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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days with a low-grade fever. He has developed painful ulcers in his mouth and gums. During examination, submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      Primary herpes simplex virus infection is indicated by gingivostomatitis, which this man is experiencing.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not experiencing any symptoms. You comfort her by explaining that it is typical for Chlamydia to be asymptomatic, which is why screening is recommended. What proportion of women with Chlamydia do not show symptoms?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Opportunistic chlamydia screening is crucial due to the significant number of men who carry the infection without showing any symptoms.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a fever and headache. Upon examination, the child appears ill, with a central capillary refill of 4 seconds, a heart rate of 150 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 45 breaths/min, a temperature of 38ºC, and a non-blanching rash on his right leg and torso.

      What is the recommended course of action for the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus...

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    • A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been grown from a wound swab.
      Select from the list the most common cause of a hospital-acquired wound infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insufficient hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Nosocomial Infections in Hospitals: Identification, Control, and Measures

      Insufficient hand disinfection is the leading cause of wound infections acquired in hospitals. The primary objective of hospital infection control is to prevent nosocomial infections. To achieve this, clinical and epidemiological investigations must first identify hospital-acquired infections as either endemic or epidemic. Identifying and typing the isolates causing nosocomial infections can help recognize organisms that are epidemiologically linked. Invasive multiresistant organisms, such as MRSA, often require infection-control measures to prevent their spread, which can minimize the use of expensive and sometimes toxic antibiotics required for their prophylaxis and treatment.

      Epidemic outbreaks can be controlled by measures that interrupt the spread of infection, such as the use of gowns, gloves, and careful hand-washing by those attending patients. Transfer of colonized or infected patients to a single room or an isolation ward is a physical means of preventing spread. Patients infected with the same organism can be grouped together and attended to by a cohort of nurses not involved with uninfected patients. Identification of additional carriers and elimination of colonization may be necessary for some epidemic outbreaks. Although controlled trials demonstrating the efficacy of such measures have not been performed, many observational studies support their use.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 5 - What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine

      Explanation:

      The live vaccine for influenza is administered intranasally.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires antibiotics prior to undergoing a root canal procedure. His dentist has suggested that he consult with his GP due to his history of infective endocarditis. Upon reviewing his electronic medical record, you discover that he has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Additionally, he has native valvular heart disease and his previous infection was caused by staphylococcus. Presently, he appears to be in good health and is not experiencing any acute medical problems.

      As per NICE guidelines, what treatment is recommended in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No specific treatment

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is not standard practice to use antibiotic prophylaxis as a preventive measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures.

      Changes in Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis

      In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released new guidelines regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis. These guidelines significantly altered the list of procedures for which prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract procedures, and respiratory tract procedures no longer require prophylaxis. However, NICE does recommend that any infections in individuals at risk of infective endocarditis be promptly investigated and treated to reduce the risk of developing endocarditis. Additionally, if an individual at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy due to a suspected infection at the site of a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis.

      It is important to note that these recommendations differ from those of the American Heart Association and European Society of Cardiology, which still advocate for antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional haemoptysis, fever, night sweats and weight loss that has been going on for 2 months. His CXR reveals extensive bilateral apical cavitation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Cavitating Tuberculosis

      Cavitating tuberculosis is the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as cough, fever, weight loss, and haemoptysis, along with a chest X-ray appearance. Although lung cancer could be a possible alternative diagnosis, the symptoms strongly suggest a tuberculous infection.

      The recommended treatment for the initial phase of cavitating tuberculosis is a daily combination of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs should be continued for two months. After the initial phase, treatment should continue for an additional four months with isoniazid and rifampicin. Combination preparations are available to make compliance easier for the patient. It is important to follow the prescribed treatment plan to ensure successful recovery from cavitating tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psittacosis

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure

      Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.

      Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago. She is currently taking antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. She has intense difficulty passing urine, accompanied by burning, itching and pain over her labia. On examination there is a crop of vesicles and erosions on her vulva.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Infection: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Herpes simplex infection is caused by two viral subtypes, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is commonly associated with oral or facial infections, while HSV-2 is mainly responsible for genital infections. After primary infection, the virus enters nerve endings in the skin and remains latent until reactivated. Symptoms usually appear 3-7 days after contact and may include a low-grade fever and general malaise. At the site of infection, symptoms include pain, burning, itching, and tingling, with the presence of groups of vesicles surrounded by erythema. These lesions usually ulcerate and crust over within 48 hours, lasting between 2 and 6 weeks without scarring. Women may experience urinary retention due to associated pain. Recurrent infection may occur due to fatigue, stress, local skin trauma, exposure to sunlight, or the menstrual cycle. Treatment involves the use of antiviral agents such as aciclovir, and prophylactic use of oral antiviral therapy may reduce the frequency and severity of recurrent infection.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all over her body, eyebrow loss, and burns on her hands. She experiences tenderness in her thickened ulnar nerves. A skin biopsy reveals the existence of multiple acid-fast bacilli (AFBs).
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leprosy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Leprosy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Challenges in the UK

      Leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae, is a contagious disease that primarily affects the skin and nerves. While it is rare in the UK, it remains a significant cause of peripheral neuropathy worldwide. The disease progresses slowly, with an average incubation period of 7 years, and can range from mild to severe forms. Diagnosis requires the presence of skin patches or hypopigmented areas with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the detection of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies. However, in countries where leprosy is rare, diagnosis can be delayed due to lack of familiarity with the disease. Understanding the symptoms and challenges of diagnosing leprosy is crucial for effective management and prevention.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya. Six weeks after his return, he visits his GP with complaints of malaise, headaches, and night sweats. During the examination, the doctor observes a symmetrical erythematous macular rash on his trunk and limbs along with cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of intermittent diarrhoea, fever (39 oC), headache and a non-productive cough. His pulse is 70 and regular, and his spleen is palpable.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Typhoid

      Explanation:

      Typhoid Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications

      Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella enterica, specifically S typhi and S paratyphi. It is primarily spread through contaminated food and drink, and is most commonly reported in the UK among individuals who have traveled to the Indian sub-continent. Symptoms typically appear 10-20 days after exposure and may include diarrhea, fever, headaches, cough, and constipation. Other signs may include Rose spots, a relative bradycardia, and eye complications.

      As the infection progresses, patients may experience sustained pyrexia, abdominal distension, and splenomegaly. By the third week, weight loss and delirium may occur, along with a liquid, green-yellow pea soup diarrhea. In severe cases, death can result from toxaemia, myocarditis, intestinal hemorrhage, or gut perforation.

      It is important to consider other mosquito-borne illnesses, such as dengue fever and malaria, in the differential diagnosis of febrile patients returning from endemic areas. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing typhoid fever and preventing complications.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and a cough. He is starting to develop a maculopapular rash on his face and upper trunk and has a temperature of 39oC.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles

      Measles is characterized by a 4-day prodrome with cough and conjunctivitis, which is not seen in any other condition. While rubella has a similar prodrome, it is milder and fever is not as high. Parvovirus B19’s rash appears in the convalescent phase, while infectious mononucleosis presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and malaise. The rash in primary HIV is macular, erythematous, and truncal, and is accompanied by painful oral ulceration and lymphadenopathy. However, if a patient presents with cough and conjunctivitis, measles should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

    When is the meningococcal...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

      When is the meningococcal C vaccine given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 months and 3 months

      Explanation:

      UK Immunisation Schedule and Meningococcal Serogroup C Vaccine

      We have provided a reference to the current UK immunisation schedule at the end of this text. It is a two-page A4 summary that we suggest you save and print for future reference. According to the schedule, the meningococcal serogroup C (MenC) vaccine is given to infants at one year old and as part of the MenACWY vaccine at age fourteen. However, the infant dose of MenC conjugate vaccine is no longer administered at three months of age.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in Africa. The laboratory reports that she has Plasmodium falciparum infection.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding Plasmodium falciparum infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemoprophylaxis is not a guarantee against infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Malaria: Symptoms, Severity, and Prevention

      Malaria is a parasitic infection that can be transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The symptoms and severity of malaria can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can cause impaired consciousness, fits, renal failure, hypoglycemia, bleeding, and even death. Other types of malaria, such as P. vivax and P. ovale, may not present symptoms until months or even years after exposure.

