.

      HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens

      HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).

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  • Question 2 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center who is experiencing decreased sensation in her fingers and toes. She has just commenced vincristine therapy and is curious if her symptoms could be related to the medication.

      During which phase of the cell cycle does this drug exert its action?

      Your Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      During metaphase, Vincristine, a dimeric catharanthus alkaloid, binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubules in actively dividing cells. This action makes it an effective treatment for cancers such as leukaemias, lymphomas, and advanced-stage breast cancer. However, its use is limited by its neurotoxicity, which mainly manifests as peripheral neuropathy. Vincristine’s toxicity affects small sensory fibres and causes axonal neuropathy due to the disruption of microtubules within axons and interference with axonal transport. Paraesthesia in the fingertips and feet is usually the earliest symptom experienced by patients, and almost all patients experience some degree of neuropathy.

      Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division

      Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.

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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a severe headache, fevers,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a severe headache, fevers, and photophobia. During the consultation, she suddenly loses consciousness and is found to be in asystole. While the medical team administers CPR, a rash appears on her forehead and rapidly spreads over her torso. Upon examination, the rash is non-blanching. Despite resuscitation efforts, she is pronounced dead an hour later. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Explanation:

      Individuals between the ages of 6 and 60 are susceptible to meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis. Symptoms such as fever, headache, and sensitivity to light may indicate the presence of meningitis. In older children, bacterial infections are often caused by Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae, while Campylobacter may also be a factor.

      Meningitis is a serious medical condition that can be caused by various types of bacteria. The causes of meningitis differ depending on the age of the patient and their immune system. In neonates (0-3 months), the most common cause of meningitis is Group B Streptococcus, followed by E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes. In children aged 3 months to 6 years, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causes. For individuals aged 6 to 60 years, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the primary causes. In those over 60 years old, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common causes. For immunosuppressed individuals, Listeria monocytogenes is the primary cause of meningitis.

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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man has been diagnosed with metastatic colorectal cancer and is prescribed...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has been diagnosed with metastatic colorectal cancer and is prescribed cetuximab. What is the specific target of this monoclonal antibody?

      Your Answer: Epidermal growth factor receptor

      Explanation:

      Cetuximab is a type of monoclonal antibody that targets the epidermal growth factor receptor.

      Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.

      However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.

      There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.

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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and haemoptysis. He also reports dark urine, reduced urine output and generally feels tired.

      On examination, he has crackles on auscultation of the chest and bipedal oedema. His heart rate is 120 beats/min, blood pressure 148/78 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min. He is apyrexial.

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 250 ”mol/L (55 - 120)

      Which antibodies characteristic of this condition are targeted, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Streptolysin O

      Correct Answer: Collagen type IV

      Explanation:

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by autoantibodies targeting collagen type IV, specifically anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies (anti-GBM). This condition is characterized by symptoms such as cough, haemoptysis, crackles on auscultation, oedema, and impaired renal function.

      In contrast, anti-dsDNA antibodies target double-stranded DNA and are commonly found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which presents with rash, photosensitivity, hair loss, and other systemic signs.

      p-ANCA antibodies typically target myeloperoxidase and are associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), which presents with a history of asthma and/or allergic rhinitis.

      c-ANCA antibodies target proteinase 3 and are associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with sinusitis and other upper airway signs.

      Antibodies against streptolysin O are involved in the immune response against streptococcal infection and are associated with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which is preceded by streptococcal infection and presents with renal impairment but not the other symptoms seen in Goodpasture’s syndrome.

      Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders

      Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.

      Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.

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  • Question 6 - A group of researchers and physicians are working on a novel screening method...

    Incorrect

    • A group of researchers and physicians are working on a novel screening method for detecting pancreatic cancer at an early stage. The trial for this test is underway, and initial findings regarding its accuracy have been released:

      Condition present Condition absent
      Positive test 70 25
      Negative test 10 60

      What is the sensitivity of the new test, rounded to two decimal places?

      Your Answer: 0.72

      Correct Answer: 0.84

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old girl comes to the hospital with symptoms indicating Turner syndrome. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl comes to the hospital with symptoms indicating Turner syndrome. What is the underlying genetic cause of this disorder?

