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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old girl has been brought in to the Emergency Department after an episode of rectal bleeding. Her parents tell you that she appears to be suffering from abdominal pain since this morning, drawing her legs up into the fetal position, and has eaten very little, which is unlike her. She vomited about three times and then passed bloody stools. When you ask for further details, the parents tell you that the stool was jelly-like red and very slimy. The parents started weaning the child one month ago and only give her baby food.
On examination, the child has right lower abdominal tenderness and her mucous membranes look dehydrated. Her capillary refill time is four seconds and you can vaguely feel some sort of mass in her right lower abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Campylobacter related gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Disorders in Toddlers
Intussusception is a common gastrointestinal disorder in toddlers, typically affecting those aged 9-12 months. Symptoms include slimy or jelly-like red stools, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass or fullness. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound imaging and treatment usually involves an enema, although surgery may be necessary in complicated cases.
Pyloric stenosis is another disorder that can occur in the first few weeks of a baby’s life. It causes forceful projectile vomiting immediately after feeds and is diagnosed through ultrasound imaging. Treatment involves surgery with a pyloromyotomy.
Campylobacter-related gastroenteritis is rare in toddlers, especially considering that they typically only consume baby food.
Colorectal cancer is almost unheard of in this age group.
Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital disorder that causes bowel obstruction, resulting in vomiting and failure to pass stools. It is typically diagnosed through a rectal biopsy and treated with surgical removal of the affected part of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the hospital with suspected meningitis. His parents report that he has been feverish and lethargic for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 39.5ºC, heart rate is 165/min, and respiratory rate is 52/min. The anterior fontanelle is visibly swollen, but no petechial rash is observed. Apart from cefotaxime, what other intravenous antibiotic should be administered?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:To ensure coverage for Listeria, it is recommended to administer IV amoxicillin along with cefotaxime when treating meningitis in children under 3 months of age.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6-week-old infant is brought to the GP clinic by her mother for a check-up. The mother is concerned about her daughter's occasional fever and wants to have her checked. The baby appears active and healthy, breathing comfortably with a central capillary refill of less than 2 seconds. She has no rashes and is of normal color.
The following observations and growth measurements are recorded:
- Heart rate: 140 beats per minute (normal range: 115-180)
- Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
- Respiratory rate: 42 breaths per minute (normal range: 25-60)
- Temperature: 38.7ºC
- Weight: 75th percentile
- Height: 50th percentile
- Head circumference: 75th percentile
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer to the paediatric emergency department
Explanation:If an infant is under 3 months old and has a fever over 38ºC, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a serious infection. In this case, it is not appropriate to assess the infant in a GP clinic. Instead, they should be immediately referred to a paediatric emergency department for monitoring and potential investigations, such as urine, chest X-ray, blood cultures, or lumbar puncture, depending on the progression of symptoms. Keeping the infant in the GP clinic for observations is not recommended, as they may deteriorate rapidly and become difficult to manage in that setting. Reassurance and review are usually appropriate for a febrile infant with an obvious infective focus, but not for an infant under 3 months old with no apparent focus of infection. Similarly, an urgent referral to an outpatient paediatrician is not appropriate, as it may take too long to organise and may not be able to manage sudden deterioration.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter into surgery. She is struggling in school and the mother suspects she may have ADHD. Which of the following features is not indicative of a diagnosis of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?
Your Answer: Impulsiveness
Correct Answer: Repetitive behaviour
Explanation:In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of headaches for the past 6 months. He reports experiencing these headaches once every few weeks, with each episode lasting for a day. Prior to the onset of the headache, he sees zig-zag lines. The headaches are typically on the right side of his head, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. He finds some relief by sleeping in a dark, quiet room. Apart from this, he is healthy.
What is the initial approach to managing his condition?Your Answer: Sumatriptan nasal spray
Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for paediatric migraines is ibuprofen. Sumatriptan nasal spray is only approved for use in children over the age of 12, and oral sumatriptan is not approved for those under 18. Codeine and oramorph are not recommended for treating migraines in children. Indomethacin is also not typically used for paediatric migraines.
Understanding Headaches in Children
Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.
When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.
Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.
In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy comes to the pediatrician's office as his parents are concerned about his early development. He is now a lot taller than most of his friends and he has started to develop hair around his genitalia and armpits. On examination, his penis is also large for his age however his testes remain prepubertal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this boy's precocious puberty?