      The classic symptom of malaria is a cyclical occurrence of sudden coldness, followed by rigor, fever, and sweating lasting about 2 hours or more. The frequency of these cycles can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection. P. vivax and P. ovale infections typically occur every 2 days, while P. malariae infections occur every 3 days. P. falciparum infections can cause recurrent fever every 36-48 hours or a less pronounced and almost continuous fever.

      Severe cases of malaria can lead to renal failure, jaundice, and even death. However, the use of effective chemoprophylaxis and insecticide-treated nets can prevent up to 90% of malaria cases. Travelers should be encouraged to use appropriate prophylaxis for their travel itinerary, but it’s important to note that this is not a guarantee against infection.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, severity, and prevention of malaria is crucial in protecting oneself from this potentially deadly infection.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting vaccinated before his upcoming trip overseas. He has a medical history of asthma and has been on a 20 mg daily dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months, which was recently upped to 40 mg during a flare-up. Identify the one vaccine that would not be recommended for this individual.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Yellow Fever Vaccination and Other Vaccines

      Yellow fever vaccination is a type of live vaccine that is made from the 17-d strain of the virus grown in hen’s eggs. However, it is not recommended for individuals with a history of impaired immune responsiveness or anaphylactic reaction to egg. Moreover, those who are currently undergoing corticosteroid therapy should not receive live vaccination. On the other hand, the other vaccines are not live vaccines. Hepatitis B and meningococcal vaccinations are surface antigen based, while the other two are toxoids and do not contain any active components. Understanding the differences between these vaccines is important in ensuring proper vaccination and protection against diseases.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6 weeks with purulent sputum, anorexia and weight loss. He sleeps rough and in hostels. You suspect he may have tuberculosis.
      Select the single correct statement concerning diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three spontaneous sputum samples should be sent for culture and microscopy

      Explanation:

      To definitively diagnose tuberculosis, a sample of the patient’s sputum must be cultured to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. At least three spontaneous sputum samples should be collected and stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain for rapid direct microscopy. Culture on a Löwenstein-Jensen slope takes several weeks, and antibiotic sensitivity testing takes even longer. If sputum samples cannot be obtained, bronchoscopy and lavage or gastric washings can be considered. Treatment can be started without culture results if there are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.

      Mantoux skin testing is used to screen for latent tuberculosis in close contacts of patients with active TB. However, as the test may be positive in patients who have had BCG vaccine, interferon-γ is recommended as a second-line test. A chest X-ray may also be ordered to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis in a person with a positive skin test and no symptoms. Abnormalities on the X-ray may not always be diagnostic of tuberculosis.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 19 - What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not experience any symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around 70% of women and 50% of men

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 20 - You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with...

    Incorrect

    • You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of upper left gumline pain, accompanied by a loss of appetite and a temperature of 38.2ºC. On examination, there is tenderness over the gum, and a dental abscess is suspected. Urgent referral to a dentist is recommended, along with antibiotic therapy. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics may be necessary in cases of fever or delayed presentation to a dentist. The BNF recommends amoxicillin as the first-line treatment for dental abscesses, followed by metronidazole for more invasive dental conditions.

      Since GPs have limited knowledge of dental issues, it is best for the patient to be treated by their dentist. The most effective treatment for an abscess is prompt drainage. Antibiotics are generally not recommended for healthy individuals unless there are signs of spreading infection or if the person is systemically unwell. According to NICE CKS guidelines, antibiotics should only be prescribed for severe infections (e.g. fever, lymphadenopathy, cellulitis, diffuse swelling) or for high-risk individuals (e.g. those who are immunocompromised, diabetic, or have valvular heart disease) to reduce the risk of complications.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to have abnormal liver function tests. His hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test is reported as positive.
      What is the most accurate interpretation of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has either acute hepatitis B infection or one of the chronic forms of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Surface Antigen and Antibodies

      The hepatitis B virus is surrounded by a coating called the surface antigen (HBsAg). If this antigen is present, it indicates a hepatitis B infection, which can be either acute or chronic. The infected person can also infect others. It usually takes 4-12 weeks for HBsAg to appear after infection. When the surface antigens disappear and surface antibodies (anti-HBs) appear, the infection is considered cleared, which typically happens within 4 months of symptoms appearing. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either an infection or immunization. Chronic hepatitis B is diagnosed when HBsAg is present for more than 6 months. Patients with chronic active hepatitis B have persistent liver inflammation and are at risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer. Patients with the inactive form usually remain asymptomatic and have less risk of complications but remain infectious. Understanding the role of surface antigen and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.

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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of intravenous drug use and unprotected sex. During pre-test counselling, you have an in-depth conversation about the disease.
      Which of the following statements regarding HIV is inaccurate?
      Select ONE choice only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV testing may give false positive results in the first 3 months after exposure

      Explanation:

      HIV Testing Guidelines and Statistics in the UK

      The BHIVA/BASHH/BIS UK National Guidelines for HIV Testing recommend using the latest 4th generation tests, which detect HIV antibodies and p24 antigen simultaneously. These tests can detect HIV in the majority of individuals 4 weeks after exposure. However, a further test at 8 weeks should be considered for events with a high risk of infection. It is important to note that false negative results can occur in the first 8 weeks, but false positive results are not common during this time. In 2011, around 96,000 people were living with HIV in the UK, and approximately 25% of them were unaware of their infection. It is crucial to follow the recommended testing guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of HIV.

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  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.

      Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.

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  • Question 25 - Which illness is most commonly caused by adenovirus infection from the list provided?...

    Incorrect

    • Which illness is most commonly caused by adenovirus infection from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory infection

      Explanation:

      Adenovirus: A Highly Contagious and Diverse Virus

      Adenovirus is a DNA virus that was first discovered in the 1950s and is named after the adenoid tissue-derived cell cultures in which it was isolated. This virus is extremely hardy and can survive outside a host for long periods, making it ubiquitous in human and animal populations throughout the year. With 52 serotypes, adenovirus is responsible for causing various syndromes and is transmitted through direct inoculation, the faecal-oral route, aerosol droplets, or exposure to infected tissue or blood. Although it most commonly affects infants and children, severe morbidity and mortality associated with adenovirus infections are rare in immunocompetent hosts.

      Adenovirus infections are highly contagious and most commonly occur in the spring and winter months. While approximately half of respiratory infections caused by adenovirus do not cause symptoms, acute respiratory disease is the most common presentation. Symptoms of adenoviral infection include fever, rhinorrhoea, cough, and sore throat, which typically last for 3-5 days. Tonsillitis and otitis media may also occur, and adenoviruses account for 10% of all childhood lower respiratory tract infections. Additionally, adenovirus can cause conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis, and acute haemorrhagic cystitis, especially in young children.

      In conclusion, adenovirus is a highly contagious and diverse virus that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent its spread, especially during peak seasons, and to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

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  • Question 26 - A 54-year-old man from Pakistan visits his GP complaining of numbness and tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man from Pakistan visits his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his feet that has been present for a week. He reports starting some new medications recently. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is revealed that he has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and hypertension.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a well-known adverse effect of isoniazid, while paraesthesia is a rare side effect of amlodipine according to the BNF. Therefore, it is more likely that isoniazid is the cause in this case.

      Common side effects of drugs:
      Rifampicin – orange bodily fluids, rash, hepatotoxicity, drug interactions
      Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, hepatotoxicity

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 27 - A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His father is worried because two days ago he had been playing in the same room as a child who was subsequently diagnosed with Chickenpox.

