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  • Question 1 - During her annual medication review, a 36 year old woman with psoriasis should...

    Incorrect

    • During her annual medication review, a 36 year old woman with psoriasis should be screened for which associated conditions as recommended by NICE?

      Your Answer: squamous cell skin cancer

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is linked to all the aforementioned conditions. To ensure early detection of psoriatic arthropathy, NICE advises annual screening of psoriasis patients using a validated tool like the Psoriasis Epidemiological Screening Tool (PEST). Additionally, patients should undergo cardiovascular risk assessment every 5 years, or more frequently if necessary.

      Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.

      You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.

      Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.

      What is the most crucial next step to take?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker to start immediately

      Correct Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests

      Explanation:

      If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.

      According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.

      If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.

      Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.

      Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. She has experienced increased shortness of breath since the diagnosis and now requires four pillows to sleep comfortably. Which medication is most likely to provide the quickest relief of symptoms for this patient?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Understanding the Recommendations

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. When it comes to medication, it’s important to understand which drugs are recommended and when they should be prescribed. Here’s a breakdown of some common medications and their appropriate use in heart failure treatment:

      Furosemide: This loop diuretic is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for patients with symptoms of fluid overload. The dose should be adjusted based on symptoms and reviewed regularly.

      Spironolactone: While this aldosterone antagonist can be considered for all patients, NICE advises that it should only be added if symptoms persist despite optimal treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker. Referral to a specialist may be necessary.

      Carvedilol: This beta-blocker is indicated for heart failure, but it won’t provide rapid symptom relief. It may even worsen symptoms if given while there are still signs of fluid overload.

      Digoxin: This drug has a limited role in heart failure management and should not be routinely prescribed. It may be helpful for patients in normal sinus rhythm.

      Ramipril: An ACE inhibitor should be prescribed routinely, but it should not be initiated in patients with suspected valve disease until a specialist has assessed the condition. An angiotensin-II receptor antagonist is an alternative if the ACE inhibitor is not tolerated.

      Understanding the appropriate use of these medications can help improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75 year-old patient contacts you seeking advice regarding the routine shingles vaccination....

    Correct

    • A 75 year-old patient contacts you seeking advice regarding the routine shingles vaccination. The patient has previously experienced an episode of shingles and is unsure if they need to receive the vaccine. How do you respond?

      Your Answer: Vaccination will reduce likelihood of further attacks

      Explanation:

      To enhance his immunity and minimize the likelihood of recurrent shingles, it is recommended that he receive the shingles vaccination. The vaccine is believed to provide protection against shingles for a minimum of 5 years.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      89.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A study is evaluating a new screening tool for prostate cancer. A total...

    Incorrect

    • A study is evaluating a new screening tool for prostate cancer. A total of 500 participants are enrolled in the study. Among all participants, 180 were diagnosed with prostate cancer through biopsy, but 8 of them had received a negative screening result. Among participants without prostate cancer, 70 were falsely screened positive.

      What is the positive likelihood ratio of this new screening tool?

      Your Answer: 0.71

      Correct Answer: 4.2

      Explanation:

      The likelihood ratio for a positive test result can be calculated using the sensitivity and specificity of the test. The sensitivity is the probability of a positive test in individuals with the disease, while the specificity is the probability of a negative test in individuals without the disease. The formula for the positive likelihood ratio is sensitivity divided by (1 minus specificity). To calculate the values, a 2*2 table is used with the number of true positives (TP), false positives (FP), false negatives (FN), and true negatives (TN). In the given example, the sensitivity is 0.95 and the specificity is 0.776, resulting in a positive likelihood ratio of 4.17.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old boy has been unwell, looks pale, is anorexic and has lost...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy has been unwell, looks pale, is anorexic and has lost weight. He has abdominal pain and a pain in his leg and a limp. You are concerned about his appearance and worry he may have a malignancy.
      Which is the feature that will MOST LIKELY be present if he has a neuroblastoma?