Your Answer: Idiopathic precocious puberty
Correct Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:When dealing with precocious puberty, it is important to examine the size of the testicles to determine the underlying cause. In cases where the testicles are small, such as in this situation, it suggests an adrenal origin of the symptoms. On the other hand, if there is bilateral testicular enlargement, it may indicate central precocious puberty caused by an astrocytoma or other brain tumor. Testotoxicosis, which is associated with a history of childhood sexual aggression, would result in advanced development in all areas. A sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor would cause unilateral enlargement of the affected testicle. Finally, an idiopathic cause of precocious puberty would lead to advanced development in all pubertal areas, resulting in enlarged testicles.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Encourage the mother to sit with the baby in sunlight
Correct Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.
Explanation:Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.
If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is presented for surgery due to recurring headaches. What is the primary reason for headaches in children?
Your Answer: Tension-type headache
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:In children, primary headache is most commonly caused by migraine.
Understanding Headaches in Children
Headaches are a common occurrence in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing pediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache attacks lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanying symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.
When it comes to acute management, ibuprofen is considered more effective than paracetamol for pediatric migraine. Triptans may be used in children over 12 years old, but follow-up is required, and only sumatriptan nasal spray is licensed for use in young people. However, oral triptans are not currently licensed for those under 18 years old, and side effects may include tingling, heat, and pressure sensations.
Prophylaxis for pediatric migraine is limited, with no clear consensus guidelines. Pizotifen and propranolol are recommended as first-line preventatives, while valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline are considered second-line preventatives. Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children, with diagnostic criteria including at least 10 previous headache episodes lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with specific pain characteristics and the absence of nausea or vomiting.
In summary, headaches in children are common, and migraine without aura is the most common primary headache. Acute management includes ibuprofen and triptans, while prophylaxis is limited. Tension-type headache is also a common cause of headache in children. It is important to seek medical advice if headaches are frequent or severe, or if there are any concerning symptoms such as neurological deficits or changes in behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 4-week-old infant is referred by the health visitor for failure to thrive. The infant's weight has dropped from the 50th to the 9th centile on the growth chart. The parents disclose that the infant vomits after every meal, sometimes even hitting the wall. The mother had a normal pregnancy with regular antenatal scans, and the infant was delivered vaginally without complications. The newborn examination did not reveal any abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:The probable diagnosis is pyloric stenosis.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are called to a forceps delivery. During the delivery, the midwives notice shoulder dystocia in a newborn. What is the initial management approach for shoulder dystocia in a neonate?
Your Answer: Episiotomy
Correct Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre (hyperflexion of the legs)
Explanation:The McRoberts maneuver involves hyperflexing the legs.
Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.
If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.
Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A mother brings her 14-year-old daughter to the general practice with concerns about her delayed onset of periods. During the examination, the daughter is found to be in the 9th percentile for her age in terms of height, has short ring fingers, poor breast development, and a high arched palate. While listening to her heart, a crescendo-decrescendo murmur is heard on the upper right sternal border that radiates to the carotids. What is the probable cause of this murmur?
Your Answer: Bicuspid valve
Explanation:A 16-year-old girl presents with symptoms of shortness of breath, chest pain, and fatigue. Upon examination, a heart murmur is detected in the aortic region, which is described as a crescendo-decrescendo murmur. The possible causes of this murmur are considered, including aortic stenosis, aortic valve calcification, rheumatic heart disease, and Tetralogy of Fallot. However, based on the patient’s age and symptoms, aortic stenosis is the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother with complaints of right iliac fossa pain for the past two days. He has no previous medical history except for a cough and sore throat in the last week. He has had a high fever for the past two days and has lost his appetite but denies any other symptoms.
On examination, his temperature is 38.9 °C, and his pulse is 130 beats per minute. Bilateral enlarged submandibular and cervical lymph nodes are palpable and slightly tender. Chest examination is clear, with transmitted sounds from the upper airways. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding.
Urine dipstick reveals 2+ of ketones and 1+ of protein.