      He is completely asymptomatic and has no other significant illnesses or allergies. His father declined the varicella vaccine when he was a baby having assumed that it could not be given because one of his grandparents had a history of shingles and a distant relative was undergoing investigation for possible autoimmune disease.

      How would you handle this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that no further action necessary

      Explanation:

      Measles and MMR Vaccination Guidelines

      Significant contact with measles is defined as being in the same room as an infected individual for 15 minutes or more. If an individual has not been fully immunised or has not previously had laboratory confirmed measles, it is assumed that they lack immunity. This is important to note for children who have not received the MMR vaccination for no good reason, as family history of epilepsy or autism is not a contraindication.

      Ideally, the MMR vaccine should be given within three days of contact with a possible case of measles. A repeat MMR vaccine should be given after at least a month. The first dose of MMR should be given between 12 and 13 months of age, within a month of the first birthday. Immunisation before one year of age provides earlier protection in localities where the risk of measles is higher, but residual maternal antibodies may reduce the response rate to the vaccine. The optimal age chosen for scheduling children is therefore a compromise between risk of disease and level of protection.

      If a dose of MMR is given before the first birthday, either because of travel to an endemic country or because of a local outbreak, then this dose should be ignored, and two further doses given at the recommended times between 12 and 13 months of age and at three years four months to five years of age. During the 2012-13 outbreak in Wales, a recommendation was made about the possibility of withdrawal from educational establishments for unvaccinated close contacts.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to prevent the spread of measles and protect individuals who may be at risk.

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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 29 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week history of fever, right sided abdominal pain and general malaise. She has no significant past medical history and has recently travelled to South America, returning 4 weeks ago. During examination, Sarah is found to be pyrexial. She complains of pain in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen and there is hepatomegaly.

      Upon further questioning, Sarah states that she is not sexually active and denies any history of intravenous drug use. Liver function tests reveal a significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP). A full liver screen confirms the diagnosis.

      Sarah is prescribed medication for symptomatic management and she makes a full recovery within 3 months.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Acute hepatitis A is characterized by symptoms similar to those of other forms of acute viral hepatitis, including flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly, and abnormal liver function tests. It is difficult to differentiate hepatitis A from other forms of viral hepatitis based on medical history, physical examination, or routine laboratory tests. However, a history of exposure or risk factors, such as travel to regions with high prevalence, can increase suspicion. Unlike hepatitis C and D, which are transmitted through blood, hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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  • Question 30 - A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4 days but now has a red rash on both sides of her face and a diffuse macular rash elsewhere.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum

      Explanation:

      Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks During Pregnancy

      Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as ‘slapped cheek’ disease or fifth disease, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is called fifth disease because it is the fifth of the classic exanthems. The infection may be asymptomatic or present with nonspecific coryzal symptoms. It is most common between ages 3-15 years.

      The prodromal symptoms of erythema infectiosum are mild and may include headache, rhinitis, low-grade fever, and malaise. In some cases, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or arthropathy may develop. After 3-7 days, the classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears as erythema on the cheeks, sparing the nose, perioral, and periorbital regions. This rash disappears after 2-4 days. About 1-4 days after the facial rash appears, an erythematous macular rash develops on the extremities, mainly on the extensor surfaces. This rash gradually fades but may take up to 3 weeks and can recur.

      Any arthropathy associated with erythema infectiosum is symmetrical and affects the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles. It usually resolves within a few days but in some cases persists for 2 months or longer. It may appear like rheumatoid arthritis.

      Identification of parvovirus B19 infection in a pregnant woman is crucial, as parvovirus infection in the first half of pregnancy may cause fetal hydrops. The outcome of fetal hydrops can be improved by intrauterine transfusion. Therefore, pregnant women should take extra precautions to avoid exposure to erythema infectiosum.

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  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and unpleasant griping abdominal pain. The symptoms appeared 6-7 hours after he ate a rice-based dish from a local Chinese takeaway. His flatmate had similar symptoms after visiting the same takeaway a few days earlier, which resolved within a day. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacillus cereus Infection

      Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that can cause food poisoning. Its incubation period is between 6 to 24 hours, and symptoms usually appear within 1 to 2 days. The bacteria produce a toxin that can cause either severe diarrhea or profuse vomiting, depending on the type of toxin produced.

      In Europe, Bacillus cereus infection is commonly associated with diarrhea. The bacteria are often found in reheated fried rice, which is a common cause of the infection. However, the infection is self-limiting, and appropriate oral rehydration advice is usually enough to manage the symptoms.

      Overall, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes of Bacillus cereus infection to prevent its spread and manage its effects.

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  • Question 32 - A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
      Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis Tests

      Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

      Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.

      The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.

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  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old man is planning a trip and has been advised by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is planning a trip and has been advised by his travel agent to take antimalarial medication. What is the correct statement about chemoprophylaxis for malaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mefloquine is contraindicated in patients with a history of psychiatric illness

      Explanation:

      Antimalarials for Travellers: Importance and Considerations

      Travellers should always seek up-to-date information on appropriate antimalarials for different regions before embarking on their journey. It is important to note that all travellers should be advised to use antimalarials where there is a risk, regardless of their previous exposure or the level of luxury of their accommodation.

      While some may believe that immunity to malaria is strong and long-lasting, it is actually quite mild and wanes quickly when patients move away from the affected area. Therefore, it is crucial to take the necessary precautions to prevent contracting the disease.

      Doxycycline is an effective antimalarial, but it can cause photosensitivity, making it less suitable for patients who plan to spend time sunbathing. Malarone, on the other hand, is ideal for short trips or where only part of a holiday is spent in malaria-prone areas, as it is taken for only 2 days before and 1 week after travel.

      For all other antimalarials, they should be taken from 1 week before until 4 weeks after travel to the affected area. However, it is important to note that mefloquine is contraindicated for patients with a history of psychiatric illness or epilepsy, as it can cause a range of neuropsychiatric symptoms, including depression, panic attacks, agitation, hallucinations, psychosis, convulsions, and suicidal ideation. If such symptoms occur, the drug should be discontinued and replaced with an alternative antimalarial.

      In conclusion, taking the necessary precautions and seeking professional advice on antimalarials is crucial for travellers to prevent contracting malaria.

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  • Question 34 - What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children on long-term steroids should be treated with aciclovir at the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Varicella Infections in Different Populations

      Varicella, commonly known as Chickenpox, is a viral infection that primarily affects children. In healthy children, treatment is not necessary unless they are systemically unwell, which may indicate a bacterial infection. However, immunocompromised individuals should be treated at the first signs of disease.

      For healthy individuals at increased risk of severe varicella infections, such as those older than 14 years, oral acyclovir may be considered. This medication, taken at a dose of 800 mg five times a day for seven days, can reduce the duration of lesions and other symptoms.

      Pregnant women who are not immune to varicella are at risk of passing the infection to their children. The infectivity period lasts from a few days before the onset of lesions until the lesions crust over. School exclusion is typically required for five days.

      Overall, understanding the appropriate treatment and prevention measures for varicella infections in different populations is crucial for managing this common childhood illness.

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  • Question 35 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.

      Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Travelers

      Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.

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  • Question 36 - A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a hepatitis C test. What should be done in response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an anti-HCV antibody test

      Explanation:

      HCV RNA tests are typically not requested unless the antibody test comes back positive.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 37 - What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents

      Explanation:

      Head Lice Treatment and Prevention

      Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.

      Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.

      If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.

      Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.

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  • Question 38 - A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from...

    Incorrect

    • A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from a patient who is known to be HIV positive. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 39 - A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is often followed by a vomit and a whooping sound sometimes accompanies the first inspiration following the coughing spasm. She doesn't seem ill and the lungs sound clear on auscultation. She has had courses of amoxicillin and erythromycin. Most of her immunisations in infancy were missed.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the parents that the cough may last 100 days and nothing will influence it

      Explanation:

      Whooping Cough: Symptoms, Treatment, and Risks for Infants

      Whooping cough, caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, is a highly contagious respiratory disease that can cause persistent coughing for up to 2-3 months. Commonly known as the 100 days’ cough, this disease is particularly severe in infants, with about 50% of cases requiring hospitalization.

