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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old man comes to your clinic seeking advice on how to improve his health after his uncle passed away from a heart attack at the age of 50. He mentions that he has already begun going to the gym three times a week and has increased his consumption of fruits and vegetables. However, he works in finance and is finding it difficult to reduce his alcohol consumption. What is the highest recommended weekly alcohol limit for men in the UK?
Your Answer: 14 units
Explanation:The latest recommendations state that individuals should limit their alcohol consumption to no more than 14 units per week, regardless of gender. Additionally, it is suggested that individuals should spread out their drinking over a minimum of three days if they regularly consume 14 units per week.
Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of 102 g/L. Iron studies are ordered to investigate for iron-deficiency anaemia. What result would support this diagnosis?
Your Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↓ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↓ transferrin saturation
Correct Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↑ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↓ transferrin saturation
Explanation:In cases of iron-deficiency anemia, it is common for both the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) and transferrin levels to be elevated. However, it should be noted that the transferrin saturation level is typically decreased.
Iron deficiency anaemia is caused by a lack of iron, which is needed to make haemoglobin in red blood cells. It is the most common type of anaemia worldwide, with preschool-age children having the highest prevalence. Causes include excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations, and nail changes. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count and serum ferritin test. Treatment involves identifying and managing the underlying cause, as well as taking oral iron supplements and consuming an iron-rich diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 6 cm complex ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on her scalp that have resulted in hair loss and scarring. She reports that she first noticed these patches 4 weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Upon further inquiry, she also acknowledges experiencing persistent joint pain and stiffness. Could scarring alopecia be caused by any of the following?
Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma/burns, radiotherapy, discoid lupus, tinea capitis, and lichen planus. However, out of these options, lichen planus is the only cause that leads to scarring alopecia. The remaining causes, including alopecia areata, carbimazole, trichotillomania, and telogen effluvium, result in non-scarring alopecia.
Input:
Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.Output:
– Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
– Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
– Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease is evaluated at a nursing home. She presents with tense blistering lesions on her legs, measuring approximately 1 to 3 cm in diameter, and reports mild itching. Her mouth and vulva examination are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epidermolysis bullosa
Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:If there are blisters or bullae present without any involvement of the mucosal lining, the condition is likely to be bullous pemphigoid. However, if there is mucosal involvement, the condition is more likely to be pemphigus vulgaris.
Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.
To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.
It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. He reports an increase in palpitations since starting a new medication. On examination, his ECG reveals a prolonged QT interval of 500 msec. What is the probable medication he is taking?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Prolonged QT interval syndrome can be caused by tricyclic antidepressants and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, with citalopram being particularly associated with this effect. As a result, the MHRA issued a warning on its use and reduced the maximum recommended daily dose from 80 mg to 40mg due to the dose-dependent nature of QT prolongation. Although not mandatory, some GPs may request an initial ECG before prescribing citalopram.
Understanding Long QT Syndrome
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.
LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GUM clinic at 18 weeks gestation. Her partner has tested positive for Chlamydia and she needs treatment as a contact. The doctor prescribes a single dose of azithromycin 1g and screens her for infection. When is it appropriate to conduct a test of cure (TOC)?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:For symptomatic men with Chlamydia, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. As for women and asymptomatic men, all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent partner should be notified. Pregnant women should undergo a test of cure (TOC) 6 weeks after infection, according to BASHH guidelines. Performing a TOC earlier than 6 weeks may result in a false positive due to the presence of nonviable Chlamydia DNA on the NAAT. However, uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in men and non-pregnant women does not require a routine TOC.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with dizzy spells and a swollen left calf. She has a postural drop in systolic blood pressure of >20 mmHg, low platelet count, and abnormal sodium and potassium levels. She has also had three spontaneous miscarriages and exhibits jerky explosive movements of her limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Thrombocytopenia, Deep Vein Thrombosis, Recurrent Miscarriages, and Chorea
Antiphospholipid Syndrome:
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a disorder characterized by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies that cause thrombosis and recurrent miscarriages. The patient’s symptoms of deep vein thrombosis, three spontaneous miscarriages, and chorea are consistent with this diagnosis. The blood test shows thrombocytopenia, which is also a common finding in antiphospholipid syndrome. The diagnosis requires a positive test on at least two occasions, 6 weeks apart, in one or more of the antiphospholipid antibody assays. Treatment involves lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin in patients with a history of thrombosis.Uncontrolled Epilepsy:
The patient’s explosive jerky movements of the limbs may indicate poorly controlled epilepsy. However, this diagnosis does not explain all of her other symptoms.Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP):
ITP is a disorder that causes a low platelet count and a characteristic purpuric rash. However, the absence of a rash and the multitude of other clinical signs make a diagnosis of ITP insufficient to explain the patient’s presentation.Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH):
SIADH is a disorder that causes water retention and hyponatremia. However, the patient’s symptoms do not fit with this diagnosis.Dehydration:
Severe dehydration may present with postural hypotension and an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, dehydration alone cannot explain the patient’s other symptoms.Conclusion:
Based on the patient’s clinical features, antiphospholipid syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. Further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth on his right lower eyelid. The lesion has been there for at least 3 months and has not increased in size. During examination, you observe a 3 mm lesion with rolled, pearly edges. Your suspicion is a basal cell carcinoma.
What would be the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Urgent referral for surgical excision
Explanation:When it comes to basal cell carcinoma, surgical excision is typically recommended and can be referred routinely. However, for high-risk areas such as the eyelids and nasal ala, urgent referral under the 2-week wait is necessary to prevent potential damage from delay.
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is one of the three main types of skin cancer and is characterized by slow growth and local invasion. BCC lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and rarely metastasize. The majority of BCC lesions are found on sun-exposed areas, particularly the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As the lesion progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater. If BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. Management options include surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recognized feature of Horner's syndrome?
Your Answer: Enophthalmos
Correct Answer: Mydriasis
Explanation:Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, pre-ganglionic, and post-ganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, pre-ganglionic lesions, and post-ganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while pre-ganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. Post-ganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Admit patient
Explanation:Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.
Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control
Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.
According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.
NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Correct
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A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medication, and reports no concerning symptoms. He maintains a healthy lifestyle and enjoys participating in ultramarathons as a runner.
During the physical examination, an ECG is conducted, which was normal during his last check-up the previous year. What would be the most worrisome ECG characteristic?Your Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
Explanation:A new left bundle branch block on an ECG is always a sign of pathology and not a normal variant. It indicates a delay in the left half of the conducting system, which can be caused by conditions such as aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy, or ischaemia. However, other findings on an ECG, such as J-waves, left axis deviation, second-degree heart block (Mobitz I), or a short QT interval, may be normal variants in a healthy individual and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by symptoms of arrhythmias.
Left Bundle Branch Block: Causes and Diagnosis
Left bundle branch block (LBBB) is a cardiac condition that can be diagnosed through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG shows typical features of LBBB, including a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6. It is important to note that new LBBB is always pathological and can be caused by various factors such as myocardial infarction, hypertension, aortic stenosis, and cardiomyopathy. However, diagnosing a myocardial infarction for patients with existing LBBB can be difficult. In such cases, the Sgarbossa criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis.
Other rare causes of LBBB include idiopathic fibrosis, digoxin toxicity, and hyperkalaemia. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of LBBB to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, patients with LBBB should undergo further evaluation and testing to determine the cause of their condition. By identifying the cause of LBBB, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management to improve the patient’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient comes to the clinic after discovering a lump in her right breast. She is uncertain about how long it has been there and reports no pain or other symptoms. She has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass of approximately 2 cm in diameter is palpated. The patient is immediately referred for imaging, which reveals a small, lobulated lesion measuring about 2.5cm in width, highly suggestive of a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Reassurance and monitoring
Explanation:A young patient has a small fibroadenoma <3 cm, which is highly suggestive on imaging. There is no increase in the risk of breast cancer, so a core-needle biopsy is not necessary. Watchful waiting is appropriate, and cryoablation may be used for larger fibroadenomas. Fine-needle aspiration is only necessary for larger lumps or in older patients. Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30. Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended. In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?
