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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of growing clumsiness and lack of coordination, along with involuntary limb movements. He also reports increased irritability and forgetfulness, which his wife has noticed. Interestingly, his father had similar symptoms but at the age of 55 and eventually passed away due to a neurodegenerative disease.
What could be the reason for the patient's symptoms appearing earlier than his father's?Your Answer: Anticipation
Explanation:Penetrance refers to the degree to which an individual experiences or is certain to develop a disease. Lower numbers may indicate milder symptoms or a lower probability of developing the disease. In the case of Huntington’s disease, increased penetrance is associated with a higher number of trinucleotide repeats, so reduced penetrance is not applicable.
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the ED with severe left flank pain that extends to his groin. He describes his symptoms as 'passing stones,' which he has been experiencing 'since he was a child.' His father also reports having similar issues since childhood. Upon urinalysis, hexagonal crystals are detected, and the urinary cyanide nitroprusside test is positive.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Infection with urease-producing microorganisms
Correct Answer: Amino acid transport abnormality
Explanation:Recurrent kidney stones from childhood and positive family history for nephrolithiasis suggest cystinuria, which is characterized by impaired transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids. The urinary cyanide-nitroprusside test can confirm the diagnosis. Other causes of kidney stones include excess uric acid excretion (gout), excessive intestinal reabsorption of oxalate (Crohn’s disease), infection with urease-producing microorganisms (struvite stones), and primary hyperparathyroidism (calcium oxalate stones).
Understanding Cystinuria: A Genetic Disorder Causing Recurrent Renal Stones
Cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones due to a defect in the membrane transport of cystine, ornithine, lysine, and arginine. This autosomal recessive disorder is caused by mutations in two genes, SLC3A1 on chromosome 2 and SLC7A9 on chromosome 19.
The hallmark feature of cystinuria is the formation of yellow and crystalline renal stones that appear semi-opaque on x-ray. To diagnose cystinuria, a cyanide-nitroprusside test is performed.
Management of cystinuria involves hydration, D-penicillamine, and urinary alkalinization. These treatments help to prevent the formation of renal stones and reduce the risk of complications.
In summary, cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old renal transplant recipient due to polycystic kidney disease visits the follow-up clinic. She has been prescribed mycophenolate mofetil as part of her immunosuppressant regimen.
What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase inhibitor
Explanation:Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) is an immunosuppressant that inhibits inosine-5′-monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme necessary for purine synthesis. MMF is commonly used in organ transplantation and autoimmune disorders. Azathioprine also inhibits purine synthesis, but through a different mechanism.
Calcineurin inhibitors, such as tacrolimus and ciclosporin, reduce T-cell differentiation to suppress the immune system.
Protease inhibitors, like ritonavir and darunavir, are antivirals used to treat HIV and hepatitis.
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, such as statins, lower LDL cholesterol levels.
Hydroxycarbamide is a ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor that reduces the production of deoxyribonucleotides, thereby decreasing DNA synthesis. It is used to treat cancer.
Mycophenolate Mofetil: How it Works as an Immunosuppressant
Mycophenolate mofetil is a medication that is often prescribed to prevent the rejection of organ transplants. It works by inhibiting the activity of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme that is necessary for the synthesis of purines. Since T and B cells rely heavily on this pathway for their proliferation, mycophenolate mofetil can effectively reduce the activity of these immune cells.
In simpler terms, mycophenolate mofetil works by blocking a key enzyme that immune cells need to grow and multiply. By doing so, it can help prevent the body from attacking and rejecting a transplanted organ. This medication is often used in combination with other immunosuppressants to achieve the best possible outcomes for transplant patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man undergoes a routine health check and his ECG reveals a prolonged QT segment. He has no medical history and is not taking any medication. His father and grandfather both died from sudden cardiac arrest in their early 30s.
What arrhythmias are most likely to occur as a result of this ECG abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torsades de pointes
Explanation:Torsades de pointes is the most common consequence of Long QT syndrome, which can also result in polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old male is brought to the clinician for evaluation of recurrent seizures. He has a history of frequent infections. During chest examination, a heart murmur is detected on the left sternal edge and he presents with abnormal facial features. Laboratory tests show hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and low levels of parathyroid hormone. The diagnosis is DiGeorge syndrome. Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the thymus in this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Third pharyngeal pouch
Explanation:The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the thymus. Other structures derived from different pharyngeal pouches include the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum from the 1st pouch, the Palatine tonsils from the 2nd pouch, the superior parathyroid glands from the 4th pouch, and the thyroid C-cells from the 5th pouch which eventually becomes part of the 4th pouch.
Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches
During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.
Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient attends a neurology follow-up consultation. Her medical records indicate impairment to a cranial nerve that arises from the anterior olive of the medulla oblongata.
What is the most probable area of impact in this patient as a result of the nerve damage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deviation of the tongue
Explanation:The hypoglossal nerve arises anterior to the olive of the medulla oblongata and is responsible for innervating the muscles of the tongue. CN IX, X, and XI, on the other hand, emerge posterior to the olive. Hypoglossal nerve palsy can cause ipsilateral tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion.
It is important to note that the lateral rectus muscle is supplied by CN VI, which emerges from the junction of the pons and medulla. The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is responsible for the sensory/afferent pathway of the gag reflex, while the vagus nerve (CN X) regulates the autonomic function of the cardiac muscle. Both CN IX and CN X arise posterior to the olive.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s presents to surgical outpatients with diffuse abdominal pain. As a second-line imaging investigation, a CT scan is requested. The radiologist looks through the images to write the report. Which of the following would they expect to find at the level of the transpyloric plane (L1)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hila of the kidneys
Explanation:The hila of the kidneys are at the level of the transpyloric plane, with the left kidney slightly higher than the right. The adrenal glands sit just above the kidneys at the level of T12. The neck of the pancreas, not the body, is at the level of the transpyloric plane. The coeliac trunk originates at the level of T12 and the inferior mesenteric artery originates at L3.
The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A medical resident is performing an incision on a groin 'abscess' in a drug user who is injecting intravenously. Regrettably, the 'abscess' turns out to be a false aneurysm, leading to profuse bleeding. In the chaos of the moment, the resident accidentally pricks himself in the finger. Later on, it is discovered that the patient has Hepatitis B and the resident has not received any immunization. What classification does Hepatitis B belong to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Double stranded DNA virus
Explanation:Hepatitis B is a hepadnavirus that contains DNA.
Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management
Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.
Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male has undergone renal transplantation due to end-stage renal disease. There are concerns about solid organ rejection and the use of cyclosporine and tacrolimus is being considered for prevention. Is there a difference in the mechanism of action between these two drugs, and is one superior to the other in preventing rejection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit calcineurin
Explanation:Cyclosporine and tacrolimus are immunosuppressants that work by inhibiting calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors. This inhibition leads to a decrease in the production of IL-2, which in turn reduces the clonal proliferation of T cells.
Azathioprine works by antagonizing purine metabolism, while methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. Sirolimus inhibits the activation of the mammalian target of rapamycin, and mycophenolate mofetil reversibly inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase.
Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug
Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.
Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Cyclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it does not affect the bone marrow.
Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.
In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe nausea and general malaise. She has not undergone a booking scan. After conducting an ultrasound, you observe that her uterus appears larger than expected for her gestational age. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Molar pregnancy
Explanation:A uterus that is larger than expected for the stage of pregnancy is a strong indication of a molar pregnancy. The patient is experiencing hyperemesis and overall discomfort, which can be attributed to the elevated levels of B-hcG in her bloodstream, as confirmed by a blood test.
Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal the following:
Magnesium 0.40 mmol/l (normal value 0.7-1.0 mmol/l)
What is the most probable cause for this finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Hypomagnesaemia
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the sensory nerve supply to the corner of the jaw?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greater auricular nerve (C2-C3)
Explanation:The greater auricular nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the angle of the jaw, while the trigeminal nerve is the primary sensory nerve for the rest of the face.
The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man from India is staying with relatives in the UK. He presents to the doctor with concerns about difficulty reading the newspaper in the morning. He is unsure if it is due to blurry vision or difficulty distinguishing colors. He has a medical history of tuberculosis and is currently undergoing quadruple therapy. Which medication in his regimen could be causing his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethambutol
Explanation:The standard quadruple therapy consists of ethambutol, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and rifampicin.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of insomnia, sweating, tachycardia, and unintentional weight loss. During the examination, the doctor notices some exophthalmos. Her blood test results reveal a TSH level of 0.05 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 36 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). After further evaluation, she is diagnosed with Graves' disease, an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism by targeting self-antigens with autoantibodies.
