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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman who has recently found out that she is pregnant presents...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman who has recently found out that she is pregnant presents to you with concerns about her hypertension. She reports having chronic hypertension for the past two years and is currently taking lisinopril. She has no other medical issues. Her blood pressure reading today is 150/88 mmHg. She seeks your guidance on managing hypertension during pregnancy.

      What recommendation would you make?

      Your Answer: Discontinue ramipril and start labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should discontinue the use of ACE inhibitors like ramipril or AIIRA like losartan as they have been linked to negative fetal outcomes. Labetalol is typically the preferred medication for managing hypertension during pregnancy, unless there are medical reasons not to use it.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right abdomen. She has no significant medical history. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and her cycles have been regular in the past.

      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg. There is tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain in Women

      Right iliac fossa pain in women can be caused by various conditions such as mittelschmerz, appendicitis, and ectopic pregnancy. However, in the case of a young woman who is seven weeks past her last period, ectopic pregnancy is highly suspected. This condition occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

      To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the most appropriate initial test would be a pregnancy test. This test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. If the test is positive, further evaluation such as ultrasound and blood tests may be necessary to determine the location of the pregnancy and the appropriate management. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing RIF pain, as delay in diagnosis and treatment of ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 3 - A physician informs a recently pregnant woman about the typical physiological alterations that...

    Correct

    • A physician informs a recently pregnant woman about the typical physiological alterations that occur during pregnancy. He clarifies that her cardiac output will rise. What is the primary cause of this?

      Your Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the main contributor to the increased cardiac output is the increased stroke volume, which is caused by the activation of the renin-angiotensin system and the subsequent increase in plasma volume. Although the heart rate also increases slightly, it is not as significant as the increase in stroke volume. Therefore, the major contributor to the increased cardiac output is the stroke volume.

      The statements ‘decreased heart rate’ and ‘increased peripheral resistance’ are incorrect. In fact, peripheral resistance decreases due to progesterone, which contributes to the normal decrease in blood pressure during pregnancy. Peripheral resistance is more concerned with blood pressure.

      Pregnancy also causes various physiological changes, including increased uterine size, cervical ectropion, reduced cervical collagen, and increased vaginal discharge. Cardiovascular and haemodynamic changes include increased plasma volume, anaemia, increased white cell count, platelets, ESR, cholesterol, and fibrinogen, as well as decreased albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects, such as muscle relaxation, can cause decreased blood pressure, constipation, ureteral dilation, bladder relaxation, biliary stasis, and increased tidal volume.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - During a routine abdominal CT scan for abdominal discomfort and weight loss, a...

    Correct

    • During a routine abdominal CT scan for abdominal discomfort and weight loss, a 27-year-old gentleman is found to have enlarged para-aortic lymph nodes.

      Which part of his body should be examined for a possible cancer, considering the CT results?

      Your Answer: Testes

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in his class and not having experienced a deepening of his voice yet. His mother takes him to see the GP, who conducts a comprehensive history and examination. The doctor provides reassurance that the boy is developing normally and explains that puberty occurs at varying times for each individual. What are the cells in the testes that secrete testosterone?

      Your Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      Spermatogonia are male germ cells that are not yet differentiated and undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Leydig cells are interstitial cells found in the testes that secrete testosterone in response to LH secretion. Sertoli cells are part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes and are activated by FSH. They nourish developing sperm cells. Myoid cells are contractile cells that generate peristaltic waves. They surround the basement membrane of the testes.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of suprapubic pain and fever. She has no significant medical or surgical history but takes a daily combined oral contraceptive pill and multivitamin. The surgical team orders a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which shows pelvic fat stranding and free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease can be a challenging diagnosis for emergency practitioners, as it presents with vague abdominal pain that can be mistaken for a surgical or gynecological issue. While CT scans are not ideal for young patients due to the risk of radiation exposure to the sex organs, they can reveal common findings for pelvic inflammatory disease, such as free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, pelvic fat stranding, tubo-ovarian abscesses, and fallopian tube thickening of more than 5 mm. In contrast, CT scans for appendicitis may show appendiceal dilatation, thickening of the caecal apex with a bar sign, periappendiceal fat stranding and phlegmon, and focal wall nonenhancement in cases of gangrenous appendix. The most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In cases of appendicitis, Escherichia coli is the most likely causative organism, with rare cases caused by other organisms.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - Which vessel contributes the most to the arterial supply of the breast? ...

