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Question 1
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness.
During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 160/95 mmHg. The rest of the examination is normal. The General Practitioner decides to order routine blood tests. The results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 151 mmol
Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol
Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 70.5 µmol/l
Random glucose 5.8 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation to make a diagnosis?Your Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatraemia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, which is characterized by increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss due to high aldosterone levels. While muscle weakness and lethargy are common symptoms, they are only present in 40% of cases. Metabolic alkalosis is another common finding. Primary hyperaldosteronism is often caused by bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, rather than an adrenal adenoma. To diagnose hyperaldosteronism, a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is recommended as the first-line investigation, followed by a high-resolution CT scan of the abdomen and adrenal vein sampling to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. While an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is useful for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, it is not relevant in this case. Urine dipstick and formal urinalysis would be helpful in identifying renal causes of secondary hypertension, but are not necessary in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg on multiple readings. He undergoes investigation for secondary hypertension. Computed tomography (CT) imaging shows a 4.3 cm right-sided adrenal lesion. Below are his blood results. He is listed for elective adrenalectomy.
Investigation Result Normal reference range
Plasma free metanephrines 3000 pmol/l 80-510 pmol/l
Which of the following treatments should be started to commence preparation of this patient for surgery for removal of adrenal phaeochromocytoma?Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers
Explanation:Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Interventions
Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through the measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. The following medications and interventions are used in the management of phaeochromocytoma:
Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers: Phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin are used to dampen sympathetic stimulation by blocking alpha-adrenoceptors.
Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: Beta-blockers are used after alpha-blockers to avoid unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation, which can cause a hypertensive crisis.
Calcium channel blockers: These are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used as an antihypertensive in certain populations or as an anti-anginal drug.
Intravenous fluids: IV fluids should be readily available for all surgeries to address potential blood loss and hypotension following surgery.
Low-salt diet and low fluid intake: These interventions are not typically used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used for chronic hypertension or fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with Addison's disease is seen for a follow-up appointment. She reports a productive cough and feeling feverish for the past three days. Upon examination, her chest is clear, pulse is 84 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.7ºC. Due to her medical history, an antibiotic is prescribed.
What advice should be given regarding her adrenal replacement therapy?Your Answer: Double the hydrocortisone dose, keep the same fludrocortisone dose
Explanation:In the case of a patient with Addison’s disease who develops an additional illness, it is recommended to increase the dose of glucocorticoids while maintaining the same dose of fludrocortisone.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.5
2 15.0
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Start metformin
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and abdominal pain after being intoxicated a few hours prior. He has a history of alcohol and overdose admissions.
On examination:
A - Airway is clear.
B - Respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute with deep labored inspiration. Oxygen saturation is 100%.
C - Heart rate is 124 beats per minute, blood pressure is 95/62 mmHg, and capillary refill is 4 seconds. Mucous membranes are dry.
D - Glasgow Coma Scale score is 10.
Lab results show a pH of 7.18 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), pCO2 of 4.3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6.0kPa), bicarbonate of 14 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28 mmol/L), glucose of 22.3mmol/L, and ketones of 4.5mmol/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which stands for diabetic ketoacidosis. In this particular case, a young man is showing signs of DKA, such as dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and a significantly elevated capillary glucose level. DKA patients lose around 5-8 liters of fluids, which require immediate correction. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include a pH level of less than 7.3 and/or bicarbonate level of less than 15mmol/L, blood glucose level of over 11mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and ketonaemia level of over 3mmol/L or significant ketonuria ++ on urine dipstick. Alcoholic ketoacidosis is not the correct diagnosis as it usually presents with low or normal glucose levels and occurs due to starvation. Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state is also incorrect as it typically presents with marked hyperglycemia without ketoacidosis. Opioid overdose is not the correct diagnosis either as it usually presents with respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and a lowered GCS, while this patient has a raised respiratory rate and abnormal respirations consistent with Kussmaul respirations.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives approximately 7-8 rounds of oral prednisolone annually to manage infectious exacerbations of his condition. What is one of the potential negative consequences associated with prolonged steroid use?