What part of the antibody monomers is involved in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fab region
Explanation:The antigen binding sites of immunoglobulins are located within the Fab region, which is composed of a constant and variable domain from both heavy and light chains. The variable domain within the Fab region is responsible for determining antigen specificity and binding. The Fc region, which is consistent across each class of immunoglobulins, interacts with cell surface receptors and determines the class effect. The epitope, or the region of the antigen that binds the antibody, is specifically located within the Fab region. While both heavy and light chains contribute to antigen binding through their variable regions, neither is solely responsible.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is attending the urology clinic and receiving goserelin for his metastatic prostate cancer. Can you explain the drug's mechanism of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Overstimulation of GnRH receptors
Explanation:GnRH agonists used in the treatment of prostate cancer can paradoxically lead to lower LH levels in the long term. This is because chronic use of these agonists can result in overstimulation of GnRH receptors, which in turn disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. While initially stimulating the production of LH/FSH and subsequent androgen production, chronic use of GnRH agonists can cause negative feedback to suppress the release of gonadotropins, resulting in a significant decrease in serum testosterone levels. This mechanism can be thought of as switching on to switch off. It is important to note that inhibiting the 5 alpha-reductase enzyme and relaxing prostatic smooth muscle are not mechanisms of action for GnRH agonists, but rather for other medications used in the treatment of prostate conditions.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the area between the vocal cords?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rima glottidis
Explanation:The narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity is known as the rima glottidis.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient presents to the doctor after experiencing syncope. The doctor conducts a carotid sinus massage to investigate further and observes a drop in the patient's blood pressure. Additionally, the patient displays signs of dizziness during the procedure. Which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting the afferent response that results in the patient's syncope?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal (IX)
Explanation:Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with a sudden exacerbation of arthralgia affecting his hands and wrists. He also complains of feeling excessively fatigued lately. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination, his BMI is found to be 35 kg/m2. Laboratory tests reveal:
- Na+ 140 mmol/l
- K+ 4.2 mmol/l
- Urea 3.8 mmol/l
- Creatinine 100 µmol/l
- Plasma glucose 11.8 mmol/l
- ALT 150 u/l
- Serum ferritin 2000 ng/ml
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Hereditary haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects how the body processes iron. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. The symptoms in the early stages can be vague and non-specific, such as feeling tired and experiencing joint pain. As the condition progresses, it can lead to chronic liver disease and a condition known as bronze diabetes, which is characterized by iron buildup in the pancreas causing diabetes, and a bronze or grey pigmentation of the skin. Based on the patient’s symptoms of joint pain, elevated ALT levels, and significantly high ferritin levels, it is highly likely that they have haemochromatosis.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.
Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sudden-onset abdominal pain that has been ongoing for an hour. She describes the pain as intense and cramping, with a severity rating of 9/10.
The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and atrial fibrillation.
After undergoing a contrast CT scan, a thrombus is discovered in the inferior mesenteric artery, and the patient is immediately scheduled for an urgent laparotomy.
What structures are likely to be affected based on this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal third of colon and the rectum superior to pectinate line
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery is responsible for supplying blood to the hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum superior to the pectinate line. In this case, the patient’s sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and history of atrial fibrillation suggest acute mesenteric ischemia, with the affected artery being the inferior mesenteric artery. Therefore, if a thrombus were to block this artery, the distal third of the colon and superior rectum would experience ischaemic changes. It is important to note that the ascending colon, caecum, ileum, appendix, greater omentum, and stomach are supplied by different arteries and would not be affected by a thrombus in the inferior mesenteric artery.
The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut
The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.
The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.
Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of severe vertigo that have been disabling. She experiences these episodes multiple times a day, with each one lasting for about 10-20 minutes. Along with the vertigo, she also experiences ringing in both ears, nausea, and vomiting. She has noticed a change in her hearing in both ears, with difficulty hearing at times and normal hearing at other times. Additionally, she reports increased pressure in her ears. During the examination, you notice a painless rash behind her ear that has been present for many years.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meniere’s disease
Explanation:Suspect Meniere’s disease in a patient presenting with vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. Acoustic neuroma would present with additional symptoms such as facial numbness and loss of corneal reflex. Herpes Zoster Oticus (Ramsey Hunt syndrome) would present with facial palsy and a painless rash. Vestibular neuronitis would have longer episodes of vertigo, nausea, and vomiting, but no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo would have brief episodes of vertigo after sudden head movements.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old retired delivery man visits his family physician with a complaint of knee pain. He reports that the pain is present in both knees and worsens towards the end of the day. The pain usually subsides after resting and in the morning. He has been experiencing knee pain for the past few years and used to take paracetamol, which provided relief. However, the pain has recently intensified, limiting his ability to work. The patient occasionally experiences right hip pain, but it does not bother him much. The patient has a medical history of well-controlled diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and lower back pain. He has a body mass index of 32 kg per m2 and takes metformin, insulin, and candesartan regularly. On examination, there is no redness, swelling, or tenderness over the knees. The physician recommends an X-ray of both knees. What is the most probable X-ray finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narrowed joint space, subchondral sclerosis, osteophytes
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are most consistent with osteoarthritis, with no signs of inflammation. Radiographic findings of narrowed joint space and osteophytes support this diagnosis. Other differential diagnoses include rheumatoid arthritis, gout, and pseudogout. The patient’s occupation as a delivery man may have contributed to the development of osteoarthritis. The presence of symptoms and limitations in daily activities should be considered in developing a management plan.
Comparison of Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are two types of arthritis that affect the joints. Osteoarthritis is caused by mechanical wear and tear, resulting in the localized loss of cartilage, remodelling of adjacent bone, and associated inflammation. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects women more commonly than men and can occur in adults of all ages. It typically affects the MCP and PIP joints, causing bilateral symptoms and systemic upset, while osteoarthritis affects large weight-bearing joints such as the hip and knee, as well as the carpometacarpal joint and DIP and PIP joints, causing unilateral symptoms and no systemic upset.
The typical history of osteoarthritis involves pain following use, which improves with rest, while rheumatoid arthritis involves morning stiffness that improves with use. X-ray findings for osteoarthritis include loss of joint space, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, and osteophytes forming at joint margins. For rheumatoid arthritis, X-ray findings include loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, periarticular erosions, and subluxation.
In summary, while both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis affect the joints, they have different causes, affected joints, symptoms, and X-ray findings. Understanding these differences can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Where does the spinal cord terminate in infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:During the third month of development, the spinal cord of the foetus extends throughout the entire vertebral canal. However, as the vertebral column continues to grow, it surpasses the growth rate of the spinal cord. As a result, at birth, the spinal cord is located at the level of L3, but by adulthood, it shifts up to L1-2.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of a limp. He has a swollen right knee with clinical synovitis but no effusion. He is growing normally and has been generally healthy, except for experiencing diarrhoea and vomiting last week. There are no signs of joint issues in his other joints.
What condition is most likely causing his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis in Children
Reactive arthritis is the most common form of arthritis in children and is often associated with recent illness. In this case, the child presents with large-joint oligoarthritis following gastroenteritis. While it may also be associated with genitourinary infection, treating the infection does not alter the course of the joint disease. The child should be given analgesia and observed for arthritis elsewhere.
Although this may be a new presentation of enteropathic arthritis or JIA, the child’s lack of chronic disease symptoms reduces the likelihood of these diagnoses. Gout is extremely rare in children, except for in rare metabolic conditions. Septic arthritis must also be considered, but the child is likely to be systemically unwell with features of infection.
In summary, reactive arthritis is the most likely diagnosis in this case of paediatric arthritis following recent illness. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and consider other potential diagnoses if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old individual undergoes a lump excision procedure and upon examination of a histological section, a clump of Reed Sternberg cells is identified by the pathologist. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkins lymphoma
Explanation:Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.
The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.
When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.
In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to you, his primary care physician, after being treated for acute pancreatitis in the hospital. A contrast CT scan conducted during his stay revealed several small blind-ended pouches in the sigmoid colon. These pouches do not appear to be causing any symptoms.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticulosis
Explanation:Diverticulosis refers to the presence of diverticula in the colon without any symptoms.
Diverticulosis is a common condition where multiple outpouchings occur in the bowel wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. It is more accurate to use the term diverticulosis when referring to the presence of diverticula, while diverticular disease is reserved for symptomatic patients. Risk factors for this condition include a low-fibre diet and increasing age. Symptoms of diverticulosis can include altered bowel habits and colicky left-sided abdominal pain. A high-fibre diet is often recommended to alleviate these symptoms.