      While antibiotics do not alter the course of the disease, erythromycin, clarithromycin, or azithromycin can help reduce the period of infectivity when given for 7-14 days. Codeine linctus is often prescribed, but there is no evidence for its effectiveness.

      It is important to note that the severity of whooping cough is related to the age of the patient, with morbidity and mortality being greatest in infants under 6 months of age. Therefore, it is crucial to take preventative measures, such as vaccination, and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with scanty sputum, hoarseness and headache and a few left basal crepitations were heard on examination. She was treated with amoxicillin for 7 days but her cough persists and crepitations are still audible at the left base.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Community-Acquired Pneumonia and Treatment Options

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is suggested by lower respiratory signs and symptoms, and amoxicillin is an appropriate choice of treatment. The most likely organisms causing CAP are S. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and respiratory viruses. Flucloxacillin is appropriate for suspected staphylococcal infection, but staphylococcal pneumonia is usually severe, which is not the case here. Atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma or Chlamydophila is more likely, with Chlamydophila causing symptoms that may drag on for weeks or months. A chest X-ray may show more severe changes than the symptoms and signs suggest. Treatment for atypical pneumonia is similar to other CAPs, with clarithromycin being the drug of choice. For moderately severe CAP, amoxicillin and clarithromycin or doxycycline alone are recommended. Severe cases will usually require hospitalization.

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  • Question 41 - A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.

      Explanation:

      Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

      Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:

      1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
      2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
      3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
      4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
      5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
      6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
      7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
      8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
      9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
      10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.

      It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.

      Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

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  • Question 42 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her right arm following a hike in the woods. She reports feeling fine and there is no apparent rash upon inspection.

      What is the optimal method for removing the tick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fine-tipped tweezers

      Explanation:

      To effectively remove a tick, it is best to use fine-tipped tweezers. The tick should be grasped as close to the skin as possible and pulled upwards with firm pressure. It is important to avoid using blunt-nose tweezers, petroleum jelly, or heat from a hot match as these methods can increase the risk of infection or cause the tick to regurgitate into the bite. After removal, the area should be thoroughly cleaned.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 43 - Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If...

    Incorrect

    • Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If so, which one is it from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases: What You Need to Know

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a crucial aspect of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. For meningococcus, rifampicin, ceftriaxone, or ciprofloxacin can be used for prophylaxis, along with vaccination for group C. Rabies can be prevented through active and passive immunization after exposure. Combination antiretroviral therapy can reduce the incidence of HIV infection after needlestick injuries. Measles vaccine can prevent an attack if given within 3 days of contact, and immunoglobulin can be used if the vaccine cannot be given. Unfortunately, there is no effective PEP for HCV, but healthcare workers should be tested and referred for specialist care if they seroconvert. It is essential for healthcare workers to be aware of PEP options to protect themselves and their patients from infectious diseases.

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  • Question 44 - A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal discharge accompanied by itching. Upon conducting a sexual health screening, it is discovered that she has tested positive for gonorrhoea. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, which is also safe to administer during pregnancy.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 45 - A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy seeks guidance on malaria prophylaxis...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy seeks guidance on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming trip to Vietnam. He will be visiting coastal tourist spots as well as traveling inland. What is the most suitable medication to prevent malaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atovaquone + proguanil

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 46 - What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No vaccine is available but treatment is successful in the majority of patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 47 - You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Campylobacter jejuni after a stool sample test. He believes that he contracted the infection from consuming undercooked chicken at a barbecue 3 days before the onset of his symptoms.

      Although he feels much better now, with the cessation of bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever, he still experiences loose stools 3-4 times a day, along with abdominal pain and bloating after eating food. He maintains a regular diet.

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary lactose intolerance

      Explanation:

      If a patient who previously had gastroenteritis and maintains a normal diet continues to experience changes in their bowel habits, the most probable diagnosis is acquired lactose intolerance.

      The most likely explanation for this scenario is secondary lactose intolerance, which occurs when the lining of the gut is damaged and temporarily unable to produce sufficient lactase. This damage can be caused by any condition that irritates and harms the gut, such as gastroenteritis. This type of lactose intolerance is usually temporary, and avoiding dairy products for a few weeks or months allows the gut to heal. Over time, the gut’s ability to produce lactase will recover, and the patient will be able to consume dairy products again.

      While other possibilities exist, inflammatory bowel disease and coeliac disease are less likely than lactose intolerance and are not typically associated with confirmed gastroenteritis.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is a rare complication of gastroenteritis, particularly with certain strains of E.coli, but it typically presents with haematuria and decreased urine output.

      The final option is unlikely since it appears that the infection has improved.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 48 - In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting...

    Incorrect

    • In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting with residents and quickly spreading to staff. Which organism is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Symptoms, Incubation Period, and Prevention

      Norovirus gastroenteritis, commonly known as winter vomiting disease, is a highly contagious illness that often occurs during the winter season. However, outbreaks can happen anytime and in various settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. The incubation period ranges from 12 to 48 hours, with symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The disease is self-limiting and usually lasts between 12 and 60 hours. While it poses a risk to frail or immunocompromised individuals, strict hygiene measures can prevent the spread of the virus.

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  • Question 49 - A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss, chronic cough, and hemoptysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberculosis in the UK: Risk Factors and Diagnosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern in the UK, with 8587 cases reported in 2010. Pulmonary TB is the most common form, accounting for 60% of cases. Certain groups are at higher risk, including those who have had close contact with a TB patient, ethnic minorities, homeless individuals, alcoholics and drug abusers, HIV-positive and immunocompromised patients, elderly individuals, young children, and those with other underlying health conditions. TB can be difficult to diagnose, as primary infection is often asymptomatic and secondary infection can present with nonspecific symptoms. A high level of suspicion is necessary to identify TB in at-risk patients.

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  • Question 50 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notices a yellowish tint to the whites of her eyes. The patient resides in a remote fishing village and consumes a diet high in seafood. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and reports no weight loss or other constitutional symptoms. The following are her liver function test results:

      - Bilirubin: 20 µmol/l
      - ALP: 160 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - Albumin: 35 g/l

      All other routine blood results are normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis E

      Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E doesn’t cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.

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  • Question 51 - What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea, often accompanied by E. coli. It can also lead to intestinal malabsorption. The preferred treatment for this condition is metronidazole.

      Stool microscopy is a traditional method of detecting cysts and oocysts, but it is laborious and less sensitive than the current antigen detection test. A single stool examination can identify only 50% of cases, while three stool samples can detect up to 90%.

      Unlike E. coli 0157 infection, giardiasis doesn’t cause blood loss. HUS, a severe complication, is not associated with giardiasis.

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  • Question 52 - A patient who has just returned from the Ivory Coast is experiencing cyclical...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has just returned from the Ivory Coast is experiencing cyclical fever and headache. During the examination, splenomegaly is observed. After a blood film, the patient is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax malaria. The patient, who is in his 50s, is initially treated with chloroquine and later given primaquine. What is the advantage of administering primaquine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

      Explanation:

      To prevent relapse in non-falciparum malaria, primaquine is administered to eliminate liver hypnozoites.

      Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment

      Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.

      The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is associated with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae is associated with cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may relapse following treatment.

      In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. In areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. However, ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.

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  • Question 53 - A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with COPD and currently receives the yearly...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with COPD and currently receives the yearly flu shot. What should be done regarding the pneumococcal vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be given it as a one-off

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease require a booster every 5 years, while most adults only need one dose.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 54 - You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and...