Blood test results for his full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 14.3 × 109/ 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 425 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
What is the most likely clinical diagnosis for this 6-year-old boy?Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Child with Right Iliac Fossa Pain and High Temperature
When a child presents with right iliac fossa pain and high temperature, several possible diagnoses should be considered. One of them is mesenteric adenitis, which is characterized by abdominal pain resulting from mesenteric lymphadenopathy and often accompanied by enlarged neck nodes and a recent history of viral upper respiratory tract infection. Appendicitis is another possibility, but it tends to present with a low-grade fever and peritoneal irritation that causes involuntary muscle spasm in the abdominal wall. Meckel’s diverticulitis, which is clinically indistinguishable from appendicitis, is an intra-operative or radiological diagnosis and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, obstruction, inflammation, or umbilical discharge. Retroperitoneal appendix abscess is an uncommon type of infection that presents with fever, back pain, and abdominal pain, but it can also cause other symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, poor wound healing, chest pain, general discomfort, urinary frequency, and haematuria. Finally, urinary tract infection (UTI) is unlikely if there are no nitrites or leukocytes on urine dipstick, but it can cause non-specific symptoms such as vomiting/diarrhoea, mild abdominal pain, dysuria, frequency, and enuresis, especially in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant is presented to the Emergency Department due to increased irritability, poor feeding, and decreased muscle tone as observed by the mother in the last 24 hours. Meningitis is confirmed through lumbar puncture. What is the probable causative agent in this scenario?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:Meningitis poses a higher risk to neonates, particularly those with low birth weight, prematurity, traumatic delivery, fetal hypoxia, and maternal peripartum infection. The initial symptoms are usually vague and may include elevated body temperature, respiratory distress, apnea, episodes of bradycardia, low blood pressure, difficulty feeding, irritability, and decreased activity.
Organisms causing meningitis in children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children of all ages. The organisms that cause meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. In neonates up to 3 months old, Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause, which is usually acquired from the mother during birth. E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms, as well as Listeria monocytogenes, can also cause meningitis in this age group.
From 1 month to 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus), and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common organisms that cause meningitis. In children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causes.
It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of meningitis, such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. If a child is showing these symptoms, they should be taken to a doctor immediately for evaluation and treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You assess a neonate who is 2 hours old and was delivered via caesarean section. The mother had an elective caesarean section at 38-weeks due to an active herpes infection. During examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 62 breaths per minute. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. What would be your management plan for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IV steroids
Correct Answer: Observation and supportive care
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the newborn can be identified through a chest x-ray which may reveal hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure. The appropriate management for this condition is observation and supportive care, including the administration of supplemental oxygen if necessary. Symptoms typically resolve on their own within a few days. The use of IV ceftriaxone, IV steroids, or urgent blood transfusion is not indicated in this case and therefore, incorrect.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his mother who recently arrived in the UK. Due to inadequate antenatal care in their home country, the baby has been experiencing rapid breathing, poor feeding, and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. During examination, the baby displayed upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent inner epicanthal folds, a protuberant tongue, and single palmar creases. Additionally, an atypical murmur was heard. An urgent echocardiogram was performed, and the diagnosis was revealed. What is the most likely congenital cardiac abnormality in this baby?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The most frequent congenital cardiac abnormality found in individuals with Down’s syndrome is atrioventricular septal defects. This baby, who displays typical syndromic features of Down’s syndrome, was not diagnosed during pregnancy due to inadequate antenatal care in Somalia. In the first few weeks of life, dyspnoea, failure to thrive, poor weight gain, and cyanosis can be common presentations. Although Tetralogy of Fallot can occur in Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common. Ventricular and atrial septal defects can also occur, but they are not as prevalent and do not align with the severity of this baby’s symptoms.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old baby boy is experiencing cyanosis during feeding and crying, leading to suspicion of congenital heart disease. What could be the probable reason?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:When it comes to congenital heart disease, TGA and Fallot’s are the most common causes of cyanotic heart disease. However, TGA is more commonly seen in newborns, while Fallot’s typically presents a few months after a murmur is detected. VSD is the most common cause of acyanotic congenital heart disease.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with concerns about not having started her periods yet. She is shorter than most girls her age. She has gone through adrenarche but has not yet experienced thelarche. Her mother and sister both began menstruating at age 12. The following are her blood test results:
- FSH: 60 IU/L (normal range: 0-10)
- LH: 40 IU/L (normal range: 0-16)
- Oestradiol: 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 73-407)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 5.0 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4): 12 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18)
- Prolactin: 323 mIU/L (normal range: <700)
Based on the patient's symptoms and test results, what is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea?Your Answer: Hypothalamic hypogonadism
