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  • Question 1 - During the menstrual cycle which hormone typically reaches its peak level on day...

    Correct

    • During the menstrual cycle which hormone typically reaches its peak level on day 21 (assuming a 28 day cycle)?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      LH, FSH and Oestrogen have their peaks just before ovulation on day 14 whereas progesterone peaks around day 21.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain from the parts of the vagina as follows:
      • Superior part: to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes.
      • Middle part: to the internal iliac lymph nodes.
      • Inferior part: to the sacral and common iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 3rd

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The maxillary arteries and the external carotid arteries develop from the first pharyngeal arch. The stapedial arteries arise from the second, the common carotid artery and the internal carotid arteries from the third and the arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery from the forth arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological

      Your Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Diastolic murmurs should be considered pathological until proven otherwise. The following are common and typically benign findings in pregnancy: A third heart sound after mid-pregnancy. Systolic flow murmurs are common. Left axis deviation on ECG is common, Sagging ST segments and inversion or flattening of the T wave in lead III may also occur

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:...

    Correct

    • The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:

      Your Answer: Hegar's sign

      Explanation:

      Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection.

      Explanation:

      Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
      A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
      Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
      will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
      A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
      It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
      Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination. Which of the following is considered the best step to do?

      Your Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.

      HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.

      The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.

      Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding placental anatomy: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding placental anatomy:

      Your Answer: Fetal blood vessels develop in the mesenchymal core of the chorionic villi

      Explanation:

      The chorionic plate represents the fetal surface of the placenta, which in turn is covered by the amnion. The amnion is composed of a single layered epithelium and the amnionic mesenchyme, an avascular connective tissue. The amnionic mesenchyme is only weakly attached to the chorionic mesenchyme and can easily be removed from the delivered placenta. The chorionic mesenchyme contains the chorionic vessels that are continuous with the vessels of the umbilical cord. Within the mesoderm of secondary villi, haematopoietic progenitor cells develop and start to differentiate. At about day 20 post-conception, first placental blood cells and endothelial cells develop independent of the vascular system of the embryo proper.13 14 The development of first placental vessels transforms the respective villi into tertiary villi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not having menstrual periods over the last 6 months. She had her first menstrual periods at the age of 13 and they have been consistent since then with a cycle of 28 days. She reports that she had an unplanned pregnancy 8 months ago and did an elective abortion at the 8th week of gestation. Since that time she has not had menstrual periods. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. The pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, most likely caused by Asherman’s syndrome- Secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menstruation for – 3 months in a patient who had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- Asherman’s syndrome as the cause of her amenorrhea is suggested by its beginning shortly after undergoing elective abortion. It is an outflow tract obstruction caused by intrauterine synechiae resulting from the procedure.

      The best diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis is hysteroscopy. It can allow visualization of the uterine cavity, the nature and extent of intrauterine synechiae.

      → Progesterone withdrawal test is one of the diagnostic studies done in the early work-up of secondary amenorrhoea- It is usually followed by the estrogen-progesterone challenge test and other tests. Progesterone withdrawal test alone would not confirm Asherman’s syndrome.
      → Pelvic ultrasound is more useful in primary amenorrhea work-up when the presence or absence of the uterus is to be confirmed- It is not very useful in the evaluation of intrauterine adhesions.
      → Brain MRI is useful in confirming the presence of pituitary tumours in patients, who are found to have high levels of prolactin. This patient’s most likely cause of secondary amenorrhea is Asherman’s syndrome.
      → TSH and prolactin levels should be the next step in the work-up of secondary amenorrhea after pregnancy has been ruled out; however, these studies cannot confirm Asherman’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding the renal tract during pregnancy, the following are true, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the renal tract during pregnancy, the following are true, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: The bladder tone increases

      Explanation:

      Incontinence in women is typically related to dysfunction of the bladder or pelvic floor muscles, with such dysfunction often arising during pregnancy or childbirth, or at the time of menopause.

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct?

      Your Answer: Can be measured during labour

      Explanation:

      A sample for fetal blood pH can be taken during the labour. The mother should be lying in a left lateral position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystic degeneration of fibroid

      Explanation:

      A fibroid is a benign tumour of the smooth muscles of the uterus also known as a leiomyoma. It has a typical whorled appearance and this may be altered following degeneration which occurs in four main types:
      1. Red degeneration, also known as carneous degeneration, of degeneration that can involve a uterine leiomyoma. While it is an uncommon type of degeneration, it is thought to be the most common form of degeneration of a leiomyoma during pregnancy. Red degeneration follows an acute disruption of the blood supply to the fibroid during growth typically in a mid-second trimester presenting as sudden onset of pain with tenderness localizing to the area of the uterus along with pyrexia and leucocytosis. On ultrasound it can have peripheral (rim).