      Your Answer: Abdominal mass

      Explanation:

      Neuroblastoma: Symptoms and Presenting Features

      Neuroblastoma is a solid neoplasm that commonly affects children and arises from sympathetic nervous tissue. The most common symptom is an abdominal mass, which is caused by the tumor location in the adrenal gland. Other symptoms may include bone pain, limping, and anemia due to marrow infiltration. Hypertension is a rare finding, but it can occur due to renal artery compression. Tumors that arise from the thoracic sympathetic chain can produce Horner syndrome, which is characterized by meiosis, ptosis, and absence of sweating of the face. Limb weakness and bladder and bowel problems can occur if the tumor grows through the spinal foramina into the spinal canal, compressing the spinal cord. Periorbital bruising may also be a presenting feature if there is metastatic disease in the orbit. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to seek medical attention if they occur, as early detection and treatment can improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of loss of vision in his right eye which lasted approximately 30 minutes.

      He was aware of a an initial blurring of his vision and then cloudiness with inability to see out of the eye.

      He has been generally well except for a recent history of hypertension for which he takes atenolol. He drinks modest quantities of alcohol and is a smoker of five cigarettes per day.

      Examination reveals that he has now normal vision in both eyes with visual acuities of 6/12 in both eyes. He has a pulse of 72 beats per minute regular, a blood pressure of 162/88 mmHg and a BMI of 30.

      Examination of the cardiovascular system including auscultation over the neck is otherwise normal.

      What investigation would you request for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Correct Answer: Carotid Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amaurosis Fugax

      Amaurosis fugax is a condition that occurs when an embolism blocks the right carotid distribution, resulting in temporary blindness in one eye. To determine the cause of this condition, doctors will typically look for an embolic source and scan the carotids for atheromatous disease. It’s important to note that significant carotid disease may still be present even if there is no bruit. If stenosis greater than 70% of diameter are detected, carotid endarterectomy is recommended. Additionally, echocardiography may be used to assess for cardiac embolic sources. By understanding the causes and potential treatments for amaurosis fugax, patients can receive the care they need to manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      101.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C

      Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.

      In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant. She had the Mirena coil inserted for heavy periods approximately nine months ago. She inquires about whether she needs to have her Mirena coil removed.

      What is the appropriate guidance concerning the removal of the Mirena coil?

      Your Answer: The Mirena coil can be removed at any stage of the pregnancy

      Correct Answer: The Mirena coil should not be removed if the pregnancy is diagnosed after 12 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Contraception and Pregnancy

      When a woman becomes pregnant while using contraception, it is usually recommended to stop or remove the method. However, it is important to note that contraceptive hormones do not typically harm the fetus.

      If an intrauterine method is in place when pregnancy is diagnosed, the woman should be informed of the potential risks of leaving it in-situ, such as second-trimester miscarriage, preterm delivery, and infection. While removal in the first trimester carries a small risk of miscarriage, it may reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. If the threads of the intrauterine contraceptive are visible or can be retrieved, it should be removed up to 12 weeks gestation, but not after this point.

      Overall, it is important for women to discuss their contraceptive options with their healthcare provider and to inform them if they suspect they may be pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He reports passing three bloody stools per day for the past week, but denies any abdominal pain and has maintained a good appetite. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most probable explanation for this current episode?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer secondary to longstanding ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Mild exacerbation of ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      267.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.

      Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression

      Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain in her hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain in her hands and feet for the past 6 weeks. The pain is more severe in the morning and slightly relieved by ibuprofen. She used to smoke and has a smoking history of 30 pack-years. During the physical examination, the doctor noticed ulnar deviation and swan neck deformity in her hands.

      What is the most suitable medication to treat this acute flare, considering her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroids IM

      Explanation:

      Methylprednisolone, an intramuscular steroid, is commonly used to manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis. However, NICE guidelines recommend first-line treatment with conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (cDMARDs) such as oral methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine for adults with newly diagnosed active RA. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may be considered when starting a new cDMARD. Anakinra, codeine, and paracetamol are not recommended for the treatment of RA, while infliximab IV is not recommended as first-line treatment. NSAIDs may be used for symptom control in acute flares or early disease. Overall, the goal of treatment is to rapidly decrease inflammation and manage symptoms.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis. He is concerned that he might also have the condition and wants to undergo a blood test to confirm.

