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  • Question 1 - You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to...

    Correct

    • You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to the coast of Kenya. The patient is a 60-year-old with fair skin and a history of psychiatric illness. The area is known for malaria with widespread chloroquine resistance, and the species of malaria found in the area include P. falciparum, P. Vivix, and P. Ovale. Based on this information, which anti-malarial medication would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer: Atovaquone/Proguanil

      Explanation:

      Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication

      Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.

      Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.

      It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding listeria infection is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding listeria infection is accurate?

      Your Answer: Pregnant women are 20 times more likely to develop listeriosis compared with the rest of the population

      Explanation:

      Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria that can cause serious illness in certain populations. This Gram-positive bacillus has the unique ability to multiply at low temperatures, making it a common contaminant in unpasteurized dairy products. The infection is particularly dangerous for pregnant women, as it can lead to miscarriage and other complications. Other at-risk populations include the elderly, neonates, and those with weakened immune systems.

      Listeria infections can present in a variety of ways, including gastroenteritis, diarrhoea, bacteraemia, and flu-like illness. In severe cases, it can lead to central nervous system infections such as meningoencephalitis, ataxia, and seizures. Diagnosis is typically made through blood cultures or cerebrospinal fluid findings.

      Treatment for Listeria infections typically involves antibiotics such as amoxicillin or ampicillin. In cases of Listeria meningitis, gentamicin may also be used. Pregnant women are at a particularly high risk for Listeria infection, and diagnosis can only be made through blood cultures. Treatment with amoxicillin is recommended to prevent complications such as miscarriage, premature labor, stillbirth, and chorioamnionitis.

      Overall, Listeria is a dangerous bacterial infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment, particularly in at-risk populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.

      Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal liver function tests are detected, prompting a hepatitis screen. The results are as follows:
      Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
      Negative for HBsAg
      Positive for Anti-HBs
      Negative for Anti-HBc
      Positive for Anti-HCV
      What is the most likely interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination

      Explanation:

      To determine if a patient still has the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients naturally clear the infection. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

      When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) typically indicates acute disease and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it suggests chronic disease and is infectious. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either exposure or vaccination, while anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. The appearance of IgM anti-HBc during acute or recent hepatitis B infection lasts for about six months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity as it results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      Understanding Hepatitis C: Transmission, Complications, and Management

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that is expected to become a significant public health concern in the UK in the coming years. It is estimated that around 200,000 people in the country are chronically infected with the virus, with intravenous drug users and those who received blood transfusions prior to 1991 being at higher risk. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks.

      Transmission of the virus can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child (especially if coexistent with HIV), and sexual intercourse (although the risk is low). There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C. Symptoms of acute infection include a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia.

      Around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection, while the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C. This can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinemia. Treatment for chronic infection depends on the viral genotype and aims for sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, with protease inhibitors such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir and simeprevir being used instead. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, and fatigue.

      In conclusion, understanding the transmission, complications, and management of hepatitis C is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of flu-like symptoms, including spiking fevers, headache, rigors, vomiting and diarrhoea.
      On examination, he looks unwell, is febrile and jaundiced. His abdomen is soft, with mild, generalised tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. He returned from Nigeria six months ago after a 8-week stay with a charity mission. He had all the appropriate travel vaccinations and took mefloquine prophylaxis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Travel-Related Illnesses: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Malaria, Yellow Fever, Enteric Fever, Hepatitis A, and Schistosomiasis are some of the common travel-related illnesses that can affect people visiting certain parts of the world.

      Malaria is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by a parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include headache, cough, fatigue, fever with rigors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Diagnosis is made through thick and thin blood films, and treatment should be guided by an infectious disease specialist.

      Yellow fever is an insect-borne tropical disease with symptoms that may include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and abnormal bleeding. It has a short incubation period of 3-6 days and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Vaccination is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.

      Enteric fever is caused by salmonella typhoid or paratyphoid and is transmitted orally via contaminated food or drink. Symptoms include severe flu-like symptoms, especially diarrhea and fever. Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, and treatment is with antibiotics.

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection transmitted via contaminated food or water. Symptoms include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and tender hepatomegaly. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, and treatment is supportive.

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection spread by flatworms that live in freshwater. Symptoms can include fever, rash, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chronic infection may present as rectal bleeding, hematuria, anemia, or cystitis. Diagnosis is made through blood and stool tests, and treatment is with antiparasitic medication.

      In conclusion, travelers to certain parts of the world should be aware of the risk of these illnesses and take appropriate precautions, including vaccination, prophylaxis, and avoiding contaminated food and water. If symptoms develop, prompt medical attention should be sought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a tick. She explains that the tick was removed by her husband using tweezers and is worried about the potential for Lyme disease. She reports no symptoms such as rash, headache, fever, lethargy, or joint pain. Her vital signs are normal and a full physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Re-assure the patient and provide safety netting advice

      Explanation:

      If a patient has been bitten by a tick but shows no signs of Lyme disease, such as erythema migrans or systemic malaise, prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary. According to NICE guidelines, asymptomatic patients with tick bites do not require ELISA investigation or antibiotic treatment. Referral to secondary care is also unnecessary in this case. The best course of action is to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them to be aware of potential symptoms of Lyme disease.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 5-day history of severe diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal pain, fever, and fatigue. He has never experienced these symptoms before. In the past 3 months, the patient has undergone treatment for upper urinary tract infections with both co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin. He has no known allergies and does not take any regular medications. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count, and a stool sample confirms the presence of Clostridium difficile toxin. According to national guidelines, what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A course of oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with confirmed Clostridium difficile infection is oral vancomycin. This infection typically occurs in patients who have recently taken broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin, which disrupt the gut flora. Discontinuing the implicated antibiotic and starting appropriate eradicative therapy is necessary. Oral fidaxomicin is an alternative but is less available. Metronidazole is no longer a first-line antibiotic due to lower cure rates than vancomycin, but it may be used if vancomycin is not available. IV vancomycin is ineffective as insufficient quantities are excreted into the gut lumen. Clindamycin is not a cure for Clostridium difficile but is associated with an increased risk of developing it. Conservative management is not recommended as the infection may worsen and lead to complications such as toxic megacolon.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is found to have 106 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml of urine on a routine health check.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common finding in clinical practice, but it does not require antibiotic treatment. Patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at increased risk for symptomatic UTI, but treatment does not decrease the frequency of symptomatic UTIs nor improve other outcomes. Therefore, screening for or treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not appropriate and should be discouraged.

      Treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in women should be reserved for pregnant patients, those undergoing a urological procedure that may produce mucosal bleeding, and the significantly immunosuppressed. Pregnant patients are considered immunosuppressed UTI hosts due to the physiological changes associated with pregnancy, which increase the risk for serious complications even in healthy pregnant women. However, it should not be treated in diabetic patients, elderly individuals, or those with indwelling catheters.

      Antibiotic treatment is not recommended in this clinical scenario, even in symptomatic UTIs. Current UK antimicrobial guidance recommends treatment for 3-7 days, depending on the clinical case, not with a single-dose administration. Investigating the renal tract is also not necessary for a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Intravenous antibiotic treatment is reserved for complicated UTIs, in which case the patient would present far more unwell than what is seen in this scenario. Underlying conditions that predispose patients to complicated UTIs include diabetes, renal failure, functional or anatomic abnormality of the urinary tract, renal transplantation, an indwelling catheter stent, or immunosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a brawl at a local bar. He appears to be heavily intoxicated and is loudly claiming that he was bitten on the hand while attempting to throw a punch. Upon examination, there is evidence of a bite mark on his right hand that has broken the skin but has not caused any bleeding. The wound site shows no signs of redness, swelling, necrotic tissue, or discharge. Despite being disruptive and agitated, the man is otherwise stable and does not have a fever. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate antibiotic for treating human bites, as well as animal bites. If a human bite breaks the skin and draws blood, antibiotics should be administered. In the scenario provided, the man was bitten in a high-risk area, which includes the hands, feet, face, genitals, skin overlying cartilaginous structures, or an area of poor circulation. Even if the bite did not draw blood, antibiotics should still be considered if the person is at high risk or if the bite is in a high-risk area. Co-amoxiclav is the first choice antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of human and animal bites. If the patient has a penicillin allergy or if co-amoxiclav is not suitable, doxycycline with metronidazole is the preferred alternative. Flucloxacillin is not effective in treating human and animal bites. If there is discharge present from the wound site, a swab should be taken for microbiological sampling, and antibiotic choice can be adjusted based on the results. Initial wound management should include removing foreign bodies, irrigating the site, and debridement, especially if the wound is dirty. Pain management should also be provided. However, due to the location of the bite in a high-risk area, antibiotics are necessary.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 11 - A man with a 5-year history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attends the...

    Incorrect

    • A man with a 5-year history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attends the clinic for a routine check-up and to receive the results of his latest CD4 count and viral load. He is currently taking lopinavir, tenofovir and 3TC medications as part of his antiretroviral treatment. Management of HIV aims to reduce the patient’s viral load and improve their CD4 count.
      Above what level in the blood should you aim to keep this patient's CD4 count?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: > 350 cells/mm3

      Explanation:

      A man with a 5-year history of HIV is on antiretroviral treatment with atazanavir, emtricitabine, and tenofovir. The aim of this treatment is to reduce viral load (< 50 copies/ml), improve CD4 count (above 350 cells/mm3), reduce transmission, and increase quality of life without unacceptable drug side-effects. During routine check-ups, the patient's CD4 count, HIV viral RNA load, renal and hepatic function, cholesterol, blood sugar, triglycerides, and lactate are assessed. The target level for this patient's CD4 count is above 350 cells/mm3. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 greatly exposes the patient to opportunistic infections. Antiretroviral treatment usually involves a combination of at least three drugs classified as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), protease inhibitors (PIs), or 'others'. These drugs may have side-effects such as lipoatrophy, hepatotoxicity, lipodystrophy syndrome, lactic acidosis, Steven-Johnson syndrome, drug-drug interactions, hyperbilirubinemia, peripheral neuropathy, bone marrow suppression, anaemia, pancreatitis, and insulin resistance/hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 12 - What is the most suitable antibiotic for treating uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable antibiotic for treating uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in a 22-year-old female who is not expecting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline is the recommended treatment for chlamydia.

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being involved in a physical altercation while under the influence of alcohol at a bar. His recollection of the event is unclear, but he recalls being hit in the face and bitten on his hand. Upon examination, there is significant bruising around the left eye and a bite wound on the outer aspect of the left hand. What antibiotic should be administered for the bite?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating human bites, it is recommended to use co-amoxiclav, which is also used for treating animal bites. This medication is effective in targeting the primary organisms that are commonly associated with human bites, such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Eikenella, Corynebacterium, and other anaerobes. It is important to note that even if there are no visible signs of infection, antibiotics should still be prescribed.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old man who has recently returned from Nigeria complains of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man who has recently returned from Nigeria complains of a painful ulcer on his genitals. Upon examination, you observe a lesion that is 1cm x 1cm in size and has a ragged border. Additionally, you notice tender lymphadenopathy in the groin area. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus ducreyi

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is the culprit behind painful genital ulcers that have a ragged border and are accompanied by tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. Haemophilus ducreyi is the organism responsible for causing chancroid. While herpes simplex virus can also cause painful genital ulcers, they tend to be smaller and multiple, and primary attacks are often accompanied by fever. On the other hand, lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by C. trachomatis, syphilis by T. pallidum, and granuloma inguinale by K. granulomatis, all of which result in painless genital ulcers.

      Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.

      Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of profuse loose stools and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of profuse loose stools and severe abdominal pain over the past 2 days. He has lost his appetite and is only tolerating small amounts of fluid over the past 24 hours. On examination, his heart rate is 118 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, temperature 38.1ºC and blood pressure is 104/74 mmHg. Significant left iliac fossa tenderness is noted. The patient is urgently admitted, and a stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection and severe colitis without perforation on imaging. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The treatment for life-threatening C. difficile infection involves administering vancomycin orally and metronidazole intravenously.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice. She has been experiencing anal discharge and itching for the past 4 days. She also has some symptoms of painful urination. A urethral smear shows intracellular diplococci.

      What is the most probable infectious agent that matches this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Common Sexually Transmitted Infections and Diagnostic Methods

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a major public health concern worldwide. Here are some common STIs and their diagnostic methods:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae: This bacterium causes gonorrhoea, which is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A Gram stain is the method of choice for detecting gonorrhoea in symptomatic men.

      Treponema pallidum: This spirochaete bacterium causes syphilis. Serologic testing is the standard method of detection for all stages of syphilis.