Your Answer: Osteomalacia
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Osteopaenia and osteoporosis are associated with prolonged use of corticosteroids, not osteomalacia.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Correct
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up for type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the review, his HbA1c level is found to be 58 mmol/mol. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g twice daily and is fully compliant. He has no allergies and is not taking any other medications. The patient had a transurethral resection for bladder cancer five years ago and is still under urology follow-up with no signs of disease recurrence. He has no other medical history, exercises regularly, and maintains a healthy diet. The patient's BMI is 25kg/m².
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Add gliclazide
Explanation:For a patient with T2DM who is on metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol, the most appropriate choice for a second antidiabetic agent is gliclazide, according to NICE guidelines and the patient’s clinical factors. Pioglitazone is not recommended due to the patient’s history of bladder cancer, and SGLT-2 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists are not appropriate in this case. Modified-release metformin is not recommended for improving HbA1c control. Dual therapy with a sulfonylurea, DPP-4 inhibitor, or pioglitazone is recommended by NICE once HbA1c is 58 mmol/mol or over on metformin, but the choice of agent depends on the individual clinical scenario.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria, weight loss and tiredness for six months. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests, thyroid function test and calcium are all normal. Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 48 mmol/mol and repeat sample is 50 mmol/mol. On examination, her body mass index is 35 kg/m2, she is normotensive and urinalysis is normal.
Which of the following investigations should be arranged urgently?
Select ONE investigation from the list below.Your Answer: Short synacthen test
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) abdomen
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Type II Diabetes Mellitus
Computed Tomography (CT) Abdomen:
A CT abdomen is recommended for any patient over the age of 60 with weight loss combined with a new onset of diabetes or abdominal or back pain, nausea, vomiting or change in bowel habit. This is because new-onset type II diabetes can be a presenting feature of pancreatic cancer in patients over the age of 60, especially those who have also experienced weight loss.Pancreatic Autoantibodies:
Pancreatic autoantibodies include anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase, insulin autoantibodies and islet-cell antibodies, the presence of which would support a diagnosis of type I diabetes. These tests are usually carried out in secondary care for atypical presentations such as suspected type II diabetes in a child or a non-overweight person.Glucose Tolerance Test:
Glucose tolerance test has a limited role in diagnosing type II diabetes now that HbA1c is an accepted diagnostic investigation. It is still used routinely to investigate pregnant women at risk of gestational diabetes.Short Synacthen Test:
A short synacthen test is used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency. The history and investigation results do not suggest this as a likely diagnosis, so this test would not be indicated.Ultrasound of the Urinary Tract:
Ultrasound is not indicated unless a structural problem is suspected. Although this man is experiencing polyuria, his urinalysis and PSA are both normal, which makes a urological cause for his symptoms less likely than the newly diagnosed diabetes. Diabetes can cause renal impairment, but this should be monitored with annual urine albumin : creatinine measurement and regular U&Es blood test. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has scheduled an elective inguinal hernia surgery and is a diabetic taking metformin once daily. His blood glucose levels have been well controlled. He is wondering what he should do with his medication before the surgery.
What advice would be appropriate for him?Your Answer: Continue metformin as normal the day before surgery
Explanation:Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 11
Correct
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A 36-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing confusion and vomiting. Upon further inquiry, she reports six months of weight loss, fatigue, and dizziness upon standing. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 126 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120). After stabilization, she undergoes additional testing and is prescribed a daily maintenance regimen of 20 mg hydrocortisone and 100mcg fludrocortisone. In the event of an acute illness, such as an infection, what dosage of medication should she take?