Your Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin
Explanation:There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with diagnosed irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is currently taking loperamide, movicol and hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan) for management. However, she is still experiencing bloating and abdominal pain.
What would be the next treatment option from the list below?Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant (eg amitriptyline)
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms for at least 6 months, and physical examination and investigations are used to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS involves psychological support and dietary measures, such as fibre supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Antispasmodics, antidiarrhoeals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms. However, the choice of medication should be based on the nature and severity of symptoms, with the option of single or combination medication determined by the predominant symptom(s).
It is important to note that certain medications, such as aspirin and NSAIDs, can worsen IBS symptoms, and laxatives like lactulose should be discouraged. Patients should be made aware of these potential risks and advised accordingly. Overall, a multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and patients is essential for the effective management of IBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 17
Correct
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A 3-day-old infant is presented to the Emergency Department due to increased irritability, poor feeding, and decreased muscle tone as observed by the mother in the last 24 hours. Meningitis is confirmed through lumbar puncture. What is the probable causative agent in this scenario?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:Meningitis poses a higher risk to neonates, particularly those with low birth weight, prematurity, traumatic delivery, fetal hypoxia, and maternal peripartum infection. The initial symptoms are usually vague and may include elevated body temperature, respiratory distress, apnea, episodes of bradycardia, low blood pressure, difficulty feeding, irritability, and decreased activity.
Organisms causing meningitis in children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children of all ages. The organisms that cause meningitis vary depending on the age of the child. In neonates up to 3 months old, Group B Streptococcus is the most common cause, which is usually acquired from the mother during birth. E. coli and other Gram-negative organisms, as well as Listeria monocytogenes, can also cause meningitis in this age group.
From 1 month to 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus), and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common organisms that cause meningitis. In children over 6 years old, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causes.
It is important for parents to be aware of the signs and symptoms of meningitis, such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. If a child is showing these symptoms, they should be taken to a doctor immediately for evaluation and treatment. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of painful ulcers on his penis shaft and dysuria for the past three days. He has never experienced such symptoms before. The clinical diagnosis suggests primary genital herpes. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Topical podophyllotoxin
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Even if the presentation is delayed for up to 5 days, primary genital herpes infections require oral antiviral therapy.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Virus
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that affects humans. There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital herpes, respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The primary infection may present with severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are common features.
Management of HSV includes oral aciclovir for gingivostomatitis and genital herpes, and topical aciclovir for cold sores, although the evidence base for the latter is modest. Patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir. In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes during pregnancy at greater than 28 weeks gestation may require elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low.
The cytopathic effect of HSV can be seen in Pap smears, which show multinucleated giant cells representing infection by the virus. The 3 M’s – multinucleation, margination of the chromatin, and molding of the nuclei – are characteristic features of HSV infection. Understanding the features and management of HSV is important for effective treatment and prevention of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is admitted to a surgical ward for a routine cholecystectomy. He is currently taking metformin 500mg BD, gliclazide 120 mg BD, ramipril 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg. The nurse on the morning drug round asks the doctor if they should administer the morning dose of gliclazide, as the surgery is scheduled for 9 am. What should the doctor advise the nurse?
Your Answer: Both morning and afternoon doses of gliclazide should be withheld on the day of surgery
Correct Answer: The morning dose of gliclazide should be held but the afternoon dose can be given
Explanation:On the day of surgery, sulfonylureas should be omitted, except for patients who take them twice a day. In this case, the morning dose should be withheld, and the afternoon dose given after the surgery. This is because there is a risk of hypoglycemia in the fasted state before surgery. Withholding both doses or withholding for 24 or 48 hours is incorrect. The BNF website provides a comprehensive guide for managing diabetic patients on insulin and anti-diabetic drugs during surgery, including information on when to introduce variable rate insulin infusions and withholding anti-diabetic medications.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Incorrect
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In the differential diagnosis of cognitive decline, which of the following is the single most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: Visual hallucinations are typical of Alzheimer's disease
Correct Answer: In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic
Explanation:Misconceptions about Dementia: Debunking Common Myths
Dementia is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about dementia that need to be debunked:
1. In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic: An EEG is abnormal in approximately 90% of cases of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, showing characteristic changes (i.e. periodic sharp wave complexes).