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This bacterium is an obligate intracellular micro-organism that infects squamocolumnar epithelial cells. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) is the most sensitive test for detecting C. trachomatis infection, and a urine sample is an effective specimen for this test.

      Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This virus is typically associated with orofacial disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-1.

      Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2): This virus is typically associated with urogenital disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-2.

      Common STIs and Their Diagnostic Methods

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around the genitals. She has just completed an elective year in the United States (USA). On examination, there are multiple, shallow and tender ulcers at the skin and mucous membrane of the vagina.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genital herpes

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Causes and Symptoms

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. There are various types of STDs, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex viruses, with type 2 being responsible for the majority of cases. It can present as vesicular lesions around the genitals, rectum or mouth, but most individuals are asymptomatic. Granuloma inguinale is a chronic bacterial infection that results in nodular lesions that evolve into ulcers. Chancroid is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers. Primary syphilis is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, with lesions beginning as solitary, raised, firm, red papules that can be several centimetres in diameter. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an uncommon STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, characterised by self-limited genital papules or ulcers, followed by painful inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Non-infectious causes include fixed drug reactions, Behçet’s disease, neoplasms and trauma. It is important to consider these alternative causes if evaluations for the infectious aetiologies do not lead to a diagnosis. HIV infection should always be considered and tested for.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing a high fever and excessive sweating. During the examination, multiple black blisters are observed, which are producing a malodorous discharge. What is the typical microorganism linked to this ailment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection that can lead to muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production, and ultimately, death. The infection can occur in two ways: through traumatic or surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria, or spontaneously, which is often observed in immunocompromised patients. While there are multiple causes of gas gangrene, clostridium perfringens, a type of clostridia species, is frequently implicated. The condition typically begins with pain and progresses to systemic symptoms such as fever and dehydration. Skin changes, including blisters that can burst and produce a foul-smelling discharge, are also common. Movement may produce a crackling sound known as crepitus.

      Clostridia: Gram-Positive Anaerobic Bacilli

      Clostridia are a group of gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli. There are several species of Clostridia, each with their own unique features and pathologies. C. perfringens produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which can cause gas gangrene and haemolysis. Symptoms of gas gangrene include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae, and crepitus may be present on palpation. C. botulinum is typically found in canned foods and honey and can cause flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine. C. difficile is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, which is often seen after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This species produces both an exotoxin and a cytotoxin. Finally, C. tetani produces an exotoxin called tetanospasmin, which prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous skin lesion on her upper arm after experiencing a high fever of 39ºC, headache, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. A skin biopsy revealed a beta-haemolytic group A streptococcal infection in the upper dermis. What is the most appropriate term to describe this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Erysipelas is mainly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which belongs to the beta-haemolytic group A streptococci. The rash is a result of an endotoxin produced by the bacteria, rather than the bacteria itself. The absence of subcutaneous tissue involvement is a distinguishing feature of erysipelas.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.

      For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.

      For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing body aches and waking up in a cold sweat at night. Upon examination, you observe injection marks on the antecubital fossa. His vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 122 bpm, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. You urgently order blood cultures and an echocardiogram. Based on the diagnosis, which site is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve is the valve most commonly affected by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 21 - A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in her right lower limb. The local protocol recommends using oral clindamycin as the next line of treatment. What is the most crucial side effect of clindamycin that she should be cautioned about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly linked to an increased likelihood of contracting C. difficile.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - You are taking the history of an Emergency Department patient who was assaulted....

    Incorrect

    • You are taking the history of an Emergency Department patient who was assaulted. The victim is a 20-year-old female who has a deep laceration on her thigh caused by a rusty machete. The wound has exposed tendon, muscle, and subcutaneous fat. According to her medical records, she received all her childhood immunizations on schedule, including 5 doses of tetanus vaccine, with the last one administered when she was 16 years old.

      What is the appropriate management for tetanus risk in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No tetanus vaccine booster and no immunoglobulins required

      Explanation:

      If a patient has received 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the most recent dose administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound. This is the correct course of action. The patient’s childhood vaccinations would have included 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the last dose given at age 14 or later. Therefore, the patient is already adequately protected and does not require a booster or immunoglobulin, regardless of the severity of the wound.

      The option of administering a tetanus vaccine booster with antibiotics is not the correct course of action. While antibiotics may be considered for protection against other bacteria, the patient already has sufficient protection against tetanus and does not require vaccination.

      Similarly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster with tetanus immunoglobulin is not necessary. As previously mentioned, the patient already has adequate protection from previous vaccinations. Immunoglobulin would only be necessary if the patient had an incomplete or unknown vaccine history or if it had been more than 10 years since the last vaccine.

      Lastly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster alone is not necessary. The patient already has protection from previous vaccinations and does not require a booster.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left iliac fossa discomfort and fever without rectal bleeding.

      Three months ago she was treated for confirmed Clostridium difficile infection with oral vancomycin, with a resolution of symptoms.

      On examination, her heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min, temperature 37.6ºC and blood pressure of 130/86 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally mildly tender, without guarding.

      A repeat stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, it is recommended to treat them with oral fidaxomicin. However, the use of bezlotoxumab to prevent recurrences is not currently supported by NICE due to cost-effectiveness concerns. Faecal microbiota transplant may be considered for patients who have had two or more previous episodes, but not on the first recurrence. In cases of life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection, both oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole should be used for treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old patient visits their doctor with suspected tonsillitis recurrence. They report having...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient visits their doctor with suspected tonsillitis recurrence. They report having had tonsillitis three times in the past year and currently have a fever and cough. During the examination, the doctor notes tender cervical lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsils. The patient is prescribed phenoxymethylpenicillin. On day 5 of treatment, blood tests are taken and reveal the following results:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 390 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 10.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 0.8 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Lymphs 9.2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
      Mono 0.2 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
      Eosin 0.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      What could be the possible reasons for the abnormalities in these blood results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Underlying diagnosis of glandular fever

      Explanation:

      The presence of lymphocytosis and neutropenia in a person who has been treated for recurrent tonsillitis may indicate an underlying condition. Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, is a common cause of recurrent tonsillitis in young people and can result in an increase in activated T and B lymphocytes, leading to lymphocytosis. The virus may also cause neutropenia, although the exact cause is not fully understood. A peritonsillar abscess, tonsillitis unresponsive to treatment, and treatment with phenoxymethylpenicillin are unlikely to cause significant abnormalities in the full blood count. While lymphoma may explain the lymphocytosis, it would not account for the neutropenia and is less likely than an underlying glandular fever infection.