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance. The infant is also hypotonic with brachycephaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trisomy 18
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Genetic Disorders and Associated Phenotypic Features
Trisomy 21: Down Syndrome and Duodenal Atresia
Neonates with Down syndrome have an increased risk of duodenal atresia, accounting for around a third of cases. Prenatal imaging can detect this condition, which presents with bilious vomiting within hours of birth. Down syndrome is also characterized by distinct physical features such as brachiocephaly, upward slanting palpebral fissures, and joint hyperflexibility.45,XO: Turner Syndrome and Cardiac Defects
Turner syndrome affects females with a genetic complement of 45XO. It is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and lymphoedema. Cardiac defects, including coarctation of the aorta, may also be present.Fragile X: Learning Disability and Autism
Fragile X is a common X-linked form of learning disability and autism. Physical features are difficult to detect in infancy, but delayed motor milestones and speech and language delay may be present. Macro-orchidism is almost universal post-puberty, and cardiac defects, including mitral valve prolapse, may occur.Trisomy 18: Edwards’ Syndrome and Neonatal Hypotonia
Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is characterized by neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures. There is severe psychomotor and growth retardation, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Over 90% have cardiac defects, commonly VSD, as well as anomalies in most organ systems.47,XXY: Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Infertility
Klinefelter’s syndrome affects males with a genetic complement of either 47,XXY or 48,XXXY. It is a random mutation, not inherited, and is characterized by tall stature, poorly developed testes or cryptorchidism, and gynaecomastia. Infertility is common. Physical features are not obvious in infancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room by her father. She has been lethargic and feverish for the past 2 hours. While waiting to be seen, she becomes unconscious. A physician performs an urgent evaluation while the nurse contacts 911. The child is not breathing, so 5 rescue breaths are administered. As you enter the room, the physician cannot detect a pulse in the brachial or carotid artery. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Start chest compressions/ventilations at a ratio of 15:2
Explanation:The chest compressions to ventilations ratio should be 15:2 when two trained staff members are present.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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Whilst discussing common causes of respiratory infections with a group of medical students, a question was raised about the age at which croup is typically diagnosed. Specifically, the student asked at what age croup is most commonly diagnosed.
Your Answer: 6 months - 3 years
Explanation:Croup affects 6 months to 3 years old and is caused by parainfluenza virus, while bronchiolitis affects 1-9 month olds and is caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Neonatal respiratory distress can occur due to prematurity.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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You are the paediatric SHO on call. You receive a call to attend the emergency department to assess a 3-year-old with stridor. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting on their mother's lap, leaning forward and drooling. Audible stridor can be heard from the end of the bed. The patient's medical history reveals that they have not received any vaccinations.
What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Call the anaesthetist on call
Explanation:Do not perform oral or throat examination on a child with suspected acute epiglottitis as it may lead to further airway obstruction and distress. Basic observations can be done but call the senior paediatric team and an anaesthetist.
Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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You are a foundation year 2 Doctor on your GP placement. Your first appointment is 6-year-old Jack. His mother has brought him to see you as he has had a cold over the past 6 days and now has developed a productive cough with green sputum. On examination you hear bilateral crackles at the base of his lungs and there is dullness to percussion at the left base. All basic observations are within normal limits. You diagnose a lower respiratory tract infection and decide to prescribe some antibiotics. Jack has no allergies.
What is the first line antibiotic you would prescribe for Jack?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:For children without a penicillin allergy, amoxicillin is the primary treatment for pneumonia according to the 2011 guidelines from the British Thoracic Society. If the initial treatment is ineffective, macrolides may be added. Macrolides are recommended if Mycoplasma or Chlamydia is suspected. Co-amoxiclav is suggested for pneumonia associated with influenza.
Pneumonia is a common illness in children, with S. pneumoniae being the most likely cause of bacterial pneumonia. The British Thoracic Society has published guidelines for the management of community acquired pneumonia in children. According to these guidelines, amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for all children with pneumonia. Macrolides may be added if there is no response to first-line therapy, or if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected. In cases of pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment and management of pneumonia in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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What is a not a cause of hypertension in adolescents?
Your Answer: Bartter's syndrome
Explanation:Bartter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that typically follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It results in severe hypokalaemia due to a defect in the absorption of chloride at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. Unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalaemia such as Conn’s, Cushing’s and Liddle’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome is associated with normotension. The condition usually presents in childhood and is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, polyuria, polydipsia, hypokalaemia, and weakness.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also affect children. To measure blood pressure in children, it is important to use a cuff size that is approximately 2/3 the length of their upper arm. The 4th Korotkoff sound is used to measure diastolic blood pressure until adolescence, when the 5th Korotkoff sound can be used. Results should be compared with a graph of normal values for their age.