Diverticulitis is a complication of diverticulosis where one of the diverticula becomes infected. The typical presentation includes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and signs of infection such as pyrexia, raised WBC, and CRP. Mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics, while more severe episodes require hospitalization. Treatment involves nil by mouth, intravenous fluids, and intravenous antibiotics such as a cephalosporin and metronidazole. Complications of diverticulitis include abscess formation, peritonitis, obstruction, and perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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How can this question be restated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NMDA receptors are ligand gated ion channels
Explanation:Different Types of Receptors in the Body
There are various types of receptors in the body that play important roles in different physiological processes. One type of receptor is the 5HT3 receptor, which is a ligand gated ion channel. This means that it opens and closes in response to the binding of a specific ligand, allowing ions to flow in and out of the cell. Another type of receptor is the aldosterone receptor, which is a steroid receptor. This receptor binds to the hormone aldosterone and regulates the body’s electrolyte balance.
The β2 adrenoreceptor is another type of receptor, which is a g protein coupled receptor. This receptor is activated by the hormone adrenaline and plays a role in regulating heart rate and bronchodilation. Finally, the insulin receptor is a tyrosine receptor kinase. This receptor is activated by the hormone insulin and plays a crucial role in regulating glucose metabolism in the body. the different types of receptors in the body is important for how different physiological processes are regulated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the GP clinic for wound dressing on his left leg. During the visit, the nurse informs the GP that she suspects the patient's legs are swollen. Upon examination, the GP observes bilateral pitting edema that extends up to the knee and decides to prescribe a diuretic. Which diuretic inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide (loop diuretic)
Explanation:Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The surgeon opts for an orchidectomy and severs the artery supplying the left testicle. What is the origin of this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta
Explanation:The abdominal aorta gives rise to the testicular artery.
Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes
The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.
The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea while in a supine position. Despite having a normal ejection fraction, what could be a potential cause for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction
Explanation:When there is systolic dysfunction, the ejection fraction decreases as the stroke volume decreases. However, in cases of diastolic dysfunction, ejection fraction is not a reliable indicator as both stroke volume and end-diastolic volume may be reduced. Diastolic dysfunction occurs when the heart’s compliance is reduced.
Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the hospital complaining of severe right upper quadrant pain and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She has a medical history of depression and anemia and is currently taking iron supplements and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, she appears confused and has yellow-tinted sclera. Her prothrombin time is 50 seconds, and her blood results show a pH of 7.1, albumin levels of 18g/L, ALT levels of 150 iu/L, ALP levels of 40 umol/L, bilirubin levels of 76 µmol/L, and yGT levels of 115 u/L. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol overdose
Explanation:The most common cause of liver failure in the UK is an overdose of paracetamol. This patient’s symptoms, including vomiting, severe pain in the upper right quadrant, jaundice, confusion, and prolonged prothrombin time, suggest acute liver failure. In this condition, ALT and bilirubin levels are significantly elevated, while yGT and ALP may be normal or elevated. Hypoalbuminemia is also a characteristic feature of acute liver failure.
Given the patient’s history of depression, her risk of self-harm and suicide attempts is higher than that of the general population. However, acute fatty liver of pregnancy is unlikely to be the cause of her liver failure, as she takes the combined oral contraceptive pill, which reduces the chances of pregnancy.
Alcohol is also an unlikely cause of her liver failure, as it takes many years of chronic alcohol abuse to develop alcohol-related liver failure, and this patient is very young.
While testing for hepatitis B antibodies and antigens should be included in the liver screen, paracetamol overdose is a more likely cause of liver failure in the UK.
Understanding Acute Liver Failure
Acute liver failure is a condition characterized by the sudden onset of liver dysfunction, which can lead to various complications in the body. The causes of acute liver failure include paracetamol overdose, alcohol, viral hepatitis (usually A or B), and acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The symptoms of acute liver failure include jaundice, raised prothrombin time, hypoalbuminaemia, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatorenal syndrome. It is important to note that liver function tests may not always accurately reflect the synthetic function of the liver, and it is best to assess the prothrombin time and albumin level to determine the severity of the condition. Understanding acute liver failure is crucial in managing and treating this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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