      Your Answer: X linked defect

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant defect

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is typically the result of a random mutation and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that causes short stature due to abnormal cartilage development. It is caused by a mutation in the FGFR-3 gene and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The condition is characterized by short limbs with shortened fingers, a large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis. In most cases, it occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age being a risk factor.

      There is currently no specific treatment for achondroplasia. However, some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures, which involve the use of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures. It is important to have a clearly defined need and end point for these procedures in order to achieve success.

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  • Question 8 - A 43-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of night sweats and coughing up...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of night sweats and coughing up blood for the past 6 weeks. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and has recently moved to the country from Bangladesh without receiving any childhood vaccinations. During the examination, the doctor notices painful, bruise-like marks on the man's shins. The sputum test reveals the presence of acid-fast bacilli, and the doctor prescribes isoniazid. What is the most common side effect associated with this medication?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a known side effect of isoniazid.

      Explanation: The input statement is already correct and does not need to be rewritten. The output statement simply restates the main point of the input statement in a concise and clear manner.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 9 - A young surgical trainee is preparing for her first hemi arthroplasty for a...

    Correct

    • A young surgical trainee is preparing for her first hemi arthroplasty for a fractured neck of femur. During the pre-operative assessment, the patient reports a possible history of penicillin allergy, but due to the patient's confusion, the history is not confirmed. In the anaesthetic room, the patient is given 1.2g intravenous co-amoxiclav. Suddenly, the patient experiences severe respiratory distress and haemodynamic collapse. What pathological process could be responsible for this event?

      Your Answer: Recognition of the drug by IgE receptors on mast cells

      Explanation:

      Anaphylactic shock occurs when an antigen is recognized by IgE molecules on mast cells, leading to their rapid degranulation and the release of histamine and other inflammatory cytokines.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with worsening left knee pain over...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with worsening left knee pain over the past six weeks and fever for the past two weeks. She has a heart rate of 100/min, respiratory rate of 18/min, temperature of 39.2ÂșC, blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 97%. A pink rash is visible on her chest. Canakinumab is prescribed for suspected systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis.

      What is the mode of action of canakinumab?

      Your Answer: Targets IL-1ÎČ

      Explanation:

      Canakinumab is an IL-1ÎČ antagonist monoclonal antibody that targets IL-1 beta. It is approved for use in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease.

      The Role of Interleukin 1 in the Immune Response

      Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a crucial mediator of the immune response, secreted primarily by macrophages and monocytes. Its main function is to act as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation. Additionally, IL-1 increases the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This can cause shock in sepsis, making IL-1 one of the mediators of this condition. Along with IL-6 and TNF, IL-1 also acts on the hypothalamus, causing pyrexia.

      Due to its significant role in the immune response, IL-1 inhibitors are increasingly used in medicine. Examples of these inhibitors include anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, and canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta used in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease. These inhibitors help to regulate the immune response and manage conditions where IL-1 plays a significant role.

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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of fevers, night sweats, and haemoptysis...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of fevers, night sweats, and haemoptysis that have persisted for three weeks. He recently moved to the country from Bangladesh and did not receive any childhood vaccinations. The patient's medical history is otherwise unremarkable. During the examination, the doctor notices tender bruise-like lesions on the man's anterior shins. Sputum microscopy reveals acid-fast bacilli, and the doctor prescribes isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of isoniazid is the inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis. This is relevant to the patient’s presentation of tuberculosis, as Mycobacterium tuberculosis has mycolic acids in its cell wall. Isoniazid affects cell wall integrity by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are responsible for the acid-fast staining of the bacteria.

      It is important to note that the mechanisms of other antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides, are different and not relevant to this case. Rifampicin, another antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, works by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 12 - A 52-year-old man with a history of small cell lung cancer presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man with a history of small cell lung cancer presents to the hospital with a productive cough after his first round of chemotherapy. During examination, left basal inspiratory crackles are noted. His vital signs are heart rate 81/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 118/74 mmHg, saturations 96% on air, and temperature 38.1 ÂșC. Which cytokine is most likely responsible for his elevated temperature?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-2

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-6

      Explanation:

      IL-6 is primarily responsible for inducing fever. It is produced by macrophages and helps to stimulate the differentiation of B cells. In this case, the patient has recently undergone chemotherapy and is presenting with a fever, which may indicate neutropenic sepsis. However, further investigations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Interferon-Îł is a cytokine produced by Th1 cells that activates macrophages.

