-
Question 1
Correct
-
What is the most effective way to distinguish between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?
Your Answer: Brisk reflexes
Explanation:Hyperthyroidism is typically associated with brisk reflexes, while hypothyroidism is associated with reduced reflexes. However, the other symptoms and signs can be present in both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism.
Thyroid Examination Findings
Hypothyroidism:
– Weight gain (with decreased appetite)
– Intolerance to cold
– Lethargy
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances
– Decreased perspirationExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Bradycardia
– Periorbital puffiness and dry skin
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Myxoedema
– HyporeflexiaHyperthyroidism:
– Weight loss (with increased appetite)
– Intolerance to heat
– Palpitations
– Menstrual disturbancesExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Tachycardia
– Warm, moist, and smooth skin
– Tremor
– Brisk reflexes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Can excessive alcohol consumption lead to a decrease in white blood cell count?
Your Answer: WBC
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence Blood Profile
Alcohol dependence can have a significant impact on an individual’s blood profile. Several markers tend to be elevated in individuals with alcohol dependence, including GGT, AST, MCV, and ALT. Among these markers, GGT is considered the most reliable indicator of recent alcohol use. This means that elevated levels of GGT in the blood can suggest that an individual has consumed alcohol recently.
It is important to note that these blood markers may not be elevated in all individuals with alcohol dependence, and other factors can also contribute to changes in blood profile. However, monitoring these markers can be useful in assessing an individual’s alcohol use and identifying potential health risks associated with alcohol dependence. Healthcare professionals can use this information to develop appropriate treatment plans and support individuals in managing their alcohol use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
On average, what percentage of people would score lower than 100 on an IQ test?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
What is the most reliable way to determine someone's current level of intelligence?
Your Answer: WAIS
Explanation:The field of psychiatry uses various cognitive tests to assess different areas of cognition, including premorbid intelligence, intelligence, memory, attention, language, and others. Some commonly used tests include the National Adult Reading Test (NART) for premorbid intelligence, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence scale (WAIS) and Raven’s Progressive Matrices for intelligence, the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure for memory, and the Stroop test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Tower of London, and Continuous Performance Tasks for attention. The Boston naming test and Animal fluency are used to assess language skills. The Halstead-Reitan battery is used specifically for assessing brain damage. These tests are often included in the MRCPsych exams.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which of the following is an example of a compound question?
Your Answer: Do you limit what you eat and exercise to keep thin?
Explanation:Understanding Compound Questions in Interview Techniques
When conducting interviews, it is important to be aware of compound questions. These are questions that combine multiple inquiries into what appears to be a single question. Compound questions can be confusing for the interviewee and may lead to inaccurate of incomplete responses.
To avoid compound questions, it is important to break down inquiries into separate, clear questions. This allows the interviewee to fully understand what is being asked and provide a thoughtful response. Additionally, it is important to avoid using conjunctions such as and of of when asking questions, as this can create compound questions.
By using clear and concise language and avoiding compound questions, interviewers can ensure that they are receiving accurate and complete responses from their interviewees. This can lead to a more successful and informative interview process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 12 year old male is referred by his GP following concerns by his school regarding his academic ability. He is unable to read of write. Which of the following would be the most appropriate measure of his intellectual functioning?
Your Answer: WAIS-III
Correct Answer: WISC
Explanation:The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of the following symptoms is not classified as a first rank symptom?
Your Answer: Gustatory hallucinations
Explanation:First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia
First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.
A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.
The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which lobe is commonly linked to executive aprosody dysfunction?
Your Answer: Dominant temporal
Correct Answer: Non-dominant frontal
Explanation:Understanding Prosody and Aprosodias
Prosody refers to the emotional tone of language, which is conveyed through the melodious quality and inflections in the voice. It is affected by various psychiatric and neuropsychiatric illnesses, and disorders in the ability to express of understand the emotional overlay of speech are called aprosodias. Aprosodias are typically caused by dysfunction in areas of the non-dominant hemisphere, usually the right side of the brain.
Executive aprosody, which is the ability to express emotions in speech, can be tested by asking the patient to repeat a neutral sentence with different emotions. It is affected by lesions of the right premotor cortex of the basal ganglia. On the other hand, receptive aprosody, which is the ability to understand emotions in speech, can be tested by asking the patient to identify the emotion conveyed in a neutral sentence with different emotional inflections. It is affected by lesions of the posterior superior right temporal lobe.