      Initially, you order an iron study profile that includes ferritin, transferrin saturation, and total iron binding capacity (TIBC).

      Which of the following blood test outcomes is most probable to suggest that John has the same ailment as Robert?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC

      Explanation:

      To diagnose haemochromatosis, it is important to assess the patient’s risk factors and perform tests to determine their susceptibility. This includes evaluating their family history, age, and gender. Additionally, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be measured, and HFE mutation analysis may be recommended after genetic counselling.

      In haemochromatosis, transferrin saturation and ferritin levels are typically elevated, while TIBC is low. Serum ferritin is a highly sensitive test for iron overload in this condition, and normal levels essentially rule out iron overload. However, it has low specificity, as elevated levels can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, alcohol consumption, and liver damage.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old patient comes in for an emergency appointment reporting left-sided ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient comes in for an emergency appointment reporting left-sided ear pain for the past two days. Upon waking up today, she noticed that her face was drooping on the left side and she was unable to fully close her left eye. Based on these symptoms, you suspect a diagnosis of Bell's Palsy. If you were to ask the patient to raise her left eyebrow, what would you expect to find and why?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell's palsy is due to a lower motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 17 - Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If...

    Incorrect

    • Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If so, which one is it from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases: What You Need to Know

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a crucial aspect of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. For meningococcus, rifampicin, ceftriaxone, or ciprofloxacin can be used for prophylaxis, along with vaccination for group C. Rabies can be prevented through active and passive immunization after exposure. Combination antiretroviral therapy can reduce the incidence of HIV infection after needlestick injuries. Measles vaccine can prevent an attack if given within 3 days of contact, and immunoglobulin can be used if the vaccine cannot be given. Unfortunately, there is no effective PEP for HCV, but healthcare workers should be tested and referred for specialist care if they seroconvert. It is essential for healthcare workers to be aware of PEP options to protect themselves and their patients from infectious diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 18 - A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a...

    Incorrect

    • A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a dark red patch on their child's cheek that appears irregular. After examination, you diagnose it as a port wine stain. What should the parents know about this type of birthmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tend to darken over time

      Explanation:

      Understanding Port Wine Stains

      Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that can help to fade the color and reduce the raised appearance of the stain. However, it’s important to note that multiple laser sessions may be required to achieve the desired results. Overall, understanding port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old female visits the GP clinic seeking a referral for varicose vein...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female visits the GP clinic seeking a referral for varicose vein surgery. She is in good health and currently using the combined hormonal contraceptive patch for birth control. What advice should be given to her regarding her contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be offered alternative contraception from 4 weeks prior to her operation. Her combined hormonal contraceptive can be started from 2 weeks after she is fully mobilising

      Explanation:

      Contraception and Major Surgery

      Major surgery, which includes surgery lasting more than 30 minutes, all lower limb surgeries, and surgeries resulting in prolonged immobilization of a lower limb, requires special consideration for patients who are using combined hormonal contraceptives. To avoid potential complications, patients should be offered alternative contraception options four weeks prior to their operation. Once the patient is fully mobilizing, typically two weeks after the surgery, they can resume their combined hormonal contraceptive.

      It is important to note that patients who are unable to stop their combined hormonal contraceptive prior to surgery should not resume use until they are fully mobilizing. This information is crucial for healthcare providers to communicate to their patients to ensure safe and effective contraception management during and after major surgery. By following these guidelines, patients can avoid potential complications and continue to receive the contraceptive care they need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old girl is seen for review with her mother. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is seen for review with her mother. She has been seen on several occasions over the last 2-3 months, feeling increasingly tired and weak.
      The last occasion was about two weeks ago when she was diagnosed with gastroenteritis. Her mother says this seems to have settle but she still complains of feeling generally weak and tired. She thinks she has lost weight.
      A colleague of yours had requested some blood tests and you can see there is a normal full blood count, liver function, thyroid function, and anti-TTG results on the computer system. Her renal function is normal with a low sodium being the only result outside of normal range.
      On examination: the child looks thin and a little pale. There is no fever, or rashes. She is not breathless or in pain. Her blood glucose is 4.1 mmol/L. Her heart sounds are normal and her chest is clear. There is no lymphadenopathy or organomegaly.
      Which of the following clinical features is most likely be present on further examination of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperpigmentation of mucous membranes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a rare condition that occurs due to adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Symptoms can range from sudden acute crises triggered by concurrent illness or stress to chronic nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.