      Understanding Neutropaenia: Causes and Severity

      Neutropaenia is a medical condition characterized by low neutrophil counts, which is below 1.5 * 109. A normal neutrophil count ranges from 2.0 to 7.5 * 109. It is crucial to recognize this condition as it increases the risk of severe infections. Neutropaenia can be classified into three categories based on its severity: mild (1.0 – 1.5 * 109), moderate (0.5 – 1.0 * 109), and severe (< 0.5 * 109). There are several causes of neutropaenia, including viral infections such as HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, and hepatitis. Certain drugs like cytotoxics, carbimazole, and clozapine can also cause neutropaenia. Benign ethnic neutropaenia is common in people of black African and Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, but it requires no treatment. Haematological malignancies like myelodysplastic malignancies and aplastic anemia, as well as rheumatological conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis, can also cause neutropaenia. Severe sepsis and haemodialysis are other potential causes of neutropaenia. In summary, neutropaenia is a medical condition that can increase the risk of severe infections. It is important to recognize its severity and underlying causes to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 25 - If you sustain a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient suspected...

    Incorrect

    • If you sustain a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), what should be your first course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wash wound under running water, encouraging active bleeding

      Explanation:

      Immediate Actions to Take Following a Needlestick Injury: A Guide for Healthcare Workers

      Needlestick injuries are a common occupational hazard for healthcare workers. If you experience a needlestick injury, it is important to take immediate action to minimize the risk of infection. Here are the steps you should take:

      1. Wash the wound thoroughly under running water, while encouraging bleeding. This will help to flush out any pathogens that may be present.

      2. Determine the patient’s HIV and bloodborne disease status. If the patient is HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk, HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be offered as soon as possible.

      3. Begin Truvada and Kaletra PEP treatment if the patient is definitely HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk. PEP should be commenced within 72 hours of exposure for maximum effectiveness.

      4. Contact occupational health immediately to identify local protocols and receive guidance on next steps.

      5. Fill out a clinical incident form to help the hospital identify potential areas for improvement in employee safety.

      By following these steps, you can minimize the risk of infection and protect your health as a healthcare worker.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He reports feeling significantly fatigued, which is affecting his academic performance. On examination, he appears healthy and has tender cervical lymphadenopathy; his tonsils are enlarged but no exudate is present, and he has tender splenomegaly.
      Which of the following investigation findings is most likely to be associated with this condition?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate result from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised liver transaminases (aspartate transaminase and alanine aminotransferase)

      Explanation:

      The patient has raised liver transaminases, thrombocytosis, neutrophilia, raised antistreptolysin titres, and a reduced estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The most probable diagnosis is glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This infection is common in adolescents and presents with a prolonged sore throat, lethargy, and flu-like symptoms. Splenomegaly or hepatosplenomegaly, along with lymphadenopathy, are often observed. Liver function tests, especially the transaminases, are commonly elevated during active infection. Thrombocytopenia is commonly associated with glandular fever due to splenic involvement. Neutrophilia is less likely in this case than lymphocytosis, which is common with glandular fever. Antistreptolysin titres rise after a streptococcal infection, but glandular fever is a more likely diagnosis than streptococcal infection. Reduced eGFR associated with a sore throat should raise suspicion of dehydration or glomerulonephritis caused by a streptococcal infection, but neither of these diagnoses is as likely as glandular fever. The diagnostic investigation of choice for glandular fever is the Monospot test, which tests for heterophile antibodies to EBV.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - A patient with pyogenic meningitis has been admitted and the husband is worried...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with pyogenic meningitis has been admitted and the husband is worried about contracting the disease. What is the recommended prophylaxis in this situation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Meningitis: Recommended Drugs and Dosages

      Meningitis is a serious infection that affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment for meningitis, and prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended for close contacts of infected individuals. Here are the recommended drugs and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis:

      Ciprofloxacin: This antibiotic is now the preferred choice for prophylaxis in all age groups and in pregnancy. It is a single dose and readily available in pharmacies, and does not interact with oral contraceptives. It should be given to all close contacts of probable or confirmed meningococcal meningitis, with dosages ranging from 250 mg to 500 mg depending on age.

      Metronidazole: This drug has no role in the treatment of acute meningitis.

      Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic has good penetration into inflamed meninges and can be given via intramuscular or oral route. It can be used in monotherapy in adults under 60 years old, or in dual therapy with amoxicillin in older adults.

      Co-trimoxazole: This drug is an alternative to cefotaxime or ceftriaxone in older adults, and is also used in individuals with meningitis from Listeria monocytogenes infection.

      Vancomycin: This antibiotic is recommended in cases of penicillin resistance or suspected penicillin-resistant pneumococci, but should never be used in monotherapy due to doubts about its penetration into adult CSF.

      Chemoprophylaxis: Close contacts of infected individuals should receive prophylactic antibiotics to prevent nasopharyngeal carriage of the organism. Ciprofloxacin is the first-line choice, with dosages ranging from 10 mg/kg to 600 mg depending on age. Rifampicin can be given as an alternative for those unable to take ciprofloxacin.

      It is important to seek microbiology and public health advice if in doubt about the appropriate antibiotics and dosages for meningitis treatment and prophylaxis.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort over the past 3–4 days. She was prescribed amoxicillin two days ago and has developed a rash. She has lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsillitis. Her white cell count shows abnormal lymphocytosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Common Viral Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as the kissing disease, is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and adenopathy. It is primarily transmitted through intimate contact with body secretions, particularly oropharyngeal secretions. Pharyngitis is caused by the proliferation of infected B lymphocytes in the lymphatic tissue of the oropharynx. It is most common in young adults and can be mistaken for streptococcal pharyngitis.

      German measles, or rubella, is a communicable exanthematous disease that is generally benign. However, pregnant women who contract the disease in the early weeks of gestation can experience teratogenic effects. The exanthema of rubella consists of a rose-pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours. It typically fades by the end of the third day.

      Chickenpox is a childhood illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is characterized by a vesicular exanthem and is typically self-limited and mild.

      Herpes simplex viruses are host-adapted pathogens that cause a wide variety of disease states. HSV-1 is associated with orofacial disease, while HSV-2 is associated with genital disease. Oropharyngeal HSV-1 infection causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis more often than gingivostomatitis. Herpes labialis, or cold sores, is the most common manifestation of recurrent HSV-1 infection.