Abnormalities of prosody are not specific to any particular disorder, but patients with severe depression, schizophrenia, and pervasive developmental disorders often present with characteristic abnormalities of prosody. For instance, severely depressed patients may have a monotonous, affect-neutral pattern of speech, while patients with schizophrenia may present with abnormal modulation of emphasis and volume of unusual accents. Patients with autism and Asperger’s disorder may have speech patterns that are monotonous, robotic, of singsong in quality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination?
Your Answer: Occurs in inner subjective space
Explanation:The distinguishing factors between the two are based on personal interpretation and tangible versus intangible concepts.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
What information of tool would be of the least use to a doctor who wants to assess a patient for a personality disorder?
Your Answer: SAPAS
Correct Answer: BPRS
Explanation:The BPRS is a tool used to assess symptoms in individuals with functional mental illness. There are also various screening tools available for personality disorders, which you should have a basic knowledge of for the exam. These include the SAPAS, which is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete. It is scored between 0 and 8 based on yes/no answers to 8 statements, and a score of 3 of more warrants further assessment. The FFMRF is a self-reported tool consisting of 30 items rated 1-5 for each item, based on symptoms rather than diagnosis. The IPDE is a semistructured clinical interview compatible with the ICD and DSM, which includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which of the following conditions is most strongly indicated by a flat affect?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect
Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the PANSS?
Your Answer: Mannerisms are coded as positive symptoms
Correct Answer: Each item is scored out of 7
Explanation:The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A teenager who is not compliant with their medicine says they just forget to take it. The therapist points out that when they stop the medication they end up missing school and social activities. Which technique is the therapist using?
Your Answer: Confrontation
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Confrontation
Confrontation is a technique that can be employed during patient interviews to draw their attention to a particular issue. However, it is crucial to use this technique with care as it can potentially lead to the patient becoming defensive of hostile. Therefore, it is essential to approach confrontation tactfully and with sensitivity. By doing so, the interviewer can effectively communicate their concerns to the patient without causing any unnecessary tension of conflict. Proper use of confrontation can help patients recognize and address problematic behaviors of attitudes, leading to positive outcomes in their treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia has ritualistic movements, and posture which is not goal directed. He is often observed rocking in the corner of the room. Which of the following does he exhibit?:
Your Answer: Stereotypy
Correct Answer:
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequently observed endocrine abnormality in sick euthyroid syndrome?
Your Answer: Low T4
Correct Answer: Low T3
Explanation:Sick Euthyroid Syndrome: Abnormal Thyroid Function in Non-Thyroidal Illness
Sick euthyroid syndrome, also known as low T3 syndrome, is a condition where thyroid function tests show abnormal results, typically low T3 levels, while T4 and TSH levels remain normal. This condition is commonly observed in patients with non-thyroidal illness. For instance, individuals with anorexia who have undergone prolonged starvation may develop this syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What individual utilized the phrases inhibited mania and manic stupor to characterize distinct mixed affective conditions?
Your Answer: Bleuler
Correct Answer: Kraepelin
Explanation:Inhibited Mania
Inhibited mania is one of the six mixed affective states identified by Kraepelin. It is characterized by symptoms of both mania and depression, but with a predominance of depressive features. Patients with inhibited mania may experience feelings of sadness, guilt, and worthlessness, as well as decreased energy and motivation. At the same time, they may also exhibit symptoms of mania, such as increased activity, impulsivity, and irritability.
Inhibited mania is considered an autonomous mixed episode, meaning that the patient consistently experiences symptoms of both mania and depression. This type of mixed state is associated with a poorer prognosis compared to those occurring between transitions from one mood state to another.
Treatment for inhibited mania typically involves a combination of mood stabilizers, antidepressants, and psychotherapy. It is important for clinicians to carefully monitor patients with inhibited mania, as they may be at increased risk for suicide and other adverse outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
What is a known factor that directly leads to polyuria?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse?
Your Answer: The maximum score is 20
Correct Answer: May be stopped after first question depending on the answer
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which option is not a component of the MMSE?
Your Answer: Copy intersecting pentagons
Correct Answer: Asking name of current prime minister
Explanation:What is the name of the current prime minister? This question is part of the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS).
Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)
The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
What is the preferred method for identifying alcohol dependence and risky drinking in primary care settings?