    Incorrect

    • You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and your next patient is a 37-year-old male. He expresses his concern about having Lyme disease after reading an online article. He reports experiencing intermittent malaise, joint aches, muscle aches, and headaches for the past two years. He also mentions having swollen cervical lymph glands and feeling hot and sweaty at night. As an avid hiker and mountain-biker, he believes he may have been bitten by ticks in the past. However, he denies ever having a rash like erythema migrans. What would be your initial approach to managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform ELISA

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of Lyme disease in a patient without a history of erythema migrans, ELISA is the recommended initial investigation according to NICE Guidance. If the ELISA result is positive, immunoblot should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. However, if there is a high suspicion of Lyme disease despite the absence of erythema migrans, treatment should be initiated while waiting for the ELISA result. In patients with erythema migrans, treatment should be started immediately. The patient’s symptoms may not be specific to Lyme disease, but ELISA is still the first-line investigation.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 55 - A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
      What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.

      To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.

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  • Question 56 - A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of a persistent cold sore despite using over-the-counter topical medication. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe, frequent, persistent, or recurrent gingivostomatitis (a rare form of oral herpes simplex infection), antivirals may be considered as a treatment option. Immunocompromised patients may benefit from oral aciclovir for cold sore management.

      Continuing to use over-the-counter topical medication is not recommended for this patient as it has not been effective. It is important to explore other treatment options to alleviate their ongoing symptoms.

      It would be inappropriate to not offer any further treatment options to this patient as there are options available.

      Referral to dermatology is not necessary for the management of cold sores in most cases. However, if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis, a referral may be appropriate.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

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  • Question 57 - Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends and is concerned about the prevalence of mosquitoes in the area. She visits the clinic seeking travel vaccinations and advice. What is accurate regarding preventing mosquito bites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DEET can repel mosquitos for up to 12 hours post application

      Explanation:

      DEET is safe to use topically on infants as young as 2 months old, as well as pregnant and breastfeeding women. It effectively repels mosquitos and can prevent tick attachment for up to 12 hours after application. However, it doesn’t offer any sun protection. To ensure proper protection, it is recommended to apply sunscreen first and then apply DEET on top.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 58 - A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 33%

      Explanation:

      The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics

      Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.

      In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.

      Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.

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  • Question 59 - A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis that turned into an ulcer within a few days. Upon examination, a solitary, circular, hardened ulcer is visible.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Primary Syphilis: The First Sign and Symptoms

      Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a small, painless papule that quickly turns into an ulcer known as a chancre. This ulcer is typically solitary, round or oval, painless, and surrounded by a bright-red margin. Unlike other open syphilitic lesions, it is not usually infected with secondary bacteria. Treponema pallidum, the bacteria responsible for syphilis, can be detected in the serum from the sore, which can be easily obtained by slightly abrading the base. If left untreated, primary syphilis can progress to more severe stages of the disease. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have syphilis.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 60 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

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  • Question 61 - A 54-year-old businessman returns from a recent trip to the Philippines and presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old businessman returns from a recent trip to the Philippines and presents with symptoms of diarrhoea, flu-like illness, and a rash on his trunk. He also has cervical lymphadenopathy and a widespread maculopapular rash. On examination, his vital signs are stable. What investigation would be most helpful in determining the cause of his illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and timing of this man’s illness suggest that he may be experiencing HIV seroconversion illness. Although he may have contracted a gastrointestinal infection while traveling, this is unlikely to account for his rash and swollen lymph nodes.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

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  • Question 62 - A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
    Select from the list the single feature...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
      Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cough

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus

      It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.

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  • Question 63 - You are on rotation at a sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male comes...

    Incorrect

    • You are on rotation at a sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male comes in with symptoms of mucopurulent urethral discharge and dysuria. He provides samples for testing. You suspect a possible diagnosis of Chlamydia.

      What laboratory methods are typically utilized to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing

      Explanation:

      When Chlamydia is suspected in a patient, the preferred method of investigation is nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs). Samples can be collected through swabs or first-catch urine. Direct culture is no longer commonly utilized for diagnosing Chlamydia.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 64 - A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since he returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. His wife is concerned because over the past 24 hours he has become more drowsy and febrile. He is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.

      You take some bloods which are reported the next day:

      Hb 14.2 g/dl
      Platelets 290 * 109/l
      WBC 13.8 * 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 87 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l
      ALP 29 u/l
      ALT 72 u/l

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatraemia may be detected through blood tests. If the individual has recently traveled abroad, this may also indicate a potential Legionella infection.

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 65 - A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing is positive for nitrites and blood.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim for 3 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Urinary Tract Infections

      Antibiotic treatment is effective in treating uncomplicated cystitis in women. Trimethoprim is the preferred drug for empirical treatment, but resistance can occur in 10-20% of Escherichia coli infections. Nitrofurantoin and cefalexin can be used as alternatives for patients who cannot take trimethoprim. The recommended treatment period for women is three days, while men should be treated for seven days.

      Amoxicillin is not routinely used due to its low effectiveness, with 50% of organisms being resistant. Cranberry juice and other cranberry products have no evidence to support their use in treating urinary tract infections.

      In summary, antibiotic treatment is the most effective option for treating urinary tract infections, with trimethoprim being the preferred drug for women. Treatment should be for no longer than three days in women and seven days in men. Amoxicillin and cranberry products are not recommended for routine use.

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  • Question 66 - A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine blood tests, abnormal liver function is detected, prompting a hepatitis screening. The test results are as follows:

      - Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
      - Negative for HBsAg
      - Positive for Anti-HBs
      - Negative for Anti-HBc
      - Positive for Anti-HCV

      What is the most likely interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination

      Explanation:

      To determine if a patient has cleared the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients are able to clear the infection on their own. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

      When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and typically indicates acute disease lasting 1-6 months. If HBsAg is present for more than 6 months, it suggests chronic disease and infectivity. The presence of anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination, and is not present in chronic disease. Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasting for approximately 6 months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and appears as a result of the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 67 - What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination

      Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.

      Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.

      In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.

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  • Question 68 - A 16-year-old male presents with a severe sore throat, fever and lethargy. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents with a severe sore throat, fever and lethargy. On examination he is noted to have cervical lymphadenopathy. He has now been unwell for 5 days. A blood test is taken the next day:

      Hb 15.0 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 2.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Lymphs 5.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
      Mono 0.4 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
      Eosin 0.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
      Heterophil antibody test POSITIVE

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis typically resolves on its own and doesn’t require active treatment. However, it is important to advise patients to refrain from participating in contact sports for 8 weeks as there is a risk of splenic rupture.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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  • Question 69 - You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in first grade. He is worried because a classmate has been absent for a week due to whooping cough, but the classmate's twin brother is still attending school while taking antibiotics. The father wants to know if his son could catch the illness from the twin brother and if he needs to take antibiotics as well.

      His son has received all the recommended vaccinations up to this point.

      What is your response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recommend the boy is excluded until he has finished his antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Guidelines for Asymptomatic Contacts

      Asymptomatic contacts of suspected or confirmed pertussis do not need exclusion from school or nursery, even if they are being treated with antibiotics. It is important to follow current guidelines and advise parents accordingly. Prophylactic antibiotics are only recommended for close contacts, which include household contacts and those sharing a room overnight with a case. Antibiotics are only recommended if there is a vulnerable contact and the onset of illness in the case is within 21 days.

      If more cases of pertussis were to be diagnosed at the nursery, this would constitute an outbreak, and advice may then change at the discretion of the outbreak control team. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants born to symptomatic mothers, infants under 1-year-old who have received less than three doses of DTaP/IPV/Hib, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to ten years, women in the last month of pregnancy, adults who work in a healthcare, social care or childcare facility, immunocompromised individuals, and those with the presence of other chronic illnesses.

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. By following these guidelines, we can ensure the best possible care for our patients and prevent the spread of pertussis.

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  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination.
      Which serological marker indicates successful hepatitis B immunisation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Prevention of Hepatitis B through Vaccination

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can lead to chronic liver disease and cancer. Vaccination against hepatitis B is an effective way to prevent the spread of the virus. The development of protective antibodies, known as anti-HBs, is used to monitor the response to vaccination. The antibody profile, along with the results of HBsAg and HBeAg tests, can help determine the phase of HBV infection.