In younger children, secondary hypertension is the most common cause, with renal parenchymal disease accounting for up to 80% of cases. Other causes of hypertension in children include renal vascular disease, coarctation of the aorta, phaeochromocytoma, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and essential or primary hypertension, which becomes more common as children get older. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension in children in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and a rash. He has been feeling sick for 5 days with persistent high temperatures. During the examination, he displays cracked lips, a bright red tongue, a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash, and peeling of the skin on his hands and feet. Additionally, he has bilateral conjunctivitis. What is the necessary investigation to screen for a potential complication, given the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chest x-ray
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery aneurysms, which can be detected through an echocardiogram. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, the patient must have a fever for more than 5 days and at least 4 of the following symptoms: bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphic rash, cracked lips/strawberry tongue, and oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet. This patient has a rash, conjunctivitis, mucosal involvement, and desquamation of the hands and feet, indicating Kawasaki disease. While cardiac magnetic resonance angiography is a non-invasive alternative to coronary angiography, it is not first-line due to its cost and limited availability. A chest x-ray may be considered to check for cardiomegaly, but it is not necessary as echocardiography can diagnose pericarditis or myocarditis without radiation. Coronary angiography is invasive and carries risks, so it is not first-line unless large coronary artery aneurysms are seen on echocardiography. A lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage unless the patient displays symptoms of meningitis.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic. He reports that the baby sometimes rejects feeds, frequently vomits, and cries for extended periods after feeds. The baby's weight was at the 50th percentile during birth but has now dropped to the 40th percentile. What advice should you give?
Your Answer: Trial of omeprazole
Correct Answer: Trial of Gaviscon
Explanation:According to NICE, breastfed infants who experience frequent regurgitation accompanied by significant distress should be given a trial of alginate therapy (such as Gaviscon) after each feed for a period of 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine) should be administered. If symptoms continue despite these treatments, it may be necessary to refer the infant to a paediatrician. For bottle-fed infants with reflux, thickened feeds are recommended.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent initial symptom of Wilms tumor?
Your Answer: Recurrent urinary tract infections
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ nephroblastoma is a prevalent type of cancer that affects children, with most cases occurring in those under the age of five. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless. Other symptoms may include pain in the flank, anorexia, and fever. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral. Metastases are found in 20% of patients, with the lungs being the most commonly affected site.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is essential to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out the possibility of Wilms’ tumour. The management of this condition typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy in cases of advanced disease. The prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is generally good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?
Your Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room due to worsening asthma symptoms over the past 48 hours. Her parents are worried that her breathing is not improving with the usual inhaled salbutamol treatment. What signs indicate a potentially life-threatening asthma attack?
Your Answer: Quiet breath sounds on auscultation
Explanation:The absence of bilateral wheezing and presence of quiet breath sounds in a child with asthma is a concerning sign, as it may indicate a severe asthma attack that could be life-threatening.
Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.
For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old multiparous woman undergoes an 11-week gestation dating scan revealing a live fetus with several abnormalities such as choroid plexus cysts, clenched hands, rocker bottom feet, and a small placenta. What is the probable abnormality?
Your Answer: Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13)
Correct Answer: Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)
Explanation:A newborn has micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers, which are indicative of Edwards Syndrome. This condition, also known as Trisomy 18, is the second most common trisomy after Down Syndrome. Unfortunately, the outcome for infants with Edwards Syndrome is poor, with many dying in-utero and few surviving beyond one week. There are several ultrasound markers that suggest Edwards Syndrome, including cardiac malformations, choroid plexus cysts, neural tube defects, abnormal hand and feet position, exomphalos, growth restriction, single umbilical artery, polyhydramnios, and small placenta. While these markers are not specific to Edwards Syndrome, they increase the likelihood of diagnosis when present together. To confirm the diagnosis, karyotype analysis of placental or amniotic fluid should be performed with patient consent. Infections such as rubella, cytomegalovirus, and varicella zoster should also be considered in the differential diagnosis of multiple fetal abnormalities, and maternal viral serology may be helpful in diagnosis.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A first-time mother brings her daughter, Lily, who is 7-months old, to the GP surgery. She is worried about Lily's development as she is still unable to sit without support. However, Lily is able to roll from front to back, sit with back straight if being held, and grasp toys when lying on her back. Can you inform the mother at what age Lily will be able to sit without support?
Your Answer: 7-8 months, refer if not achieved by 12 months
Explanation:If sitting without support is not achieved by 12 months, referral is necessary, although it should typically be achieved by 7-8 months.
Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Correct
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A mother brings her 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department (ED). She is very concerned as she reports that he has been unsettled and crying all night, which is unusual for him. The patient was born at 40+1 weeks by normal vaginal delivery; the mother developed gestational diabetes, but there were no other complications during the pregnancy or birth. The child has had all his vaccinations. The mother reports that he has been crying non-stop since the early hours of this morning. She tried to feed him, but he vomited twice, minutes after the feed.
On examination, he is crying, warm and well perfused, with a pulse of 150 beats per minute (bpm). His abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. The mother mentions that she noticed a dark red jelly-like substance in his nappy when she changed it earlier.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Common Causes of Bowel Obstruction in Children
Bowel obstruction in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own distinct features. Here are some of the most common causes:
1. Intussusception: This occurs when one segment of the bowel telescopes into another, leading to obstruction. It is most common in children aged 6-9 months and may be idiopathic or caused by a viral infection. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, tinkling bowel sounds, and redcurrant jelly stools.
2. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: This is a gastric outlet obstruction that typically presents at around 3 weeks of life. It is caused by hypertrophy of the pylorus and leads to non-bilious projectile vomiting and a palpable olive mass in the epigastric region. Treatment involves surgical excision.
3. Duodenal atresia: This is a type of bowel obstruction that only occurs in neonates. It results from failure of recanalization of the small bowel in early fetal life and presents with bilious vomiting, proximal stomach distension, and a double-bubble sign on X-ray. It is associated with Down’s syndrome.
4. Ileus: This is a condition in which the bowel becomes aperistaltic, leading to obstruction. It is common after abdominal surgery, electrolyte disturbances, or infection.
5. Meconium obstruction: This is a type of bowel obstruction that only occurs in newborns. It presents with failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distension. Diagnosis can be made prenatally or after birth with an abdominal X-ray showing dilated loops of the small intestine and a soap bubble appearance. Treatment involves radiographic contrast enema or surgery if enemas are unsuccessful.
In conclusion, bowel obstruction in children can have various causes, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 32
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She reports that her daughter has been complaining of abdominal pain and has had loose stools for the past three weeks. Her weight was previously on the 75th centile but has now dropped to the 50th centile. She appears fatigued, pale and has a bloated abdomen.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer: Blood tests for immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. There are several diagnostic tests that can be performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease.
Initial Blood Tests
The initial blood tests for coeliac disease are immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA. Total IgA is tested because IgA deficiency is associated with coeliac disease and can cause a false-negative tTG-IgA. It is important for patients to be eating a diet containing gluten when they have the blood test to avoid a false-negative result.Endoscopy and Duodenal Biopsy
An endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis in secondary care. However, guidelines state that children may be diagnosed without a biopsy if they have tTG-IgA levels over ten times the upper limit of normal and positive endomysial antibodies (EMA-IgA) in a second blood test.HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 Blood Tests
HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 are associated with coeliac disease. This blood test may be performed in secondary care but is not an initial investigation.C13 Urea Breath Test
The C13 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori and has no role in the diagnosis of coeliac disease.In conclusion, a combination of blood tests and endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating a gluten-containing diet before undergoing diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation of rotation and extension at the affected hip joint, and a radiograph shows a dense flattened and fragmented femoral head on the affected side.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Correct Answer: Perthes' disease
Explanation:Perthes’ Disease: Avascular Necrosis of the Proximal Femoral Head in Children
Perthes’ disease is a condition that results from avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head, which is caused by a compromised blood supply. It typically affects children aged 4-10, with boys being affected more frequently than girls. The disease presents with a painless limp and limited range of motion of the affected hip, followed by hip pain as necrosis develops.
The diagnosis of Perthes’ disease is suspected clinically, and radiographs may be normal initially or show only a non-specific effusion. As the condition progresses, the joint space between the ossified femoral head and acetabulum widens, and narrowing or collapse of the femoral head causes it to appear widened and flattened. Eventually, femoral head collapse may ensue.
Other conditions that may present similarly to Perthes’ disease include slipped upper femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and congenital dislocation of the hip. However, each of these conditions has its own unique features and diagnostic criteria.