      In this case, a child with chronic vague symptoms was examined, and blood results revealed hyponatremia and low glucose levels, which are common in Addison’s disease. Other symptoms such as postural hypotension, jaundice, peripheral edema, and inflammatory arthropathy were ruled out. Hyperpigmentation is a common feature of Addison’s disease, which develops due to increased ACTH production and usually affects sun-exposed areas, recent scar sites, pressure points, palmar creases, and mucous membranes. It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease due to its rarity and vague symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest,...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest, back, and hips for several months. He also reports difficulty with urinary flow and frequent nighttime urination. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer and Prostatism: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Patients with prostatism who experience bony pain should be evaluated for prostate cancer, as it often metastasizes to bone. A digital rectal examination should be performed after taking blood for PSA, as the prostate will typically feel hard and irregular in cases of prostate cancer. While chronic urinary retention and urinary infection may be present, investigations should focus on identifying the underlying cause rather than providing symptomatic treatment with an α-blocker. Without a confirmed diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, finasteride should not be prescribed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 22 - A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.

      In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.

      If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old man and 29-year-old woman in a relationship are both known to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man and 29-year-old woman in a relationship are both known to have sickle cell trait. They inquire about the likelihood of sickle cell disease in any offspring they may have.
      What is the most probable risk of sickle cell disease in their children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance of Sickle Cell Disease

      Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, causing them to become rigid and sickle-shaped. The inheritance of this disease is complex and involves the interaction of two genes, one from each parent. Here is a breakdown of the probabilities of inheritance:

      1 in 4 chance of having sickle cell disease: If both parents have sickle cell trait, there is a 1 in 4 chance of their child inheriting two copies of the abnormal gene and developing sickle cell disease.

      1 in 2 chance of having sickle cell trait: If one parent has sickle cell trait and the other has normal hemoglobin, there is a 1 in 2 chance of their child inheriting one copy of the abnormal gene and becoming a carrier of sickle cell trait.

      3 in 4 chance of inheriting the gene: Regardless of whether the child develops the disease or not, there is a 3 in 4 chance of inheriting at least one copy of the abnormal gene.

      No risk for 1 in 4 children: There is a 1 in 4 chance of a child inheriting two copies of the normal hemoglobin gene and having neither the disease nor the trait.

      No sex-linked inheritance: Sickle cell disease is not inherited in a sex-linked pattern, meaning both males and females are equally likely to be affected.

      Understanding the probabilities of inheritance can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old teacher has come to see you because she has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old teacher has come to see you because she has been feeling down for the past four weeks. She recently ended a long-term relationship and is struggling with the demands of her job. She shares that she still lives with her parents due to financial constraints and that she frequently argues with them and her younger sister. She expresses interest in taking non-addictive medication to improve her mood and seeing a psychotherapist to work through her issues. You administer a PHQ assessment questionnaire and calculate her score. According to the PHQ assessment, what is the recommended threshold score that indicates the need for active treatment with psychotherapy, medication, or a combination of both?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Score 9

      Explanation:

      Recommended Questionnaires for Primary Care

      The use of validated questionnaires in primary care can aid clinicians in assessing the severity of depression and guiding management. Three recommended questionnaires are PHQ-9, HADS, and BDI-II. It is important to familiarize oneself with the basic principles of each questionnaire in case of examination.

      The PHQ-9 assessment is particularly useful in determining the severity of depression and the need for intervention. The maximum score is 27, with a score of 15 being the threshold for considering intervention. The higher the score, the greater the symptoms.

      Based on the limited information provided in the patient’s history, it is unlikely that antidepressant treatment and psychotherapy referral would be necessary. However, the use of these questionnaires can provide a more comprehensive assessment and aid in the management of depression in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin. She denies any rashes and doesn't feel feverish or unwell. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and diverticulosis. On examination, she has scleral icterus, a clear chest, normal heart sounds, a soft and non-tender abdomen, and no peripheral edema. Which medication is the most probable culprit for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis is a known side effect of sulfonylureas, but not of ibuprofen, amlodipine, or senna.