    Correct

    • Which vessel contributes the most to the arterial supply of the breast?

      Your Answer: Internal mammary artery

      Explanation:

      The internal mammary artery is the primary source of arterial supply to the breast, with the external mammary and lateral thoracic arteries playing a smaller role. This information is relevant for surgeons performing reduction mammoplasty surgeries.

      The breast is situated on a layer of pectoral fascia and is surrounded by the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and external oblique muscles. The nerve supply to the breast comes from branches of intercostal nerves from T4-T6, while the arterial supply comes from the internal mammary (thoracic) artery, external mammary artery (laterally), anterior intercostal arteries, and thoraco-acromial artery. The breast’s venous drainage is through a superficial venous plexus to subclavian, axillary, and intercostal veins. Lymphatic drainage occurs through the axillary nodes, internal mammary chain, and other lymphatic sites such as deep cervical and supraclavicular fossa (later in disease).

      The preparation for lactation involves the hormones oestrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen. Oestrogen promotes duct development in high concentrations, while high levels of progesterone stimulate the formation of lobules. Human placental lactogen prepares the mammary glands for lactation. The two hormones involved in stimulating lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. Prolactin causes milk secretion, while oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the mammary alveoli to result in milk ejection from the breast. Suckling of the baby stimulates the mechanoreceptors in the nipple, resulting in the release of both prolactin and oxytocin from the pituitary gland (anterior and posterior parts respectively).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - During a routine check-up, an elderly woman is found to have lower blood...

    Correct

    • During a routine check-up, an elderly woman is found to have lower blood pressure than before. She is reassured that this is normal. Which substrate is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, progesterone plays a crucial role in causing various changes in the body, including the relaxation of smooth muscles, which leads to a decrease in blood pressure. On the other hand, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate the release of estrogen and testosterone, which are essential for the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, but do not directly cause any significant changes.

      While raised levels of estrogen in the first trimester may cause nausea and other symptoms like spider naevi, palmar erythema, and skin pigmentation, they are not responsible for pregnancy-related cardiovascular changes. Similarly, testosterone typically causes symptoms of hyperandrogenism, such as hirsutism and acne, which are not related to pregnancy but are seen in conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome.

      During pregnancy, various physiological changes occur in the body, such as an increase in uterine size, cervical ectropion, increased vaginal discharge, and cardiovascular/haemodynamic changes like increased plasma volume, white cell count, platelets, ESR, cholesterol, and fibrinogen, and decreased albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects, such as muscle relaxation, can cause decreased blood pressure, constipation, ureteral dilation, bladder relaxation, biliary stasis, and increased tidal volume.

      Oestrogen and Progesterone: Their Sources and Functions

      Oestrogen and progesterone are two important hormones in the female body. Oestrogen is primarily produced by the ovaries, but can also be produced by the placenta and blood via aromatase. Its functions include promoting the development of genitalia, causing the LH surge, and increasing hepatic synthesis of transport proteins. It also upregulates oestrogen, progesterone, and LH receptors, and is responsible for female fat distribution. On the other hand, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum, placenta, and adrenal cortex. Its main function is to maintain the endometrium and pregnancy, as well as to thicken cervical mucous and decrease myometrial excitability. It also increases body temperature and is responsible for spiral artery development.

      It is important to note that these hormones work together in regulating the menstrual cycle and preparing the body for pregnancy. Oestrogen promotes the proliferation of the endometrium, while progesterone maintains it. Without these hormones, the menstrual cycle and pregnancy would not be possible. Understanding the sources and functions of oestrogen and progesterone is crucial in diagnosing and treating hormonal imbalances and reproductive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old female patient has visited her doctor seeking advice on changing her...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female patient has visited her doctor seeking advice on changing her current contraceptive pill due to concerns about its effectiveness. She wants to know the safest option available to minimize the risk of pregnancy.