2. A multi-infarct aetiology is more common than the Alzheimer disease type: Multi-infarct dementia is the second most common type of dementia in people aged over 65 years.
3. A CT scan will reliably distinguish between Alzheimer disease and multi-infarct dementia: The diagnosis of both AD and multi-infarct dementia remains essentially a clinical one (and can only be definitively confirmed at autopsy).
4. In Alzheimer disease a gait disorder is seen at an early stage: Gait disturbances are usually a late sign of AD.
5. Visual hallucinations are typical of Alzheimer’s disease: Visual hallucinations, often very vivid and colourful, are typical of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD), not of AD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?
Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia
Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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You are asked to assess a 76-year-old man on the surgical ward. The nursing staff has documented his blood glucose level at 2.4mmol/L. He is recuperating after undergoing surgery for a hip fracture. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and chronic kidney disease.
During your examination, he appears somewhat restless but coherent enough to respond to your inquiries. His heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 134/82 mmHg.
What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer: Glucogel, orally
Explanation:Dextrose IV is not the recommended treatment for correcting hypoglycemia. If the patient is conscious, a fast-acting glucose liquid should be given. However, if the patient is unconscious or unable to swallow, subcutaneous or intramuscular injection of glucagon may be necessary. While a sandwich can be helpful after treating the hypoglycemic episode, it is not a quick-acting carbohydrate and should not be used in the acute phase.
Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, self-administration of insulin or sulphonylureas, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in a range of symptoms such as sweating, shaking, hunger, weakness, confusion, and even convulsions or coma in severe cases.
It is important to note that blood glucose levels and the severity of symptoms are not always correlated, especially in patients with diabetes. Blood glucose concentrations below 3.3 mmol/L can cause autonomic symptoms, while concentrations below 2.8 mmol/L can cause neuroglycopenic symptoms. Management of hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, oral glucose or quick-acting carbohydrates may be given, while in a hospital setting, subcutaneous or intramuscular injection of glucagon or intravenous glucose solution may be necessary.
In summary, hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and management to prevent complications. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and appropriate management strategies can help individuals with diabetes and healthcare professionals to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Correct
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you have a patient who is a sexually active sixteen-year-old seeking advice about her contraceptive patch. She typically changes the patch on Saturday mornings but forgot to do so this week. What guidance should you provide?
Your Answer: Change the patch now, use barrier contraceptives for seven days and consider emergency contraception
Explanation:To ensure the effectiveness of the contraceptive patch, it should be applied to clean, dry skin on a weekly basis for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week to stimulate a withdrawal bleed. However, if the patch change is delayed for more than 48 hours, it is important to change it immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next 7 days. In case of unprotected intercourse, emergency contraceptives should be considered.
The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A young girl from a nomadic group has been diagnosed with measles. What is the potential immediate complication she may face following the initial infection?
Your Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Correct Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:Pneumonia is a possible complication of measles, while subacute sclerosing panencephalitis may develop 5-10 years after the illness. Mumps infection may lead to pancreatitis and infertility.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with a bilateral high-stepping gait. He is typically healthy, works as a personal trainer, and enjoys rock climbing in his free time. During the examination, there is bilateral weakness of dorsiflexion (3/5) and slightly decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of his feet. The compression of which nerve do you suspect is responsible for his symptoms, possibly caused by his high rock climbing boots?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Common fibular nerve
Explanation:Damage to the common peroneal nerve can result in weakened dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. The nerve runs laterally through the popliteal fossa and over the neck of the fibula before entering the medial compartment of the leg. This area is susceptible to compression or injury, leading to sensory and motor impairments. In this case, the individual’s tight abseiling boots have been compressing their common peroneal nerve.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, which divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The most notable symptom of this type of nerve damage is foot drop, which is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot.