Your Answer: 40mg hydrocortisone, 100mcg fludrocortisone
Explanation:To manage this patient with Addison’s disease who is experiencing an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to increase the glucocorticoid dose by double while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. The patient’s symptoms, including vomiting, confusion, fatigue, weight loss, and postural hypotension, suggest adrenal insufficiency. Blood tests reveal hyponatremia and hyperkalemia due to aldosterone deficiency. Aldosterone normally regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body, and its absence leads to sodium loss and potassium elevation. The prescribed steroid replacement regimen is appropriate for intercurrent illness, as it mimics the body’s natural response by increasing glucocorticoid secretion while maintaining mineralocorticoid secretion. The patient’s hydrocortisone dose has been doubled from 20mg to 40mg, while the fludrocortisone dose remains at 100mcg.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old primigravida visits her General Practitioner at 25 weeks of gestation after her midwife detected glucose in a routine urinalysis. The patient's results are as follows:
- Blood pressure: 129/89 mmHg
- Fundal height: 25.5 cm
- Fasting plasma glucose: 6.8 mmol/L
What treatment option should be provided to this patient?Your Answer: Commence metformin
Correct Answer: Trial of diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks
Explanation:For a patient presenting with elevated fasting plasma glucose (6.8 mmol/L), indicating possible gestational diabetes, the recommended initial management is a trial of diet and exercise to control blood glucose without medication. The patient should be advised to consume a high-fibre diet with minimal refined sugars and monitor their blood glucose regularly. If the patient’s blood glucose remains elevated despite lifestyle interventions, insulin should be started if the initial fasting plasma glucose is 7 mmol/L or more. If there is no improvement within 1-2 weeks, metformin may be added, and if still inadequate, insulin may be required. It is important to note that pregnant women should not aim to lose weight and should maintain a balanced diet. Advising the patient to only monitor blood glucose without any interventions is inappropriate as lifestyle changes are necessary to manage gestational diabetes.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?
Your Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone
Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone
Explanation:Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome
Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to decreased cortisol levels, which can cause postural hypotension. However, aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.
In rare cases of adrenal adenoma, increased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone may occur, but this does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome. Similarly, decreased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone would be indicative of primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case here.
An unusual result would be increased cortisol levels with decreased aldosterone levels, which does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism in Sheehan’s syndrome. Conversely, decreased cortisol levels with increased aldosterone levels would also be an unusual result, as aldosterone levels are not typically affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.
Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with suspected Sheehan’s syndrome, it is important to consider the expected pattern of decreased cortisol levels with normal aldosterone levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 14
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, vomiting and lethargy. His mother informs you he first developed 'flu-like symptoms' around four days ago. The patient has a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. He is on a basal-bolus regimen but has not been taking his insulin regularly since he became unwell.
On examination, he is confused and is hyperventilating. His blood glucose is 22 mmol/L (<11.1 mmol/L) and his blood ketone level is 4.0 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L). You request an arterial blood gas (ABG).
pH 7.19 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 14.0 kPa (10-14 kPa)
pCO2 3.6 kPa (4.5-6.0 kPa)
Bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (22-28 mmol/L)
Given the results, you start the patient on IV resuscitation fluids. What is the next most appropriate step in management?Your Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND continue injectable long-acting insulin only
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical unit with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) which has failed to improve despite a course of antibiotics and steroids. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and takes aspirin, simvastatin, amlodipine, and metformin. His random blood glucose on admission is 12.3mmol/l and a HbA1c test is ordered, which shows an IFCC-HbA1c of 45 mmol/mol and HbA1c of 6.3%. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Make no changes to diabetes medictions
Explanation:The HbA1c is a reliable indicator of good glycaemic control and should be used to determine any necessary changes to diabetes medications. It reflects average glucose levels over a period of 2-3 months, rather than a single reading. It is possible that the recent use of steroids has temporarily worsened glycaemic control in this case.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 16
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
TSH 14.3 mu/l
What should be done next?Your Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od
Explanation:The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 17
Correct
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As you review the blood results of a 65-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension, you notice that a HbA1c level was requested as part of the routine work-up. What HbA1c range would be indicative of prediabetes?
Your Answer: 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%)
Explanation:Understanding Prediabetes and Impaired Glucose Regulation
Prediabetes is a term used to describe impaired glucose levels that are higher than normal but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus. This includes individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). Diabetes UK estimates that around 1 in 7 adults in the UK have prediabetes, and many of them will eventually develop type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), putting them at risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications.
To identify patients with prediabetes, NICE recommends using a validated computer-based risk assessment tool for adults aged 40 and over, people of South Asian and Chinese descent aged 25-39, and adults with conditions that increase the risk of T2DM. Patients identified as high risk should have a blood sample taken, and a fasting plasma glucose of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l or an HbA1c level of 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%) indicates high risk.
Lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, increased exercise, and changes in diet are recommended for managing prediabetes. NICE also recommends metformin for adults at high risk who are still progressing towards T2DM despite lifestyle changes.