      What would be the most appropriate contraceptive to recommend?

      Your Answer: Progesterone implant

      Explanation:

      According to research, the contraceptive implant is the most reliable method of birth control, with the exception of abstinence. The intrauterine device (IUD) and depot injections are equally effective as the implant. However, oral contraceptive pills are not as dependable as implanted or injected medications.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of vaginal bleeding, hot flashes,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of vaginal bleeding, hot flashes, and diarrhea. She is extremely anxious as she coughed up blood earlier in the day. The patient had a successful delivery of a healthy baby boy two months ago and has no significant medical history except for a previous miscarriage. An X-ray shows multiple infiltrates in both lung fields, leading the physician to suspect a malignancy related to her recent pregnancy.

      What is likely to be elevated in this 32-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of vaginal bleeding, hyperthyroidism, and chest pain suggest a possible diagnosis of choriocarcinoma, which is characterized by significantly elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin in the serum. Metastases to the lungs may explain the chest pain, while the hyperthyroidism may be due to cross-reactivity between hCG and TSH receptors. Alkaline phosphatase is a tumor marker associated with bone and liver metastases as well as germ cell tumors, while chromogranin is a marker for neuroendocrine tumors that can occur in various parts of the body.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 11 - You are about to start a young woman on the progesterone-only pill. How...

    Incorrect

    • You are about to start a young woman on the progesterone-only pill. How long will she need to use this form of birth control before it becomes reliable?

      Your Answer: It becomes effective after 7 days

      Correct Answer: It becomes effective after 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Effective contraception with the progestogen-only pill can be achieved immediately if it is started on the first to the fifth day of menstruation. However, if it is started at any other time or if the patient is uncertain, it is recommended to use additional contraceptive methods like condoms or abstinence for the first 48 hours.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 12 - A perimenopausal woman in her late 40s is prescribed Hormone Replacement Therapy consisting...

    Incorrect

    • A perimenopausal woman in her late 40s is prescribed Hormone Replacement Therapy consisting of oestrogen and progesterone. What roles do these hormones play in HRT?

      Your Answer: Progesterone enhances the effects of oestrogen

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen is for symptomatic relief and progesterone is protective against oestrogenic adverse effects

      Explanation:

      The main cause of menopausal symptoms is low levels of oestrogen, which is why hormone replacement therapy (HRT) aims to alleviate these symptoms by supplementing oestrogen. However, oestrogen can lead to thickening of the endometrium, which increases the risk of neoplasia. To counteract this risk, progesterone is also included in HRT to prevent endometrial thickening and any associated malignancy.

      Therefore, any statement suggesting that progesterone is used for symptomatic relief, that oestrogen is protective, or that progesterone and oestrogen work together in a synergistic manner is incorrect.

      Symptoms of Menopause

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is characterized by a decrease in the levels of female hormones, particularly oestrogen, which can lead to a range of symptoms. One of the most common symptoms is a change in periods, including changes in the length of menstrual cycles and dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

      Around 80% of women experience vasomotor symptoms, which can occur daily and last for up to five years. These symptoms include hot flushes and night sweats. Urogenital changes are also common, affecting around 35% of women. These changes can include vaginal dryness and atrophy, as well as urinary frequency.

      In addition to physical symptoms, menopause can also have psychological effects. Approximately 10% of women experience anxiety and depression during this time, as well as short-term memory impairment. It is important to note that menopause can also have longer-term complications, such as an increased risk of osteoporosis and ischaemic heart disease.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 13 - A 14-year-old female presents to her GP with worries about never having had...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female presents to her GP with worries about never having had a menstrual period. She notes that she is noticeably shorter than her peers, despite her parents being of average height.

      After ruling out pregnancy, the GP orders additional tests, which show:

      FSH 15 IU/L (1-9)
      LH 14 IU/L (1-12)

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      If a patient with primary amenorrhea has elevated FSH/LH levels, it may indicate the presence of gonadal dysgenesis.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The surgeon opts for an orchidectomy and severs the artery supplying the left testicle. What is the origin of this vessel?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta gives rise to the testicular artery.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man is undergoing surgery for a hydrocele. During the procedure, the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is undergoing surgery for a hydrocele. During the procedure, the surgeons will be dividing the tunica vaginalis. What is the origin of this structure?

      Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: Peritoneum

      Explanation:

      The peritoneum gives rise to the tunica vaginalis, which produces the fluid that occupies the hydrocele space.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts. Her periods have also become very irregular and she has not menstruated in the past 4 months. On further questioning, she reports not being sexually active since having a miscarriage 9 months ago which required surgical management. On examination, there are no palpable masses in her breasts bilaterally, she demonstrates a small amount of milky white discharge from her left nipple which is collected for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. She has no focal neurological deficits, cardiac, and respiratory examination is unremarkable, and her abdominal examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of this patient’s amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea is a prolactinoma, which inhibits the secretion of GnRH and leads to low levels of oestrogen. Further tests, including a urinary pregnancy test and blood tests for various hormones, should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Asherman’s syndrome, intraductal papilloma, and pregnancy are less likely causes, as they do not present with the same symptoms or do not fit the patient’s reported history.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 32 weeks of pregnancy with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 32 weeks of pregnancy with complaints of persistent headache and nausea. She reports observing a yellowish tint in the white of her eyes and experiencing an unusual pain in her shoulder. The GP conducts a urine dip, blood pressure reading, and blood tests due to concern. The urine dip reveals proteinuria, and her blood pressure is 169/98 mmHg. Based on the probable diagnosis, what blood test results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Elevated haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Elevated liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting signs of HELLP syndrome, which is a complication during pregnancy that involves haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition often occurs alongside pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia. Although the patient is also displaying symptoms of pre-eclampsia such as headache, shoulder tip pain, and nausea, the presence of jaundice indicates that it is HELLP syndrome rather than pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy disorder that typically involves high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, usually the kidneys in the form of proteinuria. It usually develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women who previously had normal blood pressure.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 18 - At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP...

    Incorrect

    • At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP about the ovarian cycle. The GP informs her that the follicle generates hormones that prime the uterus for embryo implantation. What specific component of the follicle is responsible for this function?

      Your Answer: Zona pellucida

      Correct Answer: Granulosa cells

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her primary care clinic with concerns about cervical...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her primary care clinic with concerns about cervical cancer after reading an article about the disease. She is seeking information about the screening process for detecting cervical cancer and how it is performed.

      What guidance should be provided to the patient regarding screening for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: All women are initially screened for high-risk HPV between the ages of 25-64

      Explanation:

      The first step in screening for cervical cancer in women aged 25-64 is to test their cervical smear samples for high-risk HPV. If the test is positive, the same sample is then analyzed for abnormal cytology. The recommended frequency of smear tests is every 3 years for women aged 25-49 and every 5 years for women aged 50-64 in the UK screening programme. Therefore, the statements All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 18-64, All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 25-64, and All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 30-64 are incorrect as they either refer to the wrong screening test or age range.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old female visits her GP with worries about having gone through menopause...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female visits her GP with worries about having gone through menopause due to the absence of periods for 1 year. What is the reason for the cessation of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Reduced production of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

      Correct Answer: The demise of ovarian follicles

      Explanation:

      The ovarian cycle consists of three main stages: the follicular phase (day 1-10), the ovulatory phase (day 11-14), and the luteal phase (day 15-28). During the follicular phase, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) stimulate the growth of 10-20 follicles, from which one oocyte is selected while the others become atretic. The mature follicle releases oestrogen, which stimulates the renewal and thickening of the uterine lining. In the ovulatory phase, the mature follicle (2 cm) ruptures and exits. Finally, during the luteal phase, the oocyte travels through the uterine tubule while the remaining follicular cells develop into the corpus luteum. As the ovaries age, the number of available and viable ovarian follicles decreases, resulting in a reduced response to FSH and LH.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and comes in for a routine...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and comes in for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about how her pregnancy might impact her renal function, given her history of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. Her baseline eGFR is 100 ml/min/1.73m2. What is the expected eGFR measurement at present?