      IL-2 is produced by T helper 1 cells and promotes the growth and development of various immune cells in the T cell response.

      IL-4 is produced by T helper 2 cells and activates B cells. It can also induce differentiation of CD4+ T cells into T helper 2 cells.

      IL-10 is an anti-inflammatory cytokine produced by both macrophages and T helper 2 cells. It inhibits cytokine production from T helper 1 cells.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

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  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old girl is being treated by a rheumatologist for chronic knee pain,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is being treated by a rheumatologist for chronic knee pain, fever, and rash. The diagnosis is Still's disease and the doctor prescribes canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody. What is the specific site of action for this medication?

      Your Answer: Interleukin 1 (IL-1)

      Explanation:

      Canakinumab is a monoclonal antibody that specifically targets interleukin-1 beta receptor binding. Interleukin-1 beta is a potent pro-inflammatory cytokine that triggers an immune response when released in response to an insult to the innate immune system. Canakinumab is not commonly prescribed and is indicated for Still’s disease and gouty arthritis in patients who have not responded to other treatments. It is important to note that infliximab, not canakinumab, targets tissue necrosis factor and is prescribed for a different set of conditions.

      The Role of Interleukin 1 in the Immune Response

      Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a crucial mediator of the immune response, secreted primarily by macrophages and monocytes. Its main function is to act as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation. Additionally, IL-1 increases the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This can cause shock in sepsis, making IL-1 one of the mediators of this condition. Along with IL-6 and TNF, IL-1 also acts on the hypothalamus, causing pyrexia.

      Due to its significant role in the immune response, IL-1 inhibitors are increasingly used in medicine. Examples of these inhibitors include anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, and canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta used in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease. These inhibitors help to regulate the immune response and manage conditions where IL-1 plays a significant role.

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  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old woman with Kearns-Sayre syndrome, a rare mitochondrial disease, visits her doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with Kearns-Sayre syndrome, a rare mitochondrial disease, visits her doctor with her husband. They are worried about the possibility of having a child with the same condition. The husband does not have mitochondrial disease.

      What is the likelihood of the couple having a child with Kearns-Sayre syndrome?

      Your Answer: The child has a 50% chance of being affected

      Correct Answer: The child is at no increased risk compared to the general population

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that they are only passed down through the mother’s ovum. As a result, there is no heightened risk for children if only the father has the disease. However, new mutations can still cause mitochondrial diseases, so the risk for potential offspring is the same as that of the general population.

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male presents for an elective cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers the necessary...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents for an elective cholecystectomy. The anaesthetist administers the necessary medications, including an antiemetic, before the surgery. However, after 10 minutes, the patient experiences upward eye deviation and muscle spasms in the neck and arms. An IV injection of procyclidine is given.

      What is the mechanism of action of procyclidine?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic antagonist

      Explanation:

      Procyclidine is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier and acts as a muscarinic antagonist. It is commonly used to alleviate oculogyric crisis, which is caused by an excess of cholinergic activity at the neuromuscular junction due to dopamine deficiency resulting from the administration of dopamine D2 antagonists like metoclopramide. Procyclidine works by reducing cholinergic transmission in such cases.

      Understanding Oculogyric Crisis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Oculogyric crisis is a medical condition characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes, often accompanied by restlessness and agitation. This condition is usually triggered by certain drugs or medical conditions, such as antipsychotics, metoclopramide, and postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease.

      The symptoms of oculogyric crisis can be distressing and uncomfortable for the patient. They may experience a sudden and uncontrollable movement of their eyes, which can cause discomfort and disorientation. In some cases, the patient may also feel restless and agitated, making it difficult for them to focus or relax.

      To manage oculogyric crisis, doctors may prescribe intravenous antimuscarinic medications such as benztropine or procyclidine. These drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in muscle movement. By reducing the activity of acetylcholine, these medications can help to alleviate the symptoms of oculogyric crisis and restore normal eye movement.