      Initially, vaccines were derived from viral proteins in infected blood, but now recombinant HBsAg proteins are used. Vaccination strategies range from universal vaccination in infancy to targeted vaccination of high-risk individuals. In areas with high rates of infection, universal vaccine programs have already reduced the incidence of infection, carriage, and hepatocellular cancer.

      Conventional three-dose immunization in adults leads to protective immunity in 90% of individuals. Passive immunization with anti-HBsAg hyperimmune globulin can provide rapid protection after exposure, such as after a needlestick injury. For children born to infected mothers, a combination of passive and active immunization is recommended. However, in some infants, chronic infection with a mutant escape virus has occurred despite vaccination.

      In conclusion, monitoring and prevention of hepatitis B through vaccination is crucial in reducing the spread of the virus and preventing chronic liver disease and cancer.

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  • Question 71 - Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against in patients aged 65 or above who are more susceptible to community acquired infections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza virus

      Explanation:

      The Importance of influenza Vaccination in the Elderly Population

      influenza vaccination is crucial for promoting health and preventing disease in the elderly population, especially those with underlying chronic conditions. While recommended for all individuals over 65, those with cardiorespiratory, metabolic, or neoplastic diseases are at the highest risk. Despite being cost-effective, protection rates against influenza-associated respiratory illness are lower in the elderly population. In England, the uptake for patients over 65 was 73% in 2010/2011. While vaccination doesn’t change the incidence of upper respiratory tract symptoms, it significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates by 72% and 87%, respectively, in community-dwelling elderly individuals. However, nursing-home residents may not experience the same efficacy due to a greater burden of chronic disease.

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  • Question 72 - A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while backpacking abroad. He wants to get tested for HIV and hepatitis B and C, but you advise him that the tests may not show any infection yet. When should he return for an HIV blood test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to conduct HIV testing in asymptomatic patients 4 weeks after a potential exposure. This is the optimal time frame for detecting most infections through tests for antibodies and p24 antigen. Additionally, it may be beneficial to perform an HIV test upon presentation in case of a prior infection (although 1 week may be too soon for detection), and a follow-up test at 12 weeks should be offered to confirm the absence of infection.

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

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  • Question 73 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 136/min

      Explanation:

      In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.

      Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

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  • Question 74 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from a family vacation involving kayaking. She complains of feeling extremely tired due to persistent fatty diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence that began during her trip. She notes that her symptoms worsen whenever she consumes dairy products. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss, and recent travel suggest giardiasis as the likely cause. Giardiasis is often associated with foreign travel and exposure to contaminated water sources. Treatment with metronidazole may be beneficial. Cholera and hepatitis D are unlikely causes as their symptoms and characteristics differ from those of giardiasis.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

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  • Question 75 - A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at home this morning. According to his mother, he has vomited twice and is now feeling very tired. During the examination, the child is cooperative and doesn't resist. His temperature is 38.1 degrees Celsius, and a non-blanching rash is visible on both thighs. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin sodium 600mg

      Explanation:

      For a child aged 1-9 years, the recommended single dose of benzylpenicillin sodium prior to hospitalisation is 600mg, provided that it doesn’t cause any delay in transferring the child to the hospital. Any other dosage would be inappropriate for children in this age group.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 76 - One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been...

    Incorrect

    • One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body

      Explanation:

      Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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  • Question 77 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be given regarding participation in sports?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Screening for splenomegaly cannot be effectively done through clinical examination alone. Additionally, individuals with glandular fever should refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 78 - You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.

      What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 79 - A 14-year-old girl has measles.
    Select from the list the single most likely complication....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has measles.
      Select from the list the single most likely complication.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Complications and Risks Associated with Measles Infection

      Measles infection can lead to various complications and risks, including bronchopneumonia, lobar pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis. Bronchopneumonia is the most common cause of death, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or secondary viral infections. Lobar pneumonia, on the other hand, is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Other bacterial infections such as cervical adenitis and otitis media can also occur. Close follow-up is necessary for patients with measles.

      Borderline vitamin A deficiency increases the risk of death and blindness from measles. The World Health Organization recommends high-dose vitamin A for all children with measles in countries where the case fatality rate is greater than 1%. Encephalitis and hepatitis are rare complications.

      Lymphopenia, a condition characterized by low levels of lymphocytes, is a common effect of measles infection. Infants and adults may experience delayed recovery from this condition, and immunodeficiency can persist for several weeks even after lymphocyte counts have returned to normal. This is believed to be a significant contributor to the high all-cause mortality rate following acute measles worldwide.

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  • Question 80 - A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the discharge reveals a Gram-negative diplococcus, but sensitivities are not yet available. What is the most suitable initial antimicrobial therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone stat dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, while ciprofloxacin should only be considered if the organism is confirmed to be susceptible, as resistance is becoming more common. Penicillin, which was previously the preferred treatment, is now seldom used due to widespread resistance.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 81 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and swelling, feeling generally unwell. He recently returned from a hiking trip in Thailand, and one day after his return, he experienced severe watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps that lasted for a week.

      During the examination, the patient appears unwell and fatigued. He has large effusions of the left knee and right ankle, along with tender plantar fascia bilaterally. Additionally, he has tender metatarsophalangeal joints on both feet, and a papular rash on the soles of his feet.

      Despite taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen for the past week, the patient's symptoms have only minimally improved. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis doesn’t usually have an acute onset and can develop up to four weeks after the initial infection. It may have a relapsing-remitting course over several months.

      The correct treatment for this patient’s severe polyarthritis would be oral prednisolone, a systemic corticosteroid. The dosing should be based on the severity of the arthritis, with tapering to the lowest effective dose. Typical starting doses are 20-40 mg/day.

      TNF inhibitor therapy would not be appropriate in this case. However, it may be effective and safe for patients with reactive arthritis who are unresponsive to NSAID or non-biologic DMARD therapy.

      Celecoxib is not the correct choice for this patient. Since regular ibuprofen did not provide relief for a week, the next step would be oral corticosteroids. Although patients may require high doses of NSAIDs with a long half-life, such as Naproxen 500mg BD, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate for this patient with multiple joints involved and systemic illness.

      Intra-articular injections are useful for large joint effusions, but in this case, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate due to the patient’s multiple joint involvement and systemic illness.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 82 - The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.

      The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 83 - A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucella serology

      Explanation:

      The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

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  • Question 84 - Liam is a 22-year-old man who has tested positive for gonorrhoea from a...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 22-year-old man who has tested positive for gonorrhoea from a urethral swab taken last week. Despite being advised to attend a sexual health clinic, he is unwilling to do so and has requested that you prescribe him treatment.

      He has a fear of needles and refuses intramuscular ceftriaxone.

      What is the most suitable alternative oral regimen available?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefixime and azithromycin

      Explanation:

      When treating patients with gonorrhoea, a combination of oral cefixime and oral azithromycin is typically used if the patient refuses an intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone. However, NICE recommends that gonorrhoea should only be treated in primary care if specialist services are not available within a reasonable timeframe or if the patient chooses not to attend despite receiving appropriate information and advice.

      If uncomplicated anogenital gonorrhoea needs to be treated in primary care, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1g intramuscular injection is the preferred option. However, alternative regimens may be necessary if the patient has an allergy, needle phobia, or other contraindications. In such cases, cefixime orally as a single dose plus azithromycin orally is recommended.

      It’s important to note that azithromycin resistance is high, and the clinical efficacy of azithromycin doesn’t always correlate with in vitro susceptibility testing. Therefore, a single oral dose of azithromycin would not be the most appropriate option.

      While doxycycline, erythromycin, and ofloxacin are all possible choices for treating chlamydia, they are not effective in treating gonorrhoea.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 85 - A school nurse is bitten by a student who is known to have...