      Your Answer: 150ml/min/1.73m2

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic pain, deep dyspareunia, and heavy and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. The Gynaecology team is consulted and performs a work-up for suspected pelvic inflammatory disease, including urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity, blood cultures, and a high vaginal swab. What organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      If Chlamydia trachomatis is not treated, PID may develop in a significant number of patients. This can lead to serious consequences such as infertility, chronic pain, and ectopic pregnancy caused by scarring.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 23 - A midwife contacts the Obstetric Foundation Year 2 doctor to assess a 32-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A midwife contacts the Obstetric Foundation Year 2 doctor to assess a 32-year-old patient who delivered vaginally an hour ago. The patient is experiencing continuous vaginal bleeding, and the midwife approximates a total blood loss of 600 millilitres. What is the leading cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Retained products of conception

      Correct Answer: Uterine atony

      Explanation:

      PPH, which is the loss of 500 millilitres or more of blood within 24 hours of delivery, is primarily caused by uterine atony. This occurs when the uterus fails to contract after the placenta is delivered. However, other potential causes must be ruled out through thorough clinical examination. To remember the causes of PPH, the acronym ‘the 4 Ts’ can be used: Tone (uterine atony), Tissue (retained products of conception), Trauma (to the genital tract or perineum), and Thrombin (coagulation abnormalities). This information is based on RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 52.

      Postpartum Haemorrhage: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition characterized by excessive blood loss of more than 500 ml after a vaginal delivery. It can be primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia. Management of PPH is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate involvement of senior staff. The ABC approach is used, and bloods are taken, including group and save. Medical management includes IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options are considered if medical management fails to control the bleeding. Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage is a serious condition that can occur after vaginal delivery. It is important to understand the causes, risk factors, and management of this condition to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Primary PPH is caused by the 4 Ts, with uterine atony being the most common cause. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, and emergency Caesarean section. Management of PPH is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate involvement of senior staff. Medical management includes IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options are considered if medical management fails to control the bleeding. Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to be aware of the signs and symptoms of PPH and seek medical attention immediately if they occur.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 24 - A middle-aged woman visits the doctor with her husband who is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman visits the doctor with her husband who is worried about her breathing becoming deeper. Upon examination, her chest appears normal and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. What explanation should be given to this couple?

      Your Answer: This is normal and caused by oestrogen

      Correct Answer: This is normal and caused by progesterone

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the depth of breathing increases, which is known as tidal volume. This is caused by progesterone relaxing the intercostal muscles and diaphragm, allowing for greater lung inflation during breathing. This is a normal change and is not caused by oestrogen, which typically causes other physical changes during pregnancy such as spider naevi, palmar erythema, and skin pigmentation.

      Other physiological changes that occur during pregnancy include increased uterine size, cervical ectropion, increased vaginal discharge, increased plasma volume, anaemia, increased white blood cell count, platelets, ESR, cholesterol, and fibrinogen, as well as decreased albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects during pregnancy include decreased blood pressure, constipation, ureteral dilation, bladder relaxation, biliary stasis, and increased tidal volume.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and abdominal pain for the past few weeks. She reports experiencing blurry vision over the last week. During the examination, the physician observes a slight yellow tint to the patient's sclera and an elevated blood pressure of 170/106 mmHg. The urine dip reveals proteinuria. Based on these symptoms, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary tract disease

      Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of pre-eclampsia, such as headache, abdominal pain, and blurred vision. However, the presence of jaundice suggests that the patient is actually suffering from HELLP syndrome, which is a complication during pregnancy that involves haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition often occurs in conjunction with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy-related disorder that is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, typically the kidneys, which is evidenced by proteinuria. This condition typically develops after the 20th week of pregnancy in women who previously had normal blood pressure.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of menopause such as hot flushes, mood...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of menopause such as hot flushes, mood swings, and infrequent periods. To confirm the diagnosis, her physician orders a blood test. What test result would suggest that she is going through menopause?