      2. Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. It is thought to occur in up to 60% of uterine leiomyomasoccurs when the fibroid outgrows its blood supply. this may progresses to central necrosis leaving a cystic space in the centre knowns as cystic degeneration.

      3. Cystic degeneration is an uncommon type of degeneration that a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) can undergo. This type of degeneration is thought to represent ,4% of all types of uterine leiomyoma degeneration. When the leiomyoma increases in size, the vascular supply to it becomes inadequate and leads to different types of degeneration: hyaline, cystic, myxoid, or red degeneration. Dystrophic calcification may also occur. Hyalinization is the commonest type of degeneration. Cystic degeneration is an extreme sequel of edema. Ultrasound may show a hypoechoic or heterogeneous uterine mass with cystic areas.

      4. Myxoid degeneration of leiomyoma is one of the rarer types of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. While this type of degeneration is generally considered rare, the highest prevalence for this type of degeneration has been reported as up to 50% of all degenerations of leiomyomas. Fibroids (i.e. uterine leiomyomas) that have undergone myxoid degeneration are filled with a gelatinous material and can be difficult to differentiate from cystic degeneration; however, they typically appear as more complex cystic masses. They appear hypocellular with a myxoid matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes? ...

    Correct

    • Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?

      Your Answer: 46XY

      Explanation:

      Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26 year old patient sustains a 4th degree perineal tear following delivery...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old patient sustains a 4th degree perineal tear following delivery of her 1st baby. Your consultant agrees to supervise you repair the tear. From the list below what is the most appropriate suture option for repairing the anal mucosa?

      Your Answer: 3-0 polyglactin interrupted sutures

      Explanation:

      Repair the vaginal mucosa using rapidly absorbed suture material on a large, round body needle. Start above the apex of the cut or tear (as severed vessels retract slightly) and use a continuous stitch to close the vaginal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Correct

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of right upper quadrant pain unrelated to the surgical wound. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately?

      Your Answer: LFT

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of developing HELLP syndrome in pre-eclamptic patients. Considering that she is complaining of right upper quadrant pain, a LFT should be done immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac defect. She wants to become pregnant in the near future and seeks advice about what risks to her health that this will create. You tell that the highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which of the following cardiac defects:

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Eisenmenger’s syndrome is one where there is communication between the systemic and pulmonary system, along with increased pulmonary vascular resistance, either to systemic level or above systemic level (right to left shunt). A would-be mother must be informed that to become pregnant would incur a 50% risk of dying. Even if she survives, fetal mortality approaches 50% as well.

      – Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis has a mortality in pregnancy of about 20%. Prevention of reduction in preload is necessary in all obstructive cardiac lesions. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy, mitral stenosis can lead to severe pulmonary oedema. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Ebstein anomaly is a malformation of the tricuspid valve- It is usually not associated with maternal mortality.
      – Atrial-septal defects rarely cause complications in pregnancy, labour, or delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous...

    Correct

    • You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      BV typically presents as an increase in vaginal discharge and vaginal malodour caused by a change in vaginal bacterial flora. PV discharge due to BV is typically grey fluid that adheres to the vaginal mucosa. BV is a polymicrobial infection. Gardnerella is the most commonly associated pathogen. Other associated bacteria include Lactobacillus species, Prevotella, Mobiluncus, Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Veillonella, Eubacterium species, Mycoplasma hominis, Urea plasma urealyticum and Streptococcus viridans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Correct

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The embryonic pole becomes visible on transvaginal ultrasound at around 5 and a half to 6 weeks gestation when it measures around 3mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The round ligament develops from which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The round ligament develops from which structure?

      Your Answer: Gubernaculum

      Explanation:

      The round ligament develops from the lower end of the gubernaculum in females. In the males it persists as the scrotal ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy due to irregular menstrual bleeding. Her BMI is 34 kg/m2. This shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel intra-uterine system (IUS)

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is at high risk of progression to cancer and hysterectomy is indicated There is high risk of progression to cancer with endometrial hyperplasia with atypia and hysterectomy is indicated. Although weight loss would be beneficial this shouldn’t delay surgical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.

      Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common

      Other risk factors include
      obesity,
      nulliparity,
      diabetes mellitus, and
      hypertension.

      The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.

      Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following...

