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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a lump in her armpit that she noticed two months ago and feels is increasing in size. She denies experiencing fever, night sweats, weight loss, or fatigue. The doctor orders some blood tests, as shown below.
Hemoglobin: 116 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
Platelets: 160 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
White blood cells: 72 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
Neutrophils: 5 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
Lymphocytes: 66 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.5 * 109/L)
Blood film: smudge cells
Which of the following factors would suggest a poor prognosis for this patient?Your Answer: Philadelphia translocation
Correct Answer: Del 17p
Explanation:The diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is often made in patients with hepatomegaly, based on the presence of a lymphocyte-predominant leukocytosis and smudge cells on the blood film. Smudge cells are remnants of abnormally fragile lymphocytes that appear during slide preparation.
Among the given options, only the presence of del 17p mutation is a poor prognostic indicator, indicating resistance to standard chemotherapy regimens.
B2-microglobulin levels are used as a prognostic marker in multiple myeloma and CLL, where high levels suggest a poor prognosis.
The Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a poor prognostic factor in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
Male sex, but not female sex, is a poor prognostic factor.
Being under 70 years old is a good prognostic marker.
Prognostic Factors for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of CLL. Poor prognostic factors include male sex, age over 70 years, a high lymphocyte count, prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes, a lymphocyte doubling time of less than 12 months, raised LDH, CD38 expression positive, and TP53 mutation. Patients with these factors have a median survival of 3-5 years.
In addition to these factors, chromosomal changes can also affect the prognosis of CLL. The most common abnormality is deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q), which is seen in around 50% of patients and is associated with a good prognosis. On the other hand, deletions of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p) are seen in around 5-10% of patients and are associated with a poor prognosis.
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when treating patients with CLL, as they can help guide treatment decisions and provide patients with a better understanding of their prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits the Dermatology Clinic with a poorly defined, pearly nodule measuring 0.8 cm in diameter. The lesion is located in the medial canthus, 7 mm from his right lower eyelid, and is accompanied by arborising telangiectasia. What is the most effective treatment option to prevent recurrence and achieve optimal cosmetic results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mohs micrographic surgery
Explanation:Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a common type of skin cancer, and there are several treatment options available. Mohs micrographic surgery is a highly effective technique that is indicated for recurrent or incompletely excised BCC, primary BCC with indistinct borders, lesions located in or near high-risk areas, and aggressive clinical evolution or histological subtype. Radiotherapy may be used in patients who are not suitable for surgery. Excision with a 5 mm margin and flap repair is an option, but it carries the risk of a poor cosmetic result. Curette and cautery is suitable for small nodular or superficial lesions. Vismodegib is a medication that is used for metastatic BCCs, those that have relapsed after surgery, and those that are not amenable to surgery or radiotherapy treatment. It works by blocking the hedgehog signaling pathway. It is important to discuss the various treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a 20-year history of type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent falls. She has fainted twice and hit her head, requiring emergency department visits, and experiences dizziness at other times. She has a history of peripheral neuropathy and sexual dysfunction. Her medication regimen includes insulin glargine and mealtime Novorapid™, as well as ramipril 5 mg/day for renoprotection and indapamide 2.5 mg. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg with a postural drop of 30 mmHg systolic. She exhibits signs consistent with peripheral sensory neuropathy to the mid-shin.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
HbA1c 48 mmol/ml (6.51%) < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop indapamide
Explanation:Management of Postural Hypotension in a Patient with Peripheral Neuropathy
The management of postural hypotension in a patient with peripheral neuropathy involves several steps. The first step is to stop the use of indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, and monitor the patient’s blood pressure over the next few weeks. If the patient still experiences significant postural hypotension, elastic stockings can be added as a conservative measure. Fludrocortisone may also be considered if the patient does not respond to elastic stockings.
It is important to note that the patient’s history of pre-syncope is more suggestive of changes in blood pressure rather than changes in blood glucose. Therefore, reducing prandial insulin or background insulin is not necessary in this case. By following these steps, healthcare providers can effectively manage postural hypotension in patients with peripheral neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with fever, myalgia, rash, and headache after returning from a trip to Sao Paulo. She reports experiencing fevers and abdominal pain the day before her flight home and developing the rash within the last 24 hours. During the examination, petechiae and a maculopapular rash are observed on her wrists, ankles, and palms, along with a single itchy, erythematous raised papule with a central punctum on her right calf. She suspects a tick bite. What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Doxycycline is the preferred treatment for Rocky Mountain spotted fever, a Rickettsial disease transmitted through tick bites in endemic areas like South America. The disease initially presents with general symptoms such as fever, malaise, and abdominal pain, followed by the development of a vasculitic rash after a few days. Albendazole is not appropriate for this condition, as it is used for helminth infections like roundworm and hookworm. Artemether with lumefantrine is also not the correct treatment, as it is used for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria, which is more prevalent in Africa and presents with different symptoms. Metronidazole is also not the preferred treatment for Rickettsial infections, as it is effective against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa.