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  • Question 16 - A 24-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after falling off...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after falling off a roof and has been diagnosed with a Colles' fracture by the radiologist. The medical team plans to perform a closed reduction of the fracture, and they intend to use a haematoma block with lidocaine to facilitate a quick and painless reduction. What is a potential side effect that may occur after a haematoma block with lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Mental status change

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine has been known to affect mental status by crossing the blood-brain barrier quickly and blocking inhibitory neurons in the brain. This can lead to a decrease in seizure threshold and a decline in mental function. While hypertension is a recognized side effect of lidocaine, it does not cause hypotension. While constipation can be a side effect of lidocaine, it is not known to cause diarrhea. While there is no evidence to suggest that lidocaine causes sexual dysfunction, it is used in the treatment of premature ejaculation. Lidocaine is a class 1b anti-arrhythmic drug used to treat ventricular arrhythmias and does not cause them.

      Overview of Local Anaesthetic Agents

      Local anaesthetic agents are drugs that block nerve impulses and provide pain relief in a specific area of the body. Lidocaine is a commonly used amide local anaesthetic that is also used as an antiarrhythmic drug. It is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and excreted in the urine. Toxicity can occur with excessive administration or in patients with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Acidosis can also cause lidocaine to detach from protein binding. Treatment for local anaesthetic toxicity involves the use of IV 20% lipid emulsion. Drug interactions with lidocaine include beta blockers, ciprofloxacin, and phenytoin. Cocaine is another local anaesthetic agent that is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lidocaine and is useful for topical wound infiltration. However, it is cardiotoxic and contraindicated in regional blockage. Levobupivacaine is a less cardiotoxic alternative. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic than other local anaesthetic agents and is preferred for intravenous regional anaesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anaesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants. The maximum total doses of local anaesthetic agents depend on the type of drug and are based on ideal body weight.

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  • Question 17 - A patient who drinks alcohol wants to know by how many years drinking...

    Correct

    • A patient who drinks alcohol wants to know by how many years drinking will reduce his lifespan. You explain that it is not possible to determine this precisely for him but you can tell him what proportion of deaths in drinkers happen due to their alcohol consumption. Select the epidemiological term that describes this and its correct definition.

      Your Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      The rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group is known as the attributable risk. This measure helps determine the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that can be attributed to the exposure. On the other hand, relative risk compares the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group to that of the unexposed group. Lastly, the attributable proportion indicates the percentage of disease that could be eliminated in a population if the disease rate in the exposed group was reduced to that of the unexposed group.

      Understanding Disease Rates and Relative Risk

      Disease rates are measurements used to monitor and establish causation of diseases, as well as to evaluate interventions. These rates are calculated by comparing the number of individuals with a disease to the total population. The attributable risk is a measure of the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that were caused by the exposure. It is calculated by subtracting the rate of the disease in the unexposed group from the rate in the exposed group.

      The relative risk, also known as the risk ratio, is a measure of the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of the disease in the exposed group by the rate in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 indicates no difference between the two groups, while a relative risk of less than 1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, and a relative risk of greater than 1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group.

      The population attributable risk is a measure of the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It is calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group. Understanding these measures is important for evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and identifying risk factors for diseases.

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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old American sheep farmer comes to an outpatient liver ultrasound as part...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old American sheep farmer comes to an outpatient liver ultrasound as part of a work-up for suspected non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. He initially visited his primary care physician (PCP) with mild abdominal tenderness and occasional nausea and vomiting. The ultrasound report shows septated cysts with 'multiple anechoic areas, echogenic material between cysts, and evidence of a double echogenic shadow (likely due to pericyst presence)' and suggests a possible differential diagnosis of hydatid disease.

      Which of the listed organisms is the probable cause of this farmer's condition?

      Your Answer: Echinococcus granulosus

      Explanation:

      A sheep farmer has been diagnosed with hepatic cysts on ultrasound, which is caused by Echinococcus granulosus tapeworms. This zoonotic disease is a significant public health concern, with over 1 million people affected at any given time. The tapeworm is transmitted through intermediate and definitive hosts, with herbivorous and omnivorous animals acting as intermediate hosts and carnivores as definitive hosts. Humans can become infected through close contact with intermediate hosts.