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is prevalent in developed countries, with at least 60% of the population having been exposed. It typically causes an asymptomatic infection or produces mild flu-like symptoms, with few clinical findings on physical examination. High-risk groups, such as fetuses whose mothers become infected during pregnancy or people with HIV, are more susceptible to severe complications.

      Overview of Common Viral Infections and Their Characteristics

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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been found nearby in a disoriented state.
      On examination, they have neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash on their arms. Their vital signs are stable except for fever and tachycardia. They score 13/15 on the Glasgow Coma Scale. An ambulance has been called to transfer them to the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action to perform while awaiting the ambulance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer a dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Suspected Bacterial Meningitis with Non-Blanching Rash

      When a patient presents with suspected bacterial meningitis and a non-blanching rash, it is crucial to take appropriate actions promptly. Administering a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin at the earliest opportunity is recommended, but this should not delay the transfer to the hospital. It is also important to notify the regional Public Health consultant about the suspected case.

      While administering paracetamol for fever and starting the patient on high-flow oxygen may be necessary in some cases, they would not take priority over the administration of parenteral benzylpenicillin. Additionally, an IV fluid bolus is not indicated unless the patient’s vital signs are unstable. By taking these appropriate actions, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and non-blanching rash.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. He is concerned about the possibility of contracting the disease. What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for individuals in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis now favors the use of oral ciprofloxacin over rifampicin.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 31 - The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood...

    Incorrect

    • The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood from a child who is known to have HIV. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure.

      For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used.

      For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine.

      For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given.

      For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

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  • Question 32 - You want to screen a 60-year-old patient for hepatitis B. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • You want to screen a 60-year-old patient for hepatitis B. What is the most appropriate test to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HBsAg

      Explanation:

      If the result of the anti-HBs test is positive, it means that the person is immune to hepatitis B either through vaccination or previous infection. On the other hand, a positive HBsAg test indicates that the person is currently infected with hepatitis B, either in its acute or chronic form.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 33 - A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.

      The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 34 - A 54-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of fatty liver disease presents at...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of fatty liver disease presents at the clinic. During a liver screen to determine the cause of his condition, his hepatitis B serology is tested and the results are as follows:
      - HBsAg: Negative
      - HBcAg: Negative
      - Anti-HBs IgG: Positive
      - Anti-HBc IgG: Positive

      What is his hepatitis B status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cleared previous infection

      Explanation:

      To determine a patient’s immune status for Hepatitis B, a systematic approach is necessary. First, antigenic results are examined to determine if the virus is present, followed by antibody results to assess the body’s response to the virus. In this case, negative results for both HBsAg and HBcAg indicate no active infection, while the presence of antibodies to both antigens suggests a previous infection that has been cleared, resulting in immunity.

      In acute infection, both HBsAg and HBcAg are positive, with a limited antibody response. Chronic infection is characterized by ongoing viral infection and an inadequate immune response, resulting in the virus not being cleared. Immunization exposes the immune system to purified viral protein, resulting in the production of anti-HBs antibodies and conferring some immunity.

      To distinguish between immunization and previous infection, the absence of anti-HBc antibodies indicates immunization, as there are no viral antigens present. If an individual has never been exposed to any Hepatitis B antigens, all serology tests would be negative.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

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  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache. She has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past three days and the headache started gradually yesterday. The headache is described as being all over and worsens when looking at bright light or bending her neck. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2º, pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 116/78 mmHg. There is neck stiffness present, but no focal neurological signs are observed. During a closer inspection, several petechiae are noticed on her torso. The patient has been cannulated and bloods, including cultures, have been taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Immediate administration of appropriate intravenous antibiotics is crucial for this patient diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. In light of modern PCR diagnostic techniques, there is no need to delay potentially life-saving treatment by conducting a lumbar puncture in suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 36 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter who...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter who is worried about his confusion after a recent chest infection. She mentions that he did not get better even after taking amoxicillin. During the examination, crackles are heard on the left side of his chest and his vital signs show a respiratory rate of 28/min, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, and heart rate of 110/min.

      What would be the suitable fluid therapy to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500ml stat

      Explanation:

      This individual displays several indicators of red flag sepsis, such as confusion, hypotension, and elevated respiratory rate. It is imperative to initiate the sepsis 6 protocol.
      According to the NICE guidelines for sepsis, when administering intravenous fluid resuscitation to patients aged 16 and above, it is recommended to use crystalloids containing sodium levels between 130-154 mmol/litre, with a 500 ml bolus administered in less than 15 minutes.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

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  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old man experiences watery diarrhea during his trip to Egypt. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man experiences watery diarrhea during his trip to Egypt. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is most commonly caused by E. coli.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 38 - You are asked to review an elderly nursing home resident who has generalised...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review an elderly nursing home resident who has generalised inflammation of his oropharynx and is finding it difficult to eat. His past history of note includes the use of a steroid inhaler for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination, there are areas of erythema and a number of white plaques accompanied by some white, curd-like material.
      Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oropharyngeal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Oral Lesions: Candidiasis, HIV Infection, Hairy Leukoplakia, Darier’s Disease, and Leukoedema

      Oral lesions can present in various forms and have different underlying causes. In the case of an elderly man with long-term use of a steroid inhaler for COPD, poor oral hygiene, and possibly poorly fitting prosthetics, the most likely diagnosis is oropharyngeal candidiasis. This yeast-like fungal infection can be treated with antifungal medication, applied to the oral mucosa and any removable oral prostheses, and soaking the latter in an antifungal denture-soaking solution.

      HIV infection can also cause oral lesions, primarily in patients with advanced disease. Candidiasis is a common opportunistic infection in these patients, but hairy leukoplakia, associated with Epstein-Barr virus, can also occur. Hairy leukoplakia presents as painless white lesions on the tongue or buccal mucosa, with a characteristic hairy appearance that cannot be scraped off.

      Darier’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes greasy hyperkeratotic papules in seborrhoeic regions, nail abnormalities, and mucous membrane changes. Mucosal lesions are found in approximately 15% of patients, appearing as white papules with a central depression, most commonly in the mouth.