    Incorrect

    • A school nurse is bitten by a student who is known to have hepatitis B. The nurse has a documented full history of hepatitis B vaccination and was known to be a responder. What is the most suitable course of action to minimize the risk of acquiring hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give hepatitis B vaccine booster

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 86 - You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling to Africa to climb Mount Kenya in 3 months time. They would like you to prescribe some malaria prophylaxis as Kenya is a malaria endemic country. They were given some information from the nurse and they think they would like to take atovaquone/proguanil (brand name Malarone). They are aware that most regimens have side effects and would like to know a bit more about what to expect from this drug.

      What is a common side effect of atovaquone/proguanil that the 16-year-old boy and his father should be aware of before taking it as a malaria prophylaxis for their upcoming trip to Kenya?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal upset

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a serious illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that infect red blood cells and is transmitted through mosquito bites. When traveling to areas where malaria is prevalent, it is recommended to take medication to prevent infection. There are several options available, including chloroquines, proguanil, mefloquine, and doxycycline. Each medication has its own set of potential side effects, with gastrointestinal upset being the most common. Other side effects may include headaches, rash, and neuropsychiatric reactions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each medication with a healthcare provider before starting prophylaxis.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 87 - A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across Peru. He complains of sudden onset fever, headache, joint pains, and rash all over his body. He has no pre-existing medical conditions and is not taking any medication.

      During examination, he has a petechial rash on his limbs. There are no signs of meningism or focal neurology.

      Hemoglobin: 100 g/l
      Platelets: 80 * 109/l
      White blood cells: 4.0 * 109/l
      Eosinophils: 0.4 * 109/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      A returning traveler experiencing retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely suffering from dengue fever. This disease is commonly found in South America and Southeast Asia and is characterized by sudden onset fever and joint pain, as well as low platelet counts and bleeding in severe cases. Chagas disease, which is also found in this region, typically presents with mild symptoms and elevated eosinophil levels. Viral hepatitis and malaria are less probable causes of a petechial rash.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

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  • Question 88 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to the emergency department after being bitten on the hand by a dog while walking in the park. She has a laceration on her left index finger which is bleeding. There is no visible foreign object and the wound appears clean. She is stable and has no other medical issues. Her last tetanus shot was 2 years ago.

      What is the most probable treatment that Sarah will receive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to administer post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV after being bitten by a human. Since the wound is free from contamination and the individual received a tetanus shot 4 years ago, there is no need for a tetanus booster.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 89 - A 4-year old girl has the crusted lesions of impetigo on her face....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old girl has the crusted lesions of impetigo on her face. What is the most frequent cause of impetigo?

      Input: can you provide a list of common treatments for impetigo?
      Output: Sure, here are some common treatments for impetigo:
      - Topical antibiotics, such as mupirocin or retapamulin
      - Oral antibiotics, such as penicillin or erythromycin
      - Keeping the affected area clean and covered
      - Soaking the affected area in warm water and applying compresses
      - Avoiding scratching or picking at the lesions to prevent spreading

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Impetigo: Causes and Types

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that can be divided into two types: non-bullous and bullous. Non-bullous impetigo is the more common type, accounting for about 70% of cases. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus, with Staphylococcus aureus being the more common organism. In developing nations and warm climates, however, Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus is still the more common cause.

      Bullous impetigo, on the other hand, is toxin-mediated and involves the sloughing off of the epidermal layer of the skin. It is exclusively caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      In summary, impetigo can be caused by different organisms and can present in different forms. Understanding the causes and types of impetigo is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 90 - A 6-month-old boy has been febrile for 24 hours. His current temperature is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy has been febrile for 24 hours. His current temperature is 39C and there are no localising symptoms and signs. His skin is flushed but otherwise normal and he remains alert and is not dehydrated.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol, ibuprofen and review in 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Assessment of a Child with Feverish Illness

      According to the guideline ‘Feverish Illness in Children’ (NICE CG 47. May 2007), a child with feverish illness can be assessed using a traffic light system to determine the risk of serious illness. In this case, the child would be placed in the low-risk category, indicating that he most likely has a viral infection.

      Symptomatic treatment, along with safety-netting and review, is all that is required. However, it is recommended to send a urine sample for culture if possible. This assessment helps healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for children with feverish illness.

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  • Question 91 - A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C

      Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.

      In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.

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  • Question 92 - A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began on the third night of a long weekend trip to Madrid. She has been opening her bowels more than eight times per day over the past 24 hours. There had been associated nausea which was stopping her from maintaining an adequate fluid intake, but she is now tolerating fluids by mouth.

      On examination her BP is 130/78 lying, and 126/76 standing with a corresponding increase in her pulse rate. Her mouth looks dry and she has poor skin turgor. Her abdomen is soft and minimally tender and there are very active bowel sounds.

      Which one of the following represents the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Travellers’ Diarrhoea

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is commonly caused by E. coli and typically lasts for 72 hours. In healthy individuals, oral rehydration salts and paracetamol can effectively manage the symptoms. However, if the patient is unable to tolerate oral fluids and is significantly dehydrated, hospital admission may be necessary.

      In severe cases of campylobacter or salmonella, where the patient is already weakened by chronic illness, ciprofloxacin may be prescribed. Meanwhile, metronidazole may be used as an option for giardiasis.

      It is important to note that travellers’ diarrhoea can be prevented by practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands frequently and avoiding contaminated food and water sources.

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  • Question 93 - What is considered good practice for managing and storing vaccines? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered good practice for managing and storing vaccines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Named, trained, people are responsible for ordering, receipt and care of vaccines

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Vaccine Management in Healthcare Facilities

      In healthcare facilities, it is crucial to have named, trained individuals responsible for the ordering, receipt, and care of vaccines. While one person from the nursing team and one from management are typically designated, all team members should understand the importance of proper vaccine management.

      Orders for vaccines should be placed every 2-4 weeks based on need, rather than every 4-8 weeks. Vaccines must be stored in a vaccine fridge that is used solely for pharmaceutical products and kept between 2°C and 8°C. The fridge temperature should be monitored daily, recording the minimum, maximum, and actual temperatures when the practice is open.

      Proper rotation of vaccines is essential, with the shortest expiry date used first. The term cold chain refers to the cold temperature conditions in which vaccine products must be kept during storage and distribution. Cool boxes from a recognized medical supplier should be used to transport vaccines. If the cold chain is compromised, vaccines should not be used or discarded until further advice is sought.

      By following these best practices for vaccine management, healthcare facilities can ensure the safety and efficacy of vaccines for their patients.

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  • Question 94 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15% of adults fail to respond or respond poorly to 3 doses of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      An anti-HBs check is necessary only for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of occupational exposure.

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 95 - A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and febrile illness. His liver function tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase level of 80 IU/l and a bilirubin level of 18 µmol/l. Serological tests for hepatitis viruses indicate that he is positive for hepatitis B (HepB) surface antigen (Ag), but negative for anti-HepB core or immunoglobulin M. What do these results suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carrier of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Infection and Vaccination Status

      Hepatitis B infection can be identified through the presence of specific antigens and antibodies in the blood. In acute cases, the surface antigen appears first, followed by a highly infectious antigen. Transaminase levels may also increase. If the surface antigen persists after the acute illness, it indicates a carrier status, which occurs in 10% of cases.

      Vaccination against hepatitis B can be confirmed by the presence of antibodies to the surface antigen. However, if these antibodies are not present, it suggests that the patient has not been vaccinated.

      High levels of immunoglobulin M antibodies to the core antigen indicate an acute infection, while positive immunoglobulin G antibodies to anti-Hep B core indicate a past infection.

      Recovery from past hepatitis B infection is indicated by the clearance of the surface antigen and the development of anti-HBs antibodies.

      If a patient has hepatitis B surface antigen and core antibodies, it suggests that they have been infected with hepatitis B and do not require vaccination.

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  • Question 96 - A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis

      The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.

      The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.

      In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.

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  • Question 97 - What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications

      Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.

      Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.

      It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.

      In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.

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  • Question 98 - Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women...