      Hydatid disease can be asymptomatic for years until cysts grow and cause clinical signs, such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Ultrasound imaging is the preferred diagnostic tool, with CT and MRI scans used as complementary tests.

      In HIV patients, Cryptococcus neoformans is the most common CNS fungal infection, which is managed with IV amphotericin B and flucytosine for 2 weeks, followed by oral fluconazole for 8 weeks.

      Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is a common parasitic infection in children that causes itching in the perianal region. Symptomatic patients and anyone living in the same residence should be treated with mebendazole due to the high transmission rates.

      Malaria, caused by Plasmodium vivax, is transmitted through mosquito bites and can lead to flu-like symptoms, such as chills, fever, and headache. If left untreated, it can cause metabolic acidosis, respiratory distress syndrome, raised intracranial pressure, and multi-organ failure.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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  • Question 19 - A 76-year-old woman is being reviewed for her medications on the geriatrics ward....

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is being reviewed for her medications on the geriatrics ward. She has a medical history of left ventricular failure, atrial fibrillation, gout, left-sided hemianopia, hyperthyroidism, and renal colic. The medications she is taking include ramipril, atenolol, digoxin, allopurinol, warfarin, carbamazepine, and diclofenac. Can you identify which of her medications is classified as a narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drug?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin falls under the category of narrow therapeutic index drugs, which are medications that require precise dosing and blood concentration levels to avoid severe therapeutic failures or life-threatening adverse reactions. Other examples of narrow therapeutic index drugs include lithium, phenytoin, and certain antibiotics like gentamicin, vancomycin, and amikacin. In contrast, high therapeutic index drugs like NSAIDs, benzodiazepines, and beta-blockers have a wider margin of safety and are less likely to cause serious harm if dosing errors occur.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old G1P0 female, who had missed all antenatal appointments, delivers a neonate...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old G1P0 female, who had missed all antenatal appointments, delivers a neonate vaginally at 35 weeks gestation following premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM). The baby has an APGAR score of 6 and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes of life respectively. During examination in the delivery room, the baby appears lethargic, grunting with use of intercostal muscles, and has tachypnea and tachycardia. The baby's temperature is measured to be 39.1ÂșC. What is the most likely organism responsible for this baby's presentation?

      Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is commonly caused by group B streptococcus infection, which is likely the case for this baby who is exhibiting symptoms within 24 hours of birth. Symptoms of neonatal sepsis include fever, tachycardia, respiratory distress, jaundice, and seizures. The mother’s lack of antenatal appointments increases the likelihood of an untreated GBS infection. Escherichia coli is another common cause, while Listeria monocytogenes is rare and typically only seen during outbreaks. Hospital-acquired infections from coagulase-negative staphylococci are unlikely in this case as the baby has not undergone any invasive procedures.

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.

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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old female is admitted with a seizure that is unresponsive to 5...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female is admitted with a seizure that is unresponsive to 5 mg lorazepam. An IV loading dose of phenytoin is administered, followed by once daily oral maintenance dose. However, the patient later develops ataxia and nystagmus, raising concerns of phenytoin toxicity. What is the probable reason for phenytoin toxicity in this case?

      Your Answer: Zero-order elimination

      Explanation:

      Most drugs are eliminated through first order elimination kinetics when used at therapeutic concentrations. However, some drugs exhibit zero order elimination kinetics, which occurs when the clearance rate is dependent on a saturable enzyme system. Once the system is saturated, the clearance rate remains constant, leading to a higher risk of drug toxicity. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, alcohol, and salicylates.

      Phenytoin has an average half-life of 14 hours, which is considered long and can lead to drug accumulation. Therefore, therapeutic drug monitoring is often necessary to determine the appropriate dosing interval. Phenytoin is primarily metabolized by the liver and excreted in bile as an inactive metabolite, with minimal renal excretion. Even in cases of severe renal dysfunction, dose modification is not required.

      In the case of a patient taking a once-daily dose of phenytoin, the long half-life is unlikely to be the main factor contributing to drug toxicity. Instead, it is more likely due to the zero-order pharmacokinetics of the drug.

      Pharmacokinetics of Excretion

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.