Your Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:In primary care settings, AUDIT is a reliable tool for identifying both hazardous drinking and alcohol dependence, while CAGE is primarily effective in detecting dependence.
Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which movement disorder is most likely to exhibit rhythmic movements?
Your Answer: Myoclonus
Correct Answer: Tremor
Explanation:Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Among the ethnic groups in the UK, which one has consistently shown the highest rate of detention (compulsory admission)?
Your Answer: Black
Explanation:Institutional Racism in Psychiatry
There has been growing concern that institutional racism may be contributing to the overrepresentation of Black patients in mental health settings. Despite ethnic minorities making up only 9% of the UK population, the 2010 ‘Count me in Census’ found that 23% of inpatients and those on CTOs were from Black and minority ethnic groups. Black minority groups also had higher rates of admission, detention, and seclusion.
While patient factors, such as higher rates of mental illness in Black minority groups, may contribute to these findings, there is also a suggestion of inherent racism within psychiatry. This may manifest in perceptions of Black and minority ethnic patients being at greater risk, as well as systemic factors that disadvantage these groups.
It is important to address these issues and work towards a more equitable and just mental health system for all patients, regardless of their ethnicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
What is a true statement about epilepsy?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine is considered a first-line option for the treatment of focal epilepsy
Explanation:Epilepsy: An Overview
Epilepsy is a condition that is diagnosed when a person experiences at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. In the UK, the prevalence of epilepsy is 5-10 cases per 1000. Seizure types are categorized as focal onset of generalized onset. Focal seizures only involve a localized part of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the whole of both hemispheres. Temporal lobe epilepsy is the most common type of focal epilepsy, accounting for 60-70% of cases.
In 60% of people with epilepsy, there is no identifiable cause. Approximately 70% of people with epilepsy achieve remission, meaning they have no seizures for 5 years on of off treatment. of those with convulsive seizures, 2/3 have focal epilepsies and secondary generalized seizures, while the other 1/3 have generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treatment with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) after a second epileptic seizure. For newly diagnosed focal seizures, carbamazepine of lamotrigine are recommended as first-line treatment. Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, of sodium valproate may be offered if carbamazepine and lamotrigine are unsuitable of not tolerated. For newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, with lamotrigine as an alternative if sodium valproate is unsuitable. For absence seizures, ethosuximide of sodium valproate are recommended as first-line treatment. For myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, and for tonic of atonic seizures, sodium valproate is also recommended as first-line treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which symptom is not considered one of Bleuler's primary symptoms?
Your Answer: Ambivalence
Correct Answer: Anhedonia
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
In which areas are the Hayling and Brixton tests utilized to identify deficiencies?
Your Answer: Executive function
Explanation:Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests
The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.
The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?
Your Answer: Fregoli syndrome
Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.
Delusional Misidentification Syndrome
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the SF-36?
Your Answer: It is designed primarily to measure side-effects from medication
Correct Answer: It is a self-administered questionnaire
Explanation:SF-36: A Patient-Reported Survey for Measuring Functioning and Well-Being
The SF-36, also known as the Short-form 36, is a survey consisting of 36 items that patients can complete to rate their functioning and well-being. The survey is designed to measure eight different scales, with four pertaining to physical health and four to mental health. The physical health scales include physical functioning, role limitations due to physical health problems, bodily pain, and general health. The mental health scales include vitality (energy/fatigue), social functioning, role limitations due to emotional problems, and mental health (psychological distress and psychological well-being). Patients can complete the survey on their own, and it typically takes around eight minutes to finish.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A child jumps from one subject to another without any clear link between them. What is the most appropriate term to describe this occurrence?
Your Answer: Derailment
Explanation:Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A child repeats whatever the teacher says. What sign are they exhibiting?
Your Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the best example of a leading question?
Your Answer: What was your intention when you took the tablets?
Correct Answer: So, when you took the overdose you didn't want to die, did you?
Explanation:Techniques for Conducting Effective Interviews: Avoiding Leading Questions
One technique to avoid when conducting interviews is the use of leading questions. These are questions that suggest a particular answer of response, and can result in inaccurate of biased information. Instead, interviewers should strive to ask open-ended questions that allow the respondent to provide their own thoughts and opinions. By avoiding leading questions, interviewers can gather more reliable and unbiased information from their subjects. Additionally, interviewers should be mindful of their tone and body language, as these can also influence the responses they receive. Overall, effective interviewing requires careful preparation and a focus on creating a comfortable and open environment for the respondent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)