    Incorrect

    • Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Listeriosis

      Explanation:

      Antenatal Screening in the UK: HIV, Listeriosis, Strep B, Hepatitis B and Haemoglobinopathies

      Antenatal screening is an important part of prenatal care in the UK. HIV testing is routinely offered to pregnant women, as appropriate interventions can reduce transmission rates to less than 1%. Listeriosis, although not routinely tested for, is a concern for pregnant women as it can cause pregnancy and birth complications, and even result in miscarriage or the death of the baby. Strep B is also not routinely tested for, but pregnant women with risk factors should be screened as the infection can be life-threatening for newborns. Hepatitis B is part of routine screening, but Hepatitis C is only tested for in women with risk factors. Finally, screening for haemoglobinopathies varies across the UK, with all women in England and Scotland offered screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia, while in Wales only those at increased risk are screened and in Northern Ireland no policy decision has been made. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these screening options and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 99 - A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick for the past 2 weeks. At first, he had a sore throat but now he is having occasional joint pains in his knees, hips, and ankles. During the examination, some pink, ring-shaped lesions are observed on his trunk, and he occasionally experiences jerking movements of his face and hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

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  • Question 100 - A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor complaining of symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection. The physician prescribes an antibiotic. After a few days, the man's partner notices that he appears pale and jaundiced and is feeling unwell. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Haemolysis in G6PD is caused by the sulfamethoxazole component of co-trimoxazole, not by the trimethoprim component.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

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  • Question 101 - A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At the end of his trip he spent 2 weeks on holiday on the shores of Lake Malawi. He tells you that he was quite well while on holiday, apart from severe pruritus, which he assumed was due to insect bites, but over the last 2 weeks he has had macroscopic haematuria. He has no other symptoms of note. His blood pressure is 120/80. He attended the nurse minor injuries unit over the previous weekend and was given trimethoprim with no obvious benefit.
      Select the single most appropriate initial management of this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request urine microscopy to exclude schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis: A Parasitic Disease Endemic in Africa and Asia

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic disease that is endemic in many parts of Africa and Asia. It is caused by trematodes that spend part of their life cycle in aquatic snails. The primary mode of infection in humans is through swimming or wading in water. The disease can cause haematuria or bloody diarrhoea, and in some cases, a systemic reaction known as Katayama fever.

      Chronic schistosomiasis can be difficult to diagnose as it may present months to years after exposure. It should be suspected in anyone with unexplained haematuria or bloody diarrhoea who has been exposed to water in endemic areas. If suspected, microscopy for eggs should be requested on urine or stool.

      Untreated schistosomiasis can lead to bladder cancer, strictures, chronic liver disease, portal hypertension, and pulmonary hypertension. Treatment is with praziquantel. Schistosomiasis is the third most prevalent parasitic disease in the world and has a significant impact on human health, second only to malaria among tropical diseases.

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  • Question 102 - A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant and reported a rash.

      She mentioned being outside in the warm weather and feeling a bite on her left lower leg. The area became extremely itchy and she spent most of the night scratching it. The next morning, she woke up with a hot, swollen, and tender spot where she had been bitten. Throughout the day, she began to feel ill and developed a fever.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared fatigued. Her temperature was 38ºC, oxygen saturation was 97% on air, heart rate was 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate was 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure was 122/81 mmHg. The examination revealed a red, hot, swollen area of tender skin on her left lower leg, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The diagnosis was cellulitis.

      The patient had no significant medical history, but did have a documented allergy to penicillin.

      Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant patient has a penicillin allergy and is diagnosed with cellulitis, the recommended antibiotic is erythromycin as per the NICE antimicrobial guidance. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav should not be prescribed in this case. It is important to note that doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 103 - A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and profuse diarrhoea. You send a stool sample for culture and the result confirms campylobacter infection.
      What is a true statement about this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is usually acquired through eating chicken

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter: The Leading Cause of Diarrhoea in the UK

      Campylobacter sp. is the primary cause of diarrhoea in the UK, with a high incidence rate. Although it usually resolves on its own within five days, it can persist for up to four weeks. In rare cases, it can lead to reactive arthritis. Treatment options include ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, erythromycin, or azithromycin.

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  • Question 104 - A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the disease.
      What is the most suitable marker for monitoring his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 lymphocyte count

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of CD4 Lymphocyte Count in HIV-related Immune Impairment

      The CD4 lymphocyte count, also known as T-helper cell count, is a crucial indicator of immune impairment in individuals with HIV. While CD4 counts can vary even in the absence of HIV infection, a fall in the count to below 200/mm3 without antiretroviral treatment can increase the risk of opportunistic infections by 80% over three years. However, some patients with stable low CD4 counts can remain well for several years, and this variability is partly explained by differences in HIV viral load.

      The level of CD4 lymphopenia determines the potential spectrum of infections, with certain infections such as oral candidiasis and pneumocystis pneumonia being more frequent at CD4 counts of 100-200/mm3, while others like disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection and cytomegalovirus retinitis are rarely seen until the CD4 count drops below 50/mm3.

      While plasma HIV RNA levels strongly predict progression to AIDS and death, regular monitoring of CD4 counts is usually sufficient. Anti-HIV IgG is also used in the diagnosis of HIV infection. Understanding the importance of CD4 lymphocyte count in HIV-related immune impairment is crucial for effective management and treatment of the disease.

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  • Question 105 - A 4-year-old girl has developed diarrhoea and vomiting, in common with many of...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl has developed diarrhoea and vomiting, in common with many of the children at her preschool. When you examine her she seems mildly unwell but there are no signs of sepsis or significant dehydration.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding her management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should stay away from nursery until 2 days after his symptoms have settled

      Explanation:

      Childhood Diarrhoea: Causes and Treatment

      Childhood diarrhoea is commonly caused by viruses, with rotavirus being the most prevalent. Other viruses such as norovirus, echoviruses, and enteroviruses can also cause diarrhoea. Rotavirus causes outbreaks of diarrhoea and vomiting during the winter and spring, affecting mainly children under 1 year old. Adults usually have some immunity to the virus, but the elderly can be susceptible. Rotavirus vaccine is now included in childhood vaccination programmes. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for children and is ineffective against viruses. Loperamide can reduce the duration of diarrhoea, but its adverse effects are unclear and it should not be prescribed. According to NICE guidance, children should avoid school or nursery for at least 48 hours after their symptoms have settled and avoid public swimming pools for 2 weeks. Childhood diarrhoea can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment and prevention measures.

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  • Question 106 - A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular inhalers and is otherwise well. She also takes a combined oral contraceptive pill.
      What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship Between Medications and Oral Candidiasis

      Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common fungal infection that can affect the mouth and throat. While it can occur in anyone, certain medications can increase the risk of developing this condition. Here is a breakdown of how different medications may impact the likelihood of oral candidiasis:

      Inhaled Corticosteroid: Patients with well-controlled asthma may use inhaled corticosteroids, which can increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water after inhalation can help reduce this risk. Antifungal medication can be used to treat oral candidiasis without discontinuing therapy.

      Inhaled β2 Agonist: This type of inhaler is used as a reliever for poorly controlled asthma and doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Common side effects include palpitations, tremors, and hypokalaemia.

      Combined Oral Contraceptive: While the combined oral contraceptive pill doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis, it may be associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis.

      Montelukast: This oral medication used to treat asthma doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Dry mouth is a possible side effect, along with gastrointestinal problems, headaches, and sleep disturbance.

      Type II Diabetes Mellitus: Patients with poorly controlled diabetes may be more susceptible to recurrent infections, including oral candidiasis. If a patient presents with symptoms or risk factors for diabetes, blood glucose and/or haemoglobin A1c should be checked.

      Understanding the relationship between medications and oral candidiasis can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment and management.

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  • Question 107 - A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks about getting the flu shot. Can you confirm if he is eligible for it on the NHS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 35-year-old woman on metformin for type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Familiarizing oneself with vaccine eligibility is crucial.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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