There are two main types of impaired glucose regulation: impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). IFG is due to hepatic insulin resistance, while IGT is due to muscle insulin resistance. Patients with IGT are more likely to develop T2DM and cardiovascular disease than those with IFG.
To rule out a diagnosis of diabetes, people with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person doesn’t have diabetes but does have IGT. It is important to understand prediabetes and impaired glucose regulation to prevent the progression to T2DM and its associated complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy. He has areas of skin hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation consistent with vitiligo. His blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal the following results, and treatment is initiated.
Hemoglobin: 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
Platelets: 210 * 109/L (150-400)
White blood cells: 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
Sodium: 133 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
Creatinine: 95 µmol/L (55-120)
C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (<5)
Fasting blood sugar: 4.4 mmol/L (4-7)
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Short synacthen test
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease based on their clinical presentation of hypotension, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, and electrolyte abnormalities. Immediate treatment with intravenous fluids and glucocorticoids is necessary. The best test to confirm the diagnosis is the short synacthen test, which measures cortisol levels after administering a stimulating hormone. The aldosterone renin ratio and overnight dexamethasone suppression test are not useful in this scenario. While the serum ACTH level can aid in the diagnosis, dynamic testing with suppression/stimulation is more accurate in endocrine conditions.
Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels
When a patient is suspected of having Addison’s disease, the definitive investigation is an ACTH stimulation test, also known as a short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be demonstrated.
However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level of less than 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. A level between 100-500 nmol/l should prompt an ACTH stimulation test to be performed.
It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these patients thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is being evaluated for possible diabetes mellitus and undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 5.9
2 8.2
What is the interpretation of these findings?Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman has just been prescribed gliclazide for her T2DM. What is the mechanism of action of gliclazide?
Your Answer: Stimulates insulin secretion from the b-cells of the islets of Langerhans
Explanation:Different medications used to treat diabetes have varying mechanisms of action. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas, making them effective for type II diabetes but not for type I diabetes. However, they can cause hypoglycemia and should be used with caution when combined with other hypoglycemic medications. Biguanides like metformin increase glucose uptake and utilization while decreasing gluconeogenesis, making them a first-line treatment for type II diabetes. Glucosidase inhibitors like acarbose delay the digestion of starch and sucrose, but are not commonly used due to gastrointestinal side effects. DPP-4 inhibitors like sitagliptin increase insulin production and decrease hepatic glucose overproduction by inhibiting the action of DPP-4. Thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone increase insulin sensitivity in the liver, fat, and skeletal muscle, but their use is limited due to associated risks of heart failure, bladder cancer, and fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 21
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman comes for a check-up at the clinic. She was diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis three months ago and is currently on levothyroxine 75 mcg once daily. What is the most crucial blood test to evaluate her treatment progress?
Your Answer: TSH
Explanation:Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).
His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), which is well controlled with metformin 500mg BD and gliclazide 80 mg OD.
The surgery is scheduled for the morning, but he is not placed on a variable rate insulin infusion (VRII).
What adjustments should be made to his antidiabetic medication regimen on the day of surgery?Your Answer: Only the morning dose of gliclazide should be omitted
Explanation:On the day of surgery, it is recommended to omit the morning dose of gliclazide for patients taking sulfonylureas. However, if the patient takes BD, they can have the afternoon dose. Metformin should be taken as usual on the day before and on the day of elective surgery, except for lunchtime dose if taken three times a day.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in her left breast. After undergoing triple assessment, she is diagnosed with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer and her oncologist prescribes anastrozole as treatment. What potential risks may this medication pose for her?
Your Answer: Venous thromboembolism
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, may lead to the development of osteoporosis. This medication is commonly used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women by reducing the production of peripheral oestrogen. However, patients taking this medication are at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis. On the other hand, selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERM) like tamoxifen may cause amenorrhoea, endometrial cancer, vaginal bleeding, and venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is typically used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in pre-menopausal women.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of fatigue and increased urination. The symptoms began two months ago and have been progressively worsening. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is classified as morbidly obese. Upon conducting a fasting glucose test, the results show 8.2 mmol/L. The doctor decides to measure the patient's C-peptide levels, which are found to be low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Patients with T1DM typically have low C-peptide levels.