      Your Answer: High FSH and LH, and low oestrogen

      Explanation:

      During menopause, there is a decrease in oestrogen levels due to the ovaries responding poorly to FSH and LH. This leads to an increase in both FSH and LH levels as there is less negative feedback from oestrogen. Therefore, any response indicating high levels of one hormone and low levels of the other is incorrect.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old G3 P3 woman presents to her GP with complaints of heaviness...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old G3 P3 woman presents to her GP with complaints of heaviness and dragging sensation suggestive of prolapse after a forceps delivery last year.

      Which ligament has been damaged that runs between the cervix and lateral pelvic wall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The cardinal ligament is responsible for connecting the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall. When this ligament, along with the uterosacral ligament, becomes weak, it can lead to uterine prolapse. It is important not to confuse the ovarian ligament, which connects the ovaries and uterus but does not contain blood vessels, with the suspensory ligament that contains the ovary’s neurovascular supply and connects the ovary, uterus, and pelvic wall. The pubocervical ligament, which connects the cervix to the posterior aspect of the pubic bone, can also weaken and cause vaginal prolapse. Finally, the round ligament connects the uterine fundus and the labia majora.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old woman presents to a gynecologist with a two-month history of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to a gynecologist with a two-month history of abdominal discomfort and vaginal bleeding. Her husband has noticed that her clothes have been fitting loosely lately. She has had three successful pregnancies and her last period was two years ago. She has a history of well-controlled diabetes and hypertension. Upon examination, the family physician noticed gross ascites and an abdominal mass with an irregular border in the left lower quadrant. Blood tests revealed an elevated level of CA-125. The gynecologist performed a biopsy and the pathology report described small collections of an eosinophilic fluid surrounded by a disorganized array of small cells. What type of ovarian neoplasm is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulosa cell tumor

      Explanation:

      Call-Exner bodies are a characteristic feature of ovarian granulosa cell tumors, consisting of disorganized granulosa cells surrounding small fluid-filled spaces. Patients with ovarian malignancies often present with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort and weight loss, leading to delayed diagnosis. The most common type of malignant stromal tumor of the ovary is granulosa cell tumor, which may be identified by the presence of Call-Exner bodies on histopathology. Other types of ovarian neoplasms include mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, serous cystadenoma, and serous cystadenocarcinoma, each with their own distinct features on histopathology.

      Types of Ovarian Tumours

      There are four main types of ovarian tumours, including surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastasis. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. These tumours can be either benign or malignant and include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour. Germ cell tumours are more common in adolescent girls and account for 15-20% of tumours. These tumours are similar to cancer types seen in the testicle and can be either benign or malignant. Examples include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma. Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma. Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and include Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma resulting from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 29 - A patient is seen in clinic and has a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity....

    Incorrect

    • A patient is seen in clinic and has a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity. Given that this patient is 25 years old and 46XY, what is the correct phenotype?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal genitalia ambiguous and external genitalia female

      Explanation:

      Androgens play a crucial role in the development of male reproductive organs, as they stimulate the formation of Wolffian ducts that eventually give rise to the vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles. In the absence of androgen activity, the Wolffian ducts break down, leading to the failure of male reproductive organ development. Additionally, Sertoli cells produce anti-Mullerian hormone, which prevents the formation of female internal genitalia. The lack of androgen effects also results in the absence of masculine characteristics in the external genitalia.

      Understanding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. This condition was previously known as testicular feminization syndrome. Common features of this condition include primary amenorrhea, little to no pubic and axillary hair, undescended testes leading to groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to estrogen.

      Diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome can be done through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis, which reveals a 46XY genotype. After puberty, testosterone levels in individuals with this condition are typically in the high-normal to slightly elevated range for postpubertal boys.

      Management of androgen insensitivity syndrome involves counseling and raising the child as female. Bilateral orchidectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes. Additionally, estrogen therapy may be used to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Understanding androgen insensitivity syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe nausea and general malaise. She has not undergone a booking scan. After conducting an ultrasound, you observe that her uterus appears larger than expected for her gestational age. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      A uterus that is larger than expected for the stage of pregnancy is a strong indication of a molar pregnancy. The patient is experiencing hyperemesis and overall discomfort, which can be attributed to the elevated levels of B-hcG in her bloodstream, as confirmed by a blood test.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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