In addition to foot drop, other symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion may include weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as the extensor hallucis longus muscle. Sensory loss may also occur over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and there may be wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
Overall, understanding the symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for this type of nerve injury. With proper care and management, it may be possible to improve symptoms and prevent further damage to the affected nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients frequently develop tolerance to?
Your Answer: Nicorandil
Correct Answer: Standard release isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Correct
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A mother brings her 8-month-old son to your clinic with concerns about his left eye. She reports that his left eye is constantly watering and occasionally becomes sticky, but there is no yellow or green discharge. The child has been treated twice with chloramphenicol drops, but there was no improvement. A negative eye swab was obtained last month. The child is healthy and has no issues with visual development. What would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Reassurance and advice to continue conservative treatment unless symptoms persist beyond 1 year of age
Explanation:Recurrent watery or sticky eyes in neonates may be caused by congenital tear duct obstruction, which typically resolves on its own by the age of 1. This condition can often be mistaken for conjunctivitis, leading to multiple appointments and unsuccessful treatment with chloramphenicol drops and negative swabs. Parents should be reassured that most cases will resolve on their own, but if symptoms persist beyond 1 year, a referral to an ophthalmologist is recommended.
Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.
To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Correct
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Generalised myositis is a known side effect of certain drugs. Among the options listed below, which drug is most likely to cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Muscle Effects of Common Medications
Many medications can have effects on muscles, including statins, metoclopramide, amitriptyline, cyclizine, and venlafaxine. Statins can increase the risk of muscle toxicity, especially in patients with a history of muscular disorders, high alcohol intake, renal impairment, or hypothyroidism. Metoclopramide is associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and acute dystonic reactions, but not generalised myositis. Amitriptyline and cyclizine are rarely associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and tremor, and amitriptyline may cause myalgia on drug withdrawal. Venlafaxine commonly causes hypertonia and tremor, and more rarely myoclonus, but not generalised myositis. It is important to be aware of these potential muscle effects when prescribing and monitoring these medications.
Muscle Effects of Commonly Prescribed Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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While on your GP placement, you hear a cry for help coming from the reception area. Rushing over, you see a young girl who appears to be around 4 years old collapsed on the floor. Upon checking, you find that there are no signs of life.
What would be your initial course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Chest compressions at a ratio of 15:2
Correct Answer: 5 rescue breaths
Explanation:According to the latest Resuscitation Council guidelines for paediatric BLS, the correct initial action when there are no signs of breathing is to give 5 rescue breaths. This is different from the adult algorithm where chest compressions may be done first. Giving 2 rescue breaths initially is incorrect. Chest compressions are given at a ratio of 30:2 if there is only one rescuer and at a ratio of 15:2 if there are multiple rescuers, but only after the initial 5 rescue breaths have been given. It is important to remember that in children, respiratory arrest is more common than cardiac arrest.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of worsening flank pain. He has felt hot, feverish and been unable to keep fluids down. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, tachycardia 120 beats per minute and left flank pain to palpation. Urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes +++ and nitrites +++. A diagnosis of pyelonephritis is made and intravenous gentamicin is prescribed.
What is the most common complication associated with gentamicin?Your Answer: Nephrotoxicity
Explanation:Nephrotoxicity is a known side effect of aminoglycosides.
Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is highly effective against gram negative bacteria and is often used to treat severe infections, particularly those affecting the urinary tract and abdomen. However, one of the common complications associated with gentamicin use is nephrotoxicity, which occurs due to the narrow therapeutic window required to achieve a therapeutic dose. Exceeding this index can lead to kidney damage. Ototoxicity is another potential complication that is often tested in final exams.
Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.
It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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