The patient in question is exhibiting classic symptoms of diabetes, including polyuria and tiredness, and their fasting glucose level is 8.2 mmol/L, which meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes according to the World Health Organization. Given their age and risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend testing for C-peptide levels. C-peptide is a byproduct of proinsulin cleavage into insulin, and low levels indicate a lack of insulin production, which is characteristic of T1DM.
Impaired fasting glucose is an incorrect answer because the patient’s fasting glucose level is above the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young is also incorrect because it is an autosomal-dominant condition that typically presents as T2DM in patients under 25, and C-peptide levels remain normal. Suggests diabetes mellitus but further testing is needed is also incorrect because the patient’s symptoms and fasting glucose level meet the diagnostic criteria for diabetes.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 25
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 26
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests. All results were within normal limits except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
TSH 12.5 mU/l
Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Explanation:The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 27
Correct
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A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness and palpitations. Upon arrival, investigations were carried out, including the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
PaO2 11.9 kPa
pH 7.35 7.40 ± 0.05
PaCO2 27 mmHg
Sodium (Na+) 125 mmol
Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol
HCO3− 15 mmol
Chloride (Cl−) 107 mmol
Normal anion gap 10–18 mmol/l
With which of the following are the results consistent?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:Causes of Metabolic Acidosis with Normal Anion Gap
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by various medical conditions. One such condition is an Addisonian crisis, which occurs due to severe adrenal insufficiency. This results in reduced activity of aldosterone, causing sodium loss and potassium retention, leading to hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.
Burns can also cause hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis, resulting in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is another condition that presents with hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis, but with an increased anion gap due to ketone bodies.
Diarrhoea can cause hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, loss of bicarbonate, and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. However, excessive thiazide treatment would result in hypokalaemia and not hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 28
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with weight loss, dry eyes and palpitations. He reports feeling jittery and nervous for the past few weeks. Upon examination, a fine tremor, regular pulse of 105 bpm, exophthalmos and a moderate, smooth goitre are noted. The results of his thyroid function tests are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.03 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
Free T4 38.5 pmol/l 12.0–22.0 pmol/l
Free T3 11.8 pmol/l 3.1–6.8 pmol/l
Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies Positive
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Thyrotoxicosis: A Brief Overview
Thyrotoxicosis, or hyperthyroidism, can be caused by various conditions, including Graves’ disease, De Quervain’s thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, hypothyroidism, and toxic multinodular goitre. Among these, Graves’ disease is the most common cause, characterized by autoimmune dysfunction and typical hyperthyroid symptoms. About a third of patients with Graves’ disease also develop eye signs, while pretibial myxoedema or clubbing of the fingers may occur rarely. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is associated with transient hyperthyroidism following a viral infection and neck pain. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune condition, causes hypothyroidism instead of hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism presents with weight gain, fatigue, constipation, dry skin, and depression, and is characterized by raised TSH and reduced T4 or T3. Finally, toxic multinodular goitre is the second most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the UK, presenting with a multinodular goitre and hyperthyroidism without Graves’ disease symptoms. However, in the case presented, the positive TPO antibodies and typical Graves’ disease symptoms make it the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with excessive sweating and weight loss. Her partner reports that she is constantly on edge and you notice a fine tremor during the consultation. A large, nontender goitre is also noted. Upon examination of her eyes, there is no evidence of exophthalmos. Her pulse rate is 96/min. The following results were obtained: Free T4 26 pmol/l, Free T3 12.2 pmol/l (3.0-7.5), and TSH < 0.05 mu/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also exhibits specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Autoantibodies are also present in Graves’ disease, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy can also aid in the diagnosis of Graves’ disease, as it shows diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine.
Overall, Graves’ disease presents with both typical and unique features that distinguish it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 30
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. He has a history of bladder cancer, which was successfully treated 2 years ago. The patient recently tried metformin, but discontinued it due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, does not smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
- HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's diabetes?Your Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended and contraindicated. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most suitable option. Exenatide, which typically leads to weight loss, is beneficial for obese individuals with diabetes, but it does not meet the NICE criteria for body mass index of 35 kg/m².
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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