Overall, Perthes’ disease is a generalised disorder of cartilage development that predisposes children to repeated episodes of infarction in the proximal femoral epiphysis. The most significant factors determining prognosis are onset in the older child, epiphyseal protrusion, extensive involvement of the epiphysis, and arrest of subcapital growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 34
Correct
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A 7-week old male infant is presented to the GP clinic by his mother for a regular examination. During auscultation of the baby's heart, you detect a harsh ejection systolic murmur that is most audible at the second intercostal space on the right parasternal area and extends to the neck. Additionally, you observe that the baby has a small upturned nose, a long philtrum, a small chin, and swollen eyes. What is the probable syndrome that this baby is suffering from?
Your Answer: William's syndrome
Explanation:Aortic stenosis is commonly seen in individuals with William’s syndrome, which is characterized by distinct facial features such as a small upturned nose, long philtrum, wide mouth, full lips, small chin, and puffiness around the eyes. On the other hand, Down’s syndrome is typically associated with atrioventricular septal defects, while Klinefelter syndrome is linked to hypogonadism. Angelman syndrome, on the other hand, is not commonly associated with aortic stenosis.
Aortic Stenosis in Children: Causes and Management
Aortic stenosis is a type of congenital heart disease that affects 5% of children. It can be associated with other conditions such as William’s syndrome, coarctation of the aorta, and Turner’s syndrome. The aim of management is to delay or avoid valve replacement if possible. However, if the gradient across the valve is greater than 60 mmHg, balloon valvotomy may be necessary. It is important to monitor and manage aortic stenosis in children to prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 35
Correct
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The parents of a 15-month-old boy visit their GP with concerns about his eyes. They have noticed that in some photos there is no 'red eye' on the right side. Upon examination, the boy is found to have an esotropic strabismus and a loss of the red-reflex in the right eye. There is a family history of a grandparent who had an enucleation as a child.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:The absence of the red-reflex may be a symptom of a congenital cataract, but this condition is typically identified at birth or during routine infant screenings. Additionally, a congenital cataract would not account for the familial history of enucleation.
Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.
When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movements. Upon ultrasound, it is discovered that the fetus is hydropic. Her 5-year-old child had a fever and redness on the cheeks recently. What is the probable infectious agent responsible for this?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by the child indicate erythema infectiosum, which is caused by an infection with parvovirus B19. Most pregnant women have immunity to this virus and it typically does not pose a risk. However, in rare cases, infection during the first trimester has been associated with hydrops fetalis, which can lead to miscarriage.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which one of the following drugs is safe to use while breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:The use of cephalosporins during breastfeeding is deemed to be safe.
Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 38
Correct
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You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48 hours after delivery without any complications. During the examination, you observe a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left subclavicular thrill. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and a widened pulse pressure. There are no indications of cyanosis or crackles on auscultation. The mother confirms that there were no complications during pregnancy, and antenatal scans and screening did not reveal any abnormalities. There is no family history of significant illnesses. What would be the most appropriate management option for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:To promote closure of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), indomethacin or ibuprofen is administered to the neonate. This is the correct course of action based on the examination findings. The ductus arteriosus typically closes naturally with the first breaths, but if it remains open, prostaglandin synthesis can be inhibited with medication. Administering indomethacin to the mother would not be effective. Prostaglandin would have the opposite effect and maintain the PDA’s patency, which is not desirable in this scenario. Involving surgeons or monitoring the baby without treatment would also not be appropriate. If left untreated, PDA can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary hypertension or Eisenmenger’s syndrome.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five months ago. The father has noticed that his son seems to be 'bow-legged' when he walks.
Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.
What is the most appropriate action?Your Answer: Refer to paediatric orthopaedics
Correct Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years
Explanation:It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.
Common Lower Limb Variants in Children
Parents often become concerned when they notice apparent abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This can lead to a visit to their primary care physician and a referral to secondary care. However, many of these presentations are actually normal variants that will resolve on their own.
One common variant is flat feet, where the child’s medial arch is absent when standing. This typically resolves between the ages of 4-8 years and does not require orthotics. In-toeing is another common presentation, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. Most cases resolve spontaneously, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.
Bow legs, or genu varum, is another normal variant that presents in the first or second year of life. This is characterized by an increased intercondylar distance and typically resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, presents in the third or fourth year of life and is characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This also typically resolves spontaneously.
Overall, it is important for parents to be aware of these common lower limb variants in children and to seek medical advice if they have concerns. However, in many cases, parental reassurance and monitoring is all that is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 41
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor on the postnatal ward, you perform a newborn examination on a twelve-hour-old baby delivered vaginally. During the examination, you observe a scalp swelling that has poorly defined margins and crosses suture lines. The swelling is soft and pitted on pressure. The mother reports that the swelling has been present since birth. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subgaleal haematoma
Correct Answer: Caput succedaneum
Explanation:Scalp edema known as caput seccedaneum can be identified by its ability to extend beyond the suture lines during examination.