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  • Question 22 - A 52-year-old woman presents with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhea that has been...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhea that has been bothering her for the past 12 hours. She reports that birds have been repeatedly pecking at her milk bottles, but she has not made any changes to her diet. What is the most probable organism responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is acknowledged to be present in birds as a reservoir.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue, dark urine, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue, dark urine, and pale stools after returning from a trip to Turkey. During the examination, the patient is found to be jaundiced. What is the expected incubation period of the virus that could be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: 4-6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 2-4 weeks

      Explanation:

      The typical incubation period for hepatitis A is between 2 and 4 weeks. Symptoms may include fatigue, fever, nausea, loss of appetite, jaundice, dark urine, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort. A period of 4-6 weeks would be longer than expected, while 3-5 days would be shorter. A period of 2-4 months is more commonly associated with chronic hepatitis.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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  • Question 24 - What is the cause of the tubercle bacillus' pathogenicity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of the tubercle bacillus' pathogenicity?

      Your Answer: Necrosis caused by expanding granulomas

      Correct Answer: Delayed hypersensitivity reaction against bacteria

      Explanation:

      The cell mediated immunity response to mycobacteria is targeted and effective in reducing infection, but it also causes tissue damage through delayed hypersensitivity. Although necrosis can occur in tuberculosis, it typically occurs within the granuloma.

      Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.

      Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.

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  • Question 25 - A group of educational researchers want to investigate the effect of technology use...

    Incorrect

    • A group of educational researchers want to investigate the effect of technology use on academic performance among middle school students. They plan to select high-achieving, non-tech using students and low-achieving, tech-using students for the study. Then, they will follow up with each group at a later time and compare their academic performance.

      The school review board is worried about the study's design. They note a significant risk of selection bias in this study and suggest several modifications.

      What is the particular concern of the review board?

      Your Answer: There are numerous confounders that may alter the results

      Correct Answer: There is non-random assignment of students to each group

      Explanation:

      Selection bias refers to the non-random allocation of participants to study groups, which can lead to an over or under-representation of certain groups and bias the results. In the case of this study, non-gaming students may perform better due to their prior performance, rather than their lack of gaming experience. To address this, the researchers should ensure that the prior performance of both groups is similar.

      The binary categorization of gaming and non-gaming may be imprecise, but it is not a form of bias that would significantly impact the results. To improve the study, the researchers could ask participants to report their average gaming hours and stratify accordingly.

      Reporting bias, rather than selection bias, may occur if only the best-performing gamers report their results, leading to an overestimation of the group’s ability.

      While there may be confounding variables to consider, such as mental health issues, these are not a form of selection bias.

      Attrition bias, where there is a greater loss of participants from one group compared to the other, may occur but is not a form of selection bias. In this study, poor-performing students may be more likely to drop out, leading to a potential underestimation of the effect size.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal discharge and a burning sensation while urinating. She is worried about contracting sexually transmitted infections due to a recent sexual encounter.

      During the examination, a high vaginal swab is taken, and stippled vaginal epithelial cells are observed under the microscope. Additionally, the whiff test yields a positive result.

      Which organism is the probable culprit behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, which leads to a decrease in aerobic lactobacilli and an increase in vaginal pH. Although not a sexually transmitted infection, BV is commonly found in sexually active women. Clue cells, or stippled vaginal epithelial cells, are a characteristic finding in BV, and a positive whiff test (fishy odor after the addition of potassium hydroxide) is also indicative of the condition. Yeast infections are caused by Candida, while Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and lactobacilli are naturally occurring in the vagina.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

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  • Question 27 - A 9-month old baby is brought to the GP with developmental delay, failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month old baby is brought to the GP with developmental delay, failure to thrive, and poor feeding. The infant shows reluctance to play and cannot sit independently. Physical examination reveals small hands and feet, blond hair, pale skin, and a squint. Additionally, there is poor muscle tone centrally and unilaterally undescended testes. What syndrome is indicated by these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      The key factors in this scenario are the child’s physical characteristics and developmental delays. The child is not meeting their developmental milestones in gross motor skills and social interaction, and they exhibit physical features that suggest Prader-Willi syndrome, such as hypopigmentation, esotropia, small hands and feet, loss of muscle tone, and undescended testes. Prader-Willi syndrome is also known to cause failure to thrive in the first year or so, followed by hyperphagia and obesity.