Understanding Typhus: Types, Symptoms, and Management
Typhus is a group of diseases caused by rickettsia bacteria that are transmitted between hosts by arthropods. There are different types of typhus, including endemic typhus, epidemic typhus, scrub typhus, and spotted fever. Endemic typhus is caused by Rickettsia typhi and is transmitted by fleas on rats. It occurs worldwide, particularly in warm coastal regions. Epidemic typhus, on the other hand, is caused by Rickettsia prowazekii and is transmitted by body lice. It is more common in central and eastern Africa, as well as central and South America. Scrub typhus, caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, is transmitted by harvest mites on humans or rodents and is more common in Asia. Spotted fever, caused by Rickettsia spotted fever group, is spread by ticks and includes Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Despite their differences, all types of typhus share common symptoms such as fever, headache, and malaise. A rash is also a common feature, typically maculopapular, and begins on the trunk before spreading to the extremities. Later complications may include meningoencephalitis. Management of typhus involves the use of doxycycline.
In summary, understanding the different types of typhus, their symptoms, and management is crucial in preventing and treating this group of diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with mitral regurgitation presents to the cardiology clinic. During an ECG, he is found to have new-onset atrial fibrillation. He reports feeling well and denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. His blood pressure is 120/90 mmHg and his heart rate is 62 beats per minute. On examination, an S3 is audible and a 3/5 pansystolic murmur is heard loudest in the mitral area, with a displaced apex beat. A recent echocardiogram showed a regurgitant mitral valve with evidence of left atrial and ventricular dilatation, but preserved ejection fraction. He is currently taking naproxen for osteoarthritis and over-the-counter vitamin D supplements. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for mitral valve replacement
Explanation:If a new atrial fibrillation is detected in a patient with mitral regurgitation, it is recommended to refer them for mitral valve replacement.
Understanding Mitral Regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation, also known as mitral insufficiency, is a condition where blood leaks back through the mitral valve on systole. This valve is located between the left atrium and ventricle, and when it doesn’t function properly, it can lead to a less efficient heart. While MR is common in healthy patients to a trivial degree and does not need treatment, severe cases can lead to irreversible heart failure. Risk factors for MR include age, renal dysfunction, and collagen disorders like Marfan’s Syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
There are several causes of MR, including coronary artery disease, mitral valve prolapse, infective endocarditis, rheumatic fever, and congenital defects. Symptoms tend to be due to failure of the left ventricle, arrhythmias, or pulmonary hypertension, and may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and edema. A pansystolic murmur described as blowing is typically heard on auscultation of the chest.
Diagnosis of MR is done through ECG, chest x-ray, and echocardiography. Treatment options include medical management with nitrates, diuretics, positive inotropes, and ACE inhibitors, as well as surgery in acute, severe cases. Repair is preferred over replacement in degenerative regurgitation, as it has been shown to have lower mortality and higher survival rates. When repair is not possible, valve replacement with an artificial or pig valve may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You review a 75-year-old man who was admitted three days earlier with worsening confusion. According to his daughter he worsened overnight, becoming more agitated with slurred speech and a slight drooping of the left side of his face. He now no longer recognises her, and tried to hit her when she visited him on the ward earlier in the day. His BP is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 70/min (AF), and he has a murmur consistent with aortic stenosis. There is slight drooping of the left side of his face, and some apparent coordination problems affecting the left hand side. The examination is cut short when he accuses you of stealing from him and tries to hit you. Routine bloods are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate intervention in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Treatment for Multi-Infarct Dementia with Psychotic Features
Multi-infarct dementia is a condition that can lead to elements of psychosis, where patients may hold delusional beliefs. In this case, the patient is exhibiting physical violence and a belief that the staff intends to poison him. To manage this situation, an atypical anti-psychotic such as olanzapine is appropriate. NICE clinical pathways recommend the use of lorazepam, haloperidol, or olanzapine in acute situations, with haloperidol being the least preferred due to the risk of worsening movement disorders.
It is important to note that agents used for the treatment of Alzheimer’s, such as donepezil and memantine, are not recommended for the treatment of symptoms of multi-infarct dementia. Additionally, there are no features of depression in this case, so an SSRI such as sertraline is not warranted. While lorazepam may be sedating, it is not as effective in reducing psychotic features as olanzapine. Overall, the appropriate treatment for multi-infarct dementia with psychotic features involves the use of atypical anti-psychotics such as olanzapine, as recommended by NICE clinical pathways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male patient presents with acute severe ulcerative colitis. He has been experiencing frequent episodes of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pains. Despite being on a reducing dose of steroids at home, he failed to respond. After 5 days of treatment with intravenous hydrocortisone, he developed tachycardia, hypotension, and worsening abdominal pain.
Investigations:
- Hb: 136 g/L
- WBC: 10 * 10^9/L
- Platelets: 250 * 10^9/L
- Serum albumin: 31 g/L
- Serum CRP: 68 mg/L
What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:When a patient with ulcerative colitis presents with severe systemic symptoms such as acute tachycardia and possible abdominal pain (which may be masked by steroids), it is crucial to quickly rule out any complications. In such cases, a CT abdomen is the preferred first-line investigation as it is the most effective way to identify perforation. While other tests such as CMV serum PCR, faecal calprotectin, and stool for Clostridium difficile may be useful in subsequent evaluations, they are not as urgent as a CT scan in ruling out a surgical emergency. Indications for surgery in the acute setting include failure of medical management, perforation, toxic megacolon, severe haemorrhage, and malignancy.
Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presented to the clinic with a 3-week history of fever, fatigue, and muscle pain. She also reported having mouth sores. She had traveled to Brazil 2 months ago to visit family and friends and had unprotected sexual intercourse during her trip. She has no known medical conditions. On examination, she had cervical lymphadenopathy but no hepatosplenomegaly. Aphthous ulcers were present on her buccal mucosa. The following investigations were conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb): 132 g/l (normal range: 120-160 g/l)
White cell count (WCC): 3.8 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
Neutrophils: 1.8 × 109/l (normal range: 1.5-7.0 × 109/l)
Lymphocytes: 1.2 × 109/l (normal range: 1.5-4.0 × 109/l)
Platelets (PLT): 102 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
Bilirubin: 24 mmol/l (normal range: 1.7-20.5 mmol/l)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 68 u/l (normal range: 7-55 u/l)
Blood film: Atypical reactive lymphocytes
HIV antibodies: Negative
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV infection
Explanation:The patient in question has recently returned from an area with a high prevalence of HIV and is experiencing flu-like symptoms, lymphadenopathy, mild transaminitis, and fever. HIV antibodies may not be present during seroconversion, making a p24 antigen or HIV RNA PCR test a better diagnostic option. Hepatitis C and B, cytomegalovirus infection, and malaria are less likely explanations for the patient’s symptoms, as they do not account for the lymphadenopathy or atypical lymphocytes seen in the blood film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the emergency department feeling generally unwell. She has been experiencing a productive cough, worsening abdominal swelling, and severe constipation for the past five days. Her friend who is with her has noticed that she has been increasingly confused and mentions that she has a history of extensive alcohol use. The patient has a medical history of cirrhosis and COPD, but cannot recall the names of her medications, except for a red inhaler that she uses regularly.
Upon examination, the patient appears jaundiced, feels hot and clammy, and has crepitations in the left lower lobe. Her abdomen is distended with evidence of ascites, and she has distended veins on her chest.
Observations:
- Saturations: 93%
- Respiratory rate: 18/min
- Blood pressure: 121/58 mmHg
- Heart rate: 109/min
- Temperature: 38.2°C
Blood tests reveal:
- Hb: 121 g/l
- Platelets: 52 * 109/l
- WBC: 16 * 109/l
- Na+: 147 mmol/l
- K+: 4.8 mmol/l
- Urea: 11.1 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 153 µmol/l
- Bilirubin: 57 µmol/l
- ALP: 173 u/l
- ALT: 121 u/l
- Albumin: 26 g/l
- INR: 2.3
- PT: 25s
Further tests are ordered, including a CXR that shows left lower lobe consolidation, blood cultures, and an ultrasound scan of her abdomen. Additionally, calcium, phosphate, magnesium, and glucose levels are checked. In the acute setting, what other investigation would be most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascitic tap
Explanation:The appropriate course of action in this scenario is to perform an ascitic tap. The patient is experiencing acute decompensated cirrhosis due to a lower respiratory tract infection. While a CT head and lumbar puncture may be useful in ruling out potential causes of confusion, a CT head would only be necessary if there was evidence of head trauma. Given the patient’s sepsis and likely hepatic encephalopathy, confusion is expected. An abdominal X-ray and CT chest are unlikely to provide useful information, but an ascitic tap can offer valuable insights into the nature of the ascites by examining the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG). It is crucial to obtain a sample before initiating antibiotic treatment.
Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the abdominal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. If the SAAG level is greater than 11g/L, it indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. Other causes of portal hypertension include cardiac conditions like right heart failure and constrictive pericarditis, as well as infections like tuberculous peritonitis. On the other hand, if the SAAG level is less than 11g/L, ascites may be caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, and other conditions.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and sometimes fluid restriction if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are often prescribed, and loop diuretics may be added if necessary. Therapeutic abdominal paracentesis may be performed for tense ascites, and large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of complications. Prophylactic antibiotics may also be given to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In some cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher presents with a prolonged history of abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome a decade ago and is currently taking mebeverine, peppermint tablets and a combination of sodium alginate, calcium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate. She is a vegetarian and rarely consumes alcohol or tobacco.
Upon examination, all systems appear normal. However, her blood tests indicate macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The patient in question has multiple duodenal ulcers, which is a key indicator of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. This rare condition is characterized by the presence of multiple duodenal or jejunal ulcerations and may present with diarrhea as the primary symptom due to acid deconjugation of bile salts and inactivation of lipases, leading to fat malabsorption. Vitamin B12 deficiency may also be present. High fasting serum gastrin levels are indicative of this syndrome, and radioisotope scans may show hot spots of tumor expressing somatostatin receptors. Treatment involves high-dose proton-pump inhibitors and octreotide to reduce gastrin secretion. Pernicious anemia, untreated peptic ulcer disease, dyspepsia overlapped with irritable bowel syndrome, and somatostatinoma are all unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms and endoscopy findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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