Understanding Caput Succedaneum
Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.
Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 42
Correct
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What is the likelihood of a 44-year-old mother having a child with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: 1 in 50
Explanation:The risk of Down’s syndrome is 1 in 1,000 at the age of 30, and this risk decreases by a factor of 3 for every 5 years.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age. At 20 years old, the risk is 1 in 1,500, but by 45 years old, the risk increases to 1 in 50 or greater. To remember this, one can start with a risk of 1/1,000 at 30 years old and divide the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. The risk of recurrence is 1 in 100 if the mother is under 35 years old. Robertsonian translocation occurs when part of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome, usually chromosome 14. This accounts for 5% of cases and has a higher risk of recurrence if the mother or father is a carrier. Mosaicism accounts for 1% of cases and occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
In summary, Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is more common with increasing maternal age. The risk of recurrence depends on the type of Down’s syndrome and whether the parents are carriers. It is important for individuals to understand the genetics and epidemiology of Down’s syndrome to make informed decisions about family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 43
Correct
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You are a foundation year 2 doctor on your GP placement. You see 8-year-old Lily whose mother has brought her to see you as she feels Lily is snoring very loudly and wonders whether this is affecting her quality of sleep. Lily is overweight and has a background of childhood asthma.
What is a frequent cause of snoring in childhood?Your Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Snoring in Children: Possible Causes
Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.
In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 45
Correct
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A 16-year-old complains of left knee pain that has been present for the last 4 weeks. No injury history is reported. The pain is located in the front of the joint and is aggravated when ascending or descending stairs. Physical examination reveals no significant findings. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae
Explanation:Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults
Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.
Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.
Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.
Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 46
Correct
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You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at 30 weeks) and has recently been discharged from hospital after being admitted for 'breathing difficulties'. During the hospital stay, the baby received an injection called palivizumab, but the mother cannot remember the purpose of this medication. Can you explain the medication and its indication?
Your Answer: Monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Explanation:To prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children who are at a higher risk of severe disease, palivizumab, a monoclonal antibody, is administered. Infants who are premature, have lung or heart abnormalities, or are immunocompromised are among those at risk of developing RSV.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 47
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presents to you with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. He is typically healthy, but he recently saw another doctor for a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The pain began two days ago, and he is hesitant to put weight on his left leg.
What is the probable underlying condition?Your Answer: Transient synovitis of the hip
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for a child experiencing hip pain, limp, and a recent infection could be transient synovitis.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral expiratory wheezing, but there are no indications of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her PEF is approximately 50% of normal. What is the best course of action regarding steroid treatment?
Your Answer: Double his usual beclometasone dose
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days
Explanation:According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.
Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.
For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 49
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat, fever and cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor prescribes amoxicillin. After four days of taking the antibiotics, the boy develops a highly itchy, maculopapular rash. His blood tests from four days ago reveal a lymphocytosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:Diagnosing Glandular Fever: Understanding Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, is a viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, sore throat, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes. One common symptom is the development of a maculopapular rash, which can be triggered by taking penicillin. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule out conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, allergy to penicillin, herpes zoster, and streptococcal throat infection.
To confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers may perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) serology may also be tested in certain cases. Treatment for glandular fever is primarily supportive, and patients are advised to avoid contact sports to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and manage this viral illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta and pulmonary trunk are parallel with an absence of crossing. What medication should be initiated urgently before corrective surgery can be performed?
Your Answer: Indomethacin
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:The initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease involves maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. In neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA), prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously to ensure the ductus arteriosus remains open, as its closure can lead to circulatory failure and profound cyanosis. Prostaglandins work by dilating vascular smooth muscle, which maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. Administering prostaglandins after delivery is necessary as the prostaglandin-rich placenta is no longer present to keep the ductus arteriosus open. Adenosine is not indicated in this case, as the newborn’s issue is circulatory rather than related to cardiac electrical activity. If heart failure occurs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be used, but prostaglandins should be the first-line treatment to prevent heart failure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, leading to closure of the ductus arteriosus and likely death of the newborn. Prostaglandin E is the most potent type of prostaglandin responsible for maintaining ductus arteriosus patency, not prostaglandin F2.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.
To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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