      While Klinefelter syndrome can also cause developmental delays, undescended or small testes, and reduced muscle strength, it does not typically present with the same physical features as Prader-Willi syndrome.

      Marfan syndrome is characterized by different physical features, such as long, thin fingers and cardiovascular and respiratory issues, and does not typically cause the same symptoms as Prader-Willi syndrome.

      DiGeorge syndrome can cause developmental delays, feeding difficulties, and hypotonia, but it also typically presents with facial abnormalities, hearing issues, and cardiac problems, which are not mentioned in this scenario.

      Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental delays, poor muscle tone, feeding difficulties, and growth issues, but it also typically presents with distinct facial and skeletal abnormalities that are not mentioned in this scenario. Therefore, based on the information provided, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome

      Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.

      There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome. The first is a microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases. The second is maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. This means that both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother, and there is no active Prader-Willi gene from the father.

      The features of Prader-Willi syndrome include hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence. These symptoms can vary in severity and may require lifelong management.

      In conclusion, Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic disorder that affects multiple aspects of an individual’s health and development. Understanding the causes and features of this syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.

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  • Question 28 - A 49-year-old male is set to undergo a renal biopsy the following day....

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male is set to undergo a renal biopsy the following day. He is currently taking multiple medications. The local guidelines advise stopping the use of non-reversible cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitors due to the potential for bleeding.

      What medication among the following is considered non-reversible?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Aspirin inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which are responsible for producing prostaglandins. However, due to the risk of bleeding, clinicians may discontinue the use of aspirin during certain procedures. On the other hand, celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor that does not worsen gastric ulcers. Naproxen, diclofenac, and ibuprofen also inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, but their inhibition is reversible.

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old black woman gives birth to a baby girl at 35 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old black woman gives birth to a baby girl at 35 weeks of gestation. Twenty-four hours before the delivery, the mother had presented with fever and chills and her membranes had ruptured. The weight of the baby is 2.3 kilograms. Thirty-six hours after the delivery, the baby starts experiencing difficulty in breathing with marked nasal flaring, grunting and the use of accessory respiratory muscles. The mother's prenatal screening records show colonisation of her genital tract with gram-positive bacteria. General physical examination reveals that the baby has a yellowish tinge of skin and is lethargic. Vitals show a temperature of 37.5 ÂșC, a heart rate of 170 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 70/minute.

      What is the most likely causative agent of such a presentation?

      Your Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection with group B streptococcus.

      Group B streptococci (GBS) are responsible for the majority of cases of early-onset neonatal sepsis, which occurs within 72 hours of birth. Risk factors include premature birth, prolonged rupture of membranes, maternal chorioamnionitis, low birth weight, and GBS colonisation of the maternal tract. Symptoms can vary and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, tachycardia, and fever.

      Escherichia coli is not the correct answer as it is less common than GBS and is a gram-negative bacterium, whereas GBS is gram-positive.

      Klebsiella is a cause of late-onset neonatal sepsis and is also gram-negative.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with late-onset neonatal sepsis and is also gram-negative.

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.

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  • Question 30 - A 37-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and cold intolerance.

    She has no...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and cold intolerance.

      She has no past medical history and does not take any regular medications.

      Her blood tests show the following:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 15.0 mU/L (0.5 - 5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 7.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Thyroid peroxidase antibodies 120 IU/mL (<60)

      Which type of receptor does the medication she agreed to start act on?

      Your Answer: Nuclear receptor

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors, which leads to the regulation of gene transcription and translation. This process is slower compared to other signal transduction pathways but results in a more prolonged effect. In the case of primary hypothyroidism with raised anti-TPO antibodies, which is likely due to autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s thyroiditis), levothyroxine is the standard treatment.

      Other types of receptors include G-protein coupled receptors, such as opioid receptors and beta-adrenoceptors, which trigger a sequence of events leading to the production of secondary messengers and activation of further transduction pathways. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors, such as nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and GABA receptors, open channels upon activation, allowing specific ions to pass through the cell membrane.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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