      Side-Effects of Sulfonylureas

      Sulfonylureas are a class of medications used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas. However, like any medication, they can cause side-effects. The most common adverse effects of sulfonylureas are hypoglycaemic episodes, which are more common with long-acting preparations such as chlorpropamide. Another common side-effect is weight gain.

      In addition to these common side-effects, there are rarer adverse effects that can occur with sulfonylureas. One such effect is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, which can lead to low sodium levels in the blood. Another rare side-effect is bone marrow suppression, which can cause a decrease in the production of blood cells. Sulfonylureas can also cause liver damage, specifically cholestatic liver injury. Finally, peripheral neuropathy, which is damage to the nerves that control movement and sensation in the limbs, can occur as a side-effect of sulfonylureas.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes sulfonylureas will experience these side-effects, and some people may experience different side-effects than those listed here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A patient who is 65 years old calls you from overseas. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is 65 years old calls you from overseas. He was recently discharged from a hospital in Spain after experiencing a heart attack. The hospital did not report any complications and he did not undergo a percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the minimum amount of time he should wait before flying back home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After 7-10 days

      Explanation:

      After a period of 7-10 days, the individual’s fitness to fly will be assessed.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old female presents with a breast complaint. She has developed a patch...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female presents with a breast complaint. She has developed a patch of eczema on her right breast. She has no previous history of any skin conditions or anything similar.
      The patch of eczema has been present for four weeks. Two weeks ago, she was seen by a doctor who prescribed her a potent topical steroid and an emollient to use. She has been using these daily as directed but has not seen any improvement in her skin.
      On clinical examination, there is a unilateral patch of breast eczema affecting the right breast. There are no palpable breast lumps or nipple changes and no axillary lymphadenopathy.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her urgently to a breast specialist

      Explanation:

      Suspected Cancer Referral for Breast Cancer

      According to NICE guidance on suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12), individuals with certain symptoms should be considered for a suspected cancer pathway referral for breast cancer. These symptoms include skin changes that suggest breast cancer or an unexplained lump in the axilla for individuals aged 30 and over.

      It is important to note that a suspected cancer pathway referral means that the individual should be seen by a specialist within 2 weeks of referral. This allows for prompt diagnosis and treatment, which can greatly improve outcomes for individuals with breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15% of adults fail to respond or respond poorly to 3 doses of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      An anti-HBs check is necessary only for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of occupational exposure.

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman with chronic pain is undergoing evaluation. The effectiveness of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with chronic pain is undergoing evaluation. The effectiveness of pain management strategies is discussed with her, but she expresses doubt about the data. Upon closer examination, studies are presented that include a visual pain scale with paired data before and after non-pharmacological interventions are implemented. The data reveals a negative skew towards reduced pain levels with the use of non-pharmacological pain management techniques.

      What statistical test would be appropriate to demonstrate the efficacy of this approach in managing pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Explanation:

      When the data sets are not normally distributed, non-parametric tests are more suitable. This is evident in the negative skew of the data being analyzed. As there is a comparison of paired data pre- and post-intervention, a non-parametric test is necessary.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned friend. He is drowsy, confused and sweating profusely. The accompanying friend reports drug use earlier that evening. A toxicology screen for opiates, cocaine, cannabis and alcohol is negative.
      What is the most likely causative drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spice

      Explanation:

      Spice, a synthetic cannabinoid, is a type of new psychoactive substance (NPS) that is often referred to as a legal high despite being prohibited by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971. NPS use has become increasingly common in the UK, particularly among young men who mistakenly believe that they are safer than traditional illicit drugs. Spice is typically consumed as a herbal smoking mixture and is responsible for over half of all NPS use. While it produces similar effects to cannabis, it is more potent and can cause negative side effects such as dizziness, agitation, paranoia, and seizures. Based on the symptoms described in this scenario and the negative toxicology screen for other illicit drugs, Spice is the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (2/4) 50%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
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