      Leukoedema is a benign condition characterized by a blue, grey, or white appearance of the oral mucosa, with wrinkled, streaky lesions, mostly found on the inside of the cheeks. It is more common and pronounced in smokers.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of oral lesions includes candidiasis, HIV infection, hairy leukoplakia, Darier’s disease, and leukoedema. A thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
      Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options

      Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.

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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, fever, dry cough, headache, chest discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, fever, dry cough, headache, chest discomfort and worsening difficulty breathing. She works as a factory worker in a plant that produces air filters.
      Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause of this illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella species

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Between Possible Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of pathogens, making it important to identify the specific cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Legionella pneumophila is a common cause of community-acquired and nosocomial pneumonia in adults, often transmitted through contaminated water sources. Chlamydophila psittaci can cause pneumonia after exposure to infected birds, while Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections when skin or mucosal barriers are breached. Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically causes mild respiratory tract infections, while different groups of Streptococci can cause a range of infections including pneumonia. In this clinical scenario, the patient’s occupation and symptoms suggest an atypical infection, making Legionella pneumophila the most probable cause.

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  • Question 41 - A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits the clinic with complaints of exhaustion and purple skin lesions all over his body. During the examination, you observe multiple raised purple lesions on his trunk and arms. Additionally, you notice some smaller purple lesions in his mouth. He has recently initiated acyclovir treatment for herpes zoster infection. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The presence of raised purple lesions is a typical indication of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which may suggest that the patient has an underlying HIV infection. Given the high prevalence of HIV in Uganda and the recent occurrence of herpes zoster, it is possible that the patient’s immune system is compromised. Dermatofibromas, which are typically small and firm, would not be found in the mouth, while psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly lesions that do not appear on mucosal surfaces. A drug reaction is an unlikely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Although a haemangioma can present as a purple raised lesion, it is uncommon to find them in the mouth, and Kaposi’s sarcoma is a more likely diagnosis in this case.

      Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.

      Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.

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  • Question 42 - A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive teenager who recently returned from the tropics presents...

    Incorrect

    • A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive teenager who recently returned from the tropics presents with severe diarrhoea (up to 30 times per day).
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium species

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of diarrhoea in an HIV-positive patient

      Human cryptosporidiosis, caused by Cryptosporidium species, is a common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS patients, leading to prolonged and severe diarrhoea. Escherichia coli can cause urinary and enteric infections, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case. Staphylococcus aureus is a commensal bacterium that can cause various infections, but it is not suggested by this clinical scenario. Entamoeba histolytica, which causes amoebiasis, is more prevalent in developing countries and may cause dysentery and invasive extra-intestinal manifestations, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case. Salmonella species can be transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages and may cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, focal disease, or typhoid fever, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case, given the severity of diarrhoea and the patient’s HIV-positive status. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying cause of diarrhoea in this patient and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 43 - A 63-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward with a 4-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward with a 4-week history of fevers and lethargy. During the examination, you observe a few splinter haemorrhages in the fingernails and a loud systolic murmur at the apex. Your consultant advises you to obtain 3 sets of blood cultures and to schedule an echocardiogram. Microbiology contacts you later that day with the preliminary blood culture findings.
      What organism is the most probable cause of the growth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram positive cocci

      Explanation:

      Gram positive cocci are responsible for the majority of bacterial endocarditis cases. The most common culprits include Streptococcus viridans, Staphylococcus aureus (in individuals who use intravenous drugs or have prosthetic valves), and Staphylococcus epidermidis (in those with prosthetic valves). Other less common causes include Enterococcus, Streptococcus bovis, Candida, HACEK group, and Coxiella burnetii. Acute endocarditis is typically caused by Staphylococcus, while subacute cases are usually caused by Streptococcus species. Knowing the common underlying organisms is crucial for determining appropriate empirical antibiotic therapy. For native valve endocarditis, amoxicillin and gentamicin are recommended. Vancomycin and gentamicin are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis, penicillin allergy, or suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Vancomycin and meropenem are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis and risk factors for gram-negative infection. For prosthetic valve endocarditis, vancomycin, gentamicin, and rifampicin are recommended. Once blood culture results are available, antibiotic therapy can be adjusted to provide specific coverage. Treatment typically involves long courses (4-6 weeks) of intravenous antibiotic therapy.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

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  • Question 44 - A 5-day-old infant presents with congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and pulmonary artery stenosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old infant presents with congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and pulmonary artery stenosis. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby has been exposed to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The neonate is diagnosed with congenital rubella syndrome, which is characterized by sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease. The risk of fetal infection is highest if the mother contracts the virus during the first trimester of pregnancy. Antenatal cytomegalovirus infection can lead to cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose a physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Parvovirus B19 can cause hydrops fetalis and fetal death. Toxoplasmosis can result in intracranial calcification, hydrocephalus, and epilepsy in the affected child.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

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  • Question 45 - A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow vaginal discharge. Microscopy reveals the presence of 'intracellular Gram-negative diplococci'. The patient is in good health with a negative pregnancy test. What course of treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

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  • Question 46 - A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and tired, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history, but she admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in both lung bases. Her blood tests are as follows:

      - White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
      - Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
      - C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
      - Sodium: 125 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l

      What is the causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia

      Explanation:

      Legionella is characterized by typical symptoms such as flu-like illness, dry cough, confusion, and relative bradycardia. Blood tests may reveal hyponatremia.

      Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia often occur in communities with shared water supplies, as hinted at in the question with the reference to the recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia frequently affects both lungs, as seen in the question. Additionally, Legionella can cause abnormal liver function tests and hyponatremia, which can lead to confusion in some cases, although this is not mentioned in the question.

      The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV infection to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.

      Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium, which is commonly found in water tanks. It is not transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. Other features include relative bradycardia, hyponatraemia, and deranged liver function tests. Pleural effusion is seen in around 30% of patients.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease can be done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-ray features of the disease are non-specific but may include patchy consolidation with a mid-to-lower zone predominance.

      Compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease has distinct differences in symptoms and diagnostic methods. It is important to be aware of the potential for Legionnaire’s disease in cases where water tanks or air-conditioning systems may be involved, as early diagnosis and treatment can lead to better outcomes.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 47 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother who is concerned that he has had diarrhoea for three days. He has been experiencing 2–3 loose, watery stools every day. He has also vomited twice at the onset of the illness but not since.
      On examination, he is afebrile and well hydrated. His abdomen is soft and nontender. The family recently returned from a trip to Australia. While away, the patient was admitted to hospital for two days with a lower respiratory tract infection.
      Which of the patient’s features is most likely to indicate the need for a stool sample for culture and sensitivity?
      Select the SINGLE factor from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The recent hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for Stool Culture in a Child with Gastroenteritis

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. In most cases, it is caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection and is self-limiting. However, recent hospital admission or antibiotic treatment can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile toxin as the cause, making stool culture necessary. Additionally, patients who have recently traveled to certain countries or are under the age of five and attend nursery, pre-school, or school may require stool culture. If symptoms persist beyond seven days or if there is blood or mucus in the stool, stool samples should be taken. Vomiting is not a red-flag feature unless it leads to dehydration. Parents should be given safety-net advice on when to seek further medical attention if their child’s condition worsens.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from both the Mantoux skin test and interferon release gamma assay confirm the presence of latent TB. What treatment options are available for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid with pyridoxine for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis

      Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis.

      The first option is a combination of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for three months. This is recommended for people under the age of 35 who are concerned about the hepatotoxicity of the drugs. Before starting this treatment, a liver function test is conducted to assess the risk factors.

      The second option is a six-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) for people who are at risk of interactions with rifamycins. This includes individuals with HIV or those who have had a transplant. The risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positivity, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for latent tuberculosis depends on the individual’s clinical circumstances and risk factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 49 - A 42-year-old woman, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), presents to the Emergency Department with reducing vision in her right eye. Her last CD4 count, measured in clinic, was < 100 cells/mm3.
      Which is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

      Explanation:

      Eye Conditions in Immunocompromised Patients

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis, acute glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, molluscum contagiosum of eyelids, and uveitis are all potential eye conditions that can affect immunocompromised patients.

      CMV retinitis is a common cause of eye disease in patients with HIV, causing necrotising retinitis with visual loss. Fundoscopy demonstrates a characteristic ‘pizza pie’ picture, with flame-shaped haemorrhages and retinal infarction. Treatment involves local and/or systemic delivery of antiviral agents such as ganciclovir, valganciclovir, or foscarnet.

      Acute glaucoma is a medical emergency that presents with sudden onset of severe unilateral eye pain, vomiting, red-eye, and seeing lights distorted by haloes and decreasing vision. It is not associated with HIV/low CD4+ counts.

      Age-related macular degeneration is a chronic and progressive condition affecting older people, resulting in a gradual loss of vision, particularly of the central vision. It is not related to HIV and typically presents as a chronic condition.

      Molluscum contagiosum of eyelids is a viral skin infection that is more common in immunocompromised hosts. However, it tends to occur on the trunk, extremities, or abdomen, and involvement of the eyelid and buccal mucosa is uncommon.

      Uveitis presents with eye pain, photophobia, blurring vision with loss of peripheral vision in some patients, redness in the eye, and possibly floaters in the vision. It is associated with HLA-B27, autoimmune conditions such as Crohn’s disease, and infections such as toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, and Lyme disease. It is not associated with HIV, and pain and photophobia are normally very prominent symptoms.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 50 - A patient who has recently returned from a camping trip is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has recently returned from a camping trip is worried about having contracted Lyme disease. She has developed a rash and feels fatigued and achy. What is the most suitable test to investigate Lyme disease in a patient like her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood test for serology

      Explanation:

      When there is no history of erythema migrans, ELISA is the primary test used to investigate suspected cases of Lyme disease.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 51 - You are working in the sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male presents with...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male presents with dysuria and urethral discharge. He had unprotected sexual intercourse 3 weeks ago. You do a full sexual health screen. Three days later he returns to get his results; the initial test is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoea, sensitivities are not known.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 52 - A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine,...

    Incorrect

    • A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine, accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient known to have hepatitis B. What steps should she take to reduce her risk of contracting the virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give an accelerated course of the hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immune globulin

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history of cough and increasing shortness of breath over the past 48 hours. She also reports fever, headache, anorexia, and chills. Upon examination, she appears slightly pale and confused. Her vital signs reveal a pulse of 136/min, blood pressure of 96/64 mmHg, respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds in the left lower lung with some coarse crackles. Blood cultures are taken and the patient is cannulated. High flow oxygen is administered and a fluid challenge is ordered by the nurse. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s condition worsens, ITU may be consulted. However, before referring the patient, it is important to determine if she has already received basic sepsis care. Although studies have explored the use of steroids in sepsis, they are not presently recommended due to an increase in mortality.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

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  • Question 54 - A 65-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who continues to smoke...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who continues to smoke is housebound due to his disability.
      Which of the following immunisations should he receive on a yearly basis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Influenza A virus

      Explanation:

      Common Vaccinations and Their Administration Schedule

      Influenza, caused by three types of viruses, is a highly contagious respiratory tract infection. The influenza vaccination programme aims to protect those at risk of severe disease or complications. The World Health Organisation recommends the strains of influenza to include in the vaccine each year. Inactivated vaccines are available in the UK, containing two subtypes of influenza A and one of influenza B virus. The vaccine is recommended for children aged 6 months to 2 years in an at-risk group, those aged 18 years and over in an at-risk group, pregnant women, those aged 65 years and older, those in long-stay residential care homes, and carers.

      Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) is a bacterium that can cause serious infections, including meningitis. Vaccination against Hib is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.

      Clostridium tetani is a bacterium that causes tetanus, a serious disease that affects the nervous system. Vaccination against tetanus is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.

      Hepatitis B is a virus that can cause liver disease. Vaccination against hepatitis B is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause pneumonia, meningitis, and other serious infections. Pneumococcal vaccine is administered to children at 8, 16, and 18 weeks and to those at high risk due to long-term health conditions at 65 years of age or older (pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine – PPV).

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 55 - A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with pain and swelling in the left ear and face. On examination, he is febrile, the external auditory canal is red, tender and swollen with green purulent discharge. The left side of the face is swollen, with tenderness over the left temporal bone. He has left-sided facial nerve palsy involving the forehead.
      What is the primary micro-organism most likely responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Causes of Malignant Otitis Externa

      Malignant otitis externa is a serious infection that primarily affects patients with uncontrolled diabetes. The infection can spread to the temporal bone, causing osteomyelitis, cranial nerve palsies, and potentially central nervous system infection. The most common causative agent for this condition is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause various infections, including cellulitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.

      Staphylococcus aureus, a commensal bacterium, can cause skin and soft-tissue infections, including malignant otitis externa. The characteristic signs and symptoms presented by the patient are more typical of this condition than cellulitis.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia and meningitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.

      Listeria monocytogenes is a rare cause of infection that primarily affects newborns, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients. It is not consistent with the clinical scenario provided.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 56 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a cough, fever, diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since she returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. Her daughter is concerned because over the past 24 hours she has become more drowsy and febrile. She is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination, pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.

      Initial blood tests show the following:
      Hb 13.8 g/dl
      Platelets 300 * 109/l
      WBC 14.5 * 109/l
      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 89 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 11 µmol/l
      ALP 35 u/l
      ALT 62 u/l

      A chest x-ray shows patchy consolidation in the right lower zone with an associated pleural effusion.

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatremia may be detected through blood tests. A history of recent travel abroad and the presence of pleural effusion are also indicative of Legionella.

      Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium, which is commonly found in water tanks. It is not transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. Other features include relative bradycardia, hyponatraemia, and deranged liver function tests. Pleural effusion is seen in around 30% of patients.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease can be done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-ray features of the disease are non-specific but may include patchy consolidation with a mid-to-lower zone predominance.

      Compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease has distinct differences in symptoms and diagnostic methods. It is important to be aware of the potential for Legionnaire’s disease in cases where water tanks or air-conditioning systems may be involved, as early diagnosis and treatment can lead to better outcomes.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 57 - You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has...

    Incorrect

    • You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has been a rise in the number of children contracting hand, foot, and mouth disease and a plan is being developed to address this issue. What is the most efficient measure to decrease the occurrence of hand, foot, and mouth disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand hygiene

      Explanation:

      Hand hygiene is the most crucial step in addressing MRSA, although a comprehensive approach is necessary.

      Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 58 - A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at a nearby restaurant. What organism is the most probable cause of this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis can be inferred as a result of the short incubation period and intense vomiting.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

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  • Question 59 - A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history of bloody diarrhoea 10 times per day associated with colicky abdominal pain.

      Observations are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, pulse 90/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation 97% on air. The examination is unremarkable apart from diffuse abdominal tenderness.

      Stool analysis revealed Campylobacter jejuni.

      What is the first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe symptoms of Campylobacter infection such as bloody diarrhea and more than eight stools per day, treatment with clarithromycin may be necessary. While Campylobacter infection is typically self-limiting, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends antibiotics for severe cases or for immunocompromised patients. NICE also advises antibiotic treatment for severe symptoms or if symptoms persist for more than one week. Supportive treatment may be sufficient for mild symptoms in immunocompetent patients. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative to clarithromycin, but strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated. Metronidazole and oral vancomycin are not recommended for Campylobacter treatment, but are first-line options for Clostridium difficile.

      Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK

      Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.

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  • Question 60 - A 26-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of fevers, sore throat, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of fevers, sore throat, and cervical lymphadenopathy that had been going on for 8 days. A positive monospot test was obtained. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein bar virus (EBV) is usually a self-limiting condition that lasts for approximately 2 weeks in individuals with a healthy immune system. Treatment options such as aciclovir, penicillin V, clarithromycin, and valganciclovir are not effective for treating EBV.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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  • Question 61 - After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option...

    Incorrect

    • After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Antibodies and Antigens

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. To diagnose and manage the disease, healthcare providers rely on various serologic tests that detect specific antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here are some key markers and their significance:

      Anti-HBs antibodies: These antibodies are produced after a resolved infection or vaccination. They indicate immunity to hepatitis B.

      HBs antigen: This antigen is present in the blood during an acute infection. Its detection confirms the diagnosis of hepatitis B.

      Anti-HBe antibodies: These antibodies appear during recovery from acute hepatitis B or in inactive carriers. They suggest a lower risk of infectivity.

      Anti-HBc antibodies: These antibodies are present in both acute and chronic hepatitis B. Their detection helps distinguish between recent and past infections.

      HBe antigen: This antigen is a marker of high infectivity and viral replication. Its presence indicates a higher risk of transmission.

      Understanding these markers can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections more effectively. It can also help individuals understand their immune status and make informed decisions about vaccination and prevention.

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  • Question 62 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough of green sputum. He has a history of COPD and is an active smoker. Upon examination, he is wheezy bilaterally and saturating at 94% on room air. A chest X-ray shows no signs of consolidation. The following blood tests were obtained:
      CRP 26 mg/L (< 5)
      Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most likely causative organism for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus infuenzae

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae is the most frequent organism responsible for causing infective exacerbations of COPD, as evidenced by this man’s productive cough, increased shortness of breath, and wheezing.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 63 - A 28-year-old woman is seeking screening for sexually transmitted infections due to starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is seeking screening for sexually transmitted infections due to starting a new relationship. What is the most frequently diagnosed sexually transmitted infection in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 64 - A 50-year-old man with a persistent chest infection visits the clinic for evaluation....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a persistent chest infection visits the clinic for evaluation. Despite two rounds of antibiotics, there has been no significant improvement. The medical team decides to conduct a chest x-ray and screening blood tests. When analyzing the blood tests, which of the following markers is typically not elevated in response to an acute infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      A decrease in albumin levels is frequently observed after an acute phase response.

      Acute phase proteins are a group of proteins that are produced by the liver in response to inflammation or infection. These proteins are involved in various physiological processes such as immune response, blood clotting, and iron metabolism. Examples of acute phase proteins include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, caeruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.

      During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins. These proteins include albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. The levels of acute phase proteins, particularly CRP, are commonly measured in acutely unwell patients. Elevated levels of CRP are indicative of inflammation or infection, and levels greater than 150 at 48 hours post-surgery suggest the development of complications.

      It is important to note that while acute phase proteins play a significant role in humans, some of these proteins, such as serum amyloid P component, have a more significant role in other mammals like mice. Overall, the production of acute phase proteins is a crucial part of the body’s response to inflammation or infection, and monitoring their levels can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 65 - A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and his sputum test is positive for acid-fast bacilli. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and amlodipine. What is the recommended initial medication combination for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.

      In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.

      While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.

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  • Question 66 - A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center before applying to study medicine. She has received a full schedule of childhood vaccinations. Her primary complaints are difficulty swallowing, a sore throat, malaise, and a fever. Upon examination, she has 5-10 gray ulcers on her buccal mucosa. Additionally, she has a vesicular rash on her hands and feet.
      