    Correct

    • Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following is closely associated with the development of congenital malformations?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium Valproate is known to be the most teratogenic when used in the first trimester of pregnancy. This antiepileptic increases the risk of congenital malformations including a 10-20 fold risk of neurodevelopmental defects. Though the use of antiepileptics should generally be avoided during pregnancy, carbamazepine, or newer drugs such as Lamotrigine are thought to carry less of a risk of teratogenicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for the past one month. Patient has tried various over-the-counter vaginal douche products without any improvement. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, during which she noticed no change in her symptoms. In addition to the discharge, patient also experiences intermittent, crampy abdominal pain along with a feeling of gas passing through her vagina. Patient has had no history of surgeries in the past. On examination her vital signs seems to be normal. Speculum examination shows a malodorous, tan vaginal discharge with an erythematous patch over the posterior vaginal wall.The cervix is nulliparous and has no visible lesions or areas of friability.A sinus with purulent drainage is found in the perianal skin. Which among the following conditions will be the most likely underlying cause for this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer: Transmural inflammation of the bowel

      Explanation:

      Common risk factors for Rectovaginal fistula are Pelvic radiation, Obstetric trauma, Pelvic surgery, Colon cancer, Diverticulitis and Crohn disease. Uncontrollable passage of gas &/or feces from the vagina is considered the common clinical feature of Rectovaginal fistula.
      Diagnosis is done with the help of physical examination, fistulography, Magnetic resonance imaging and Endosonography.

      This patient, mentioned in the case, presents with malodorous vaginal discharge (ie, stool), gas passing through the vagina, and a posterior vaginal lesion most likely has a rectovaginal fistula, which is an aberrant connection between bowel and vagina.  Although development of rectovaginal fistula is commonly associated with obstetric trauma or pelvic surgery, patients without these risk factors are recommended to be evaluated for other additional causes like gastrointestinal conditions.
      This patient’s intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and perianal sinus in the setting of a rectovaginal fistula is most likely due to an underlying Crohn disease.  Crohn disease, is a transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which predisposes patients to bowel abscess, fissure, and fistula formation.  Although the rectum is typically spared in Crohn disease, a non-healing, transmural ulcer present in the anal canal can progress to form a rectovaginal fistula.
      In addition to standard Crohn disease management like anti-TNF inhibitors, glucocorticoids, etc patients with a rectovaginal fistula may require surgical correction.

      Bartholin gland cysts or abscesses can present with malodorous vaginal discharge; however, patients typically have a posterior vulvar mass located at the 4 or 8 o’clock position. In addition, Bartholin gland cysts will not present with crampy abdominal pain or passage of flatus or stool through the vagina.

      Hidradenitis which is the chronic occlusion and inflammation of hair follicles, can cause groin abscesses with sinus tracts and associated purulent drainage.  However, it is not associated with abdominal pain or malodorous vaginal discharge. In addition, this condition is typically multifocal and located in more than one intertriginous areas like axillary, inguinal or gluteal regions.

      Cervical cancer or a retained foreign body in the vagina can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and abdominal pain.  However, patients will typically have visible findings like cervical lesion, foreign body etc on speculum examination, and these neither are associated with the passage of flatus through the vagina.

      Complications of Crohn disease include perianal disease like abscess, fissure and fistula like rectovaginal fistula, due to transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.  Patients with a rectovaginal fistula typically presents with malodorous, tan vaginal discharge, passage of flatus through the vagina and a posterior vaginal lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: It has been shown to reduce perinatal mortality

      Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits

      Explanation:

      Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 90 g/l

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in pregnancy is defined by the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance: 1st trimester Hb < 110 g/l 2nd and 3rd trimester Hb < 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which major hormone of pregnancy is produced by the placenta from 16-hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone sulphate...

    Incorrect

    • Which major hormone of pregnancy is produced by the placenta from 16-hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (16-OH DHEAS)?

      Your Answer: Estrone

      Correct Answer: Estriol

      Explanation:

      The placenta produces Estriol from 16-OH DHEAS. Estriol is the major oestrogen (oestrogen) of pregnancy and the placenta is the primary site of production. Pregnenolone is synthesised by the placenta from cholesterol and this is converted to dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) in the fetal adrenal gland

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The ovarian artery is a branch of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The ovarian artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The ovarian artery is an artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the ovary in females. It arises from the abdominal aorta below the renal artery. It can be found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary, anterior to the ovarian vein and ureter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina. Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode. Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Give corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to 30S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site on the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is classified as a broad spectrum antibiotic. It is a bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis acting at the ribosomal level. Tetracycline binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing the binding of the aminoacidic charged T-RNA to the ribosome-mRNA complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Obstetrics (7/9) 78%
Clinical Management (4/6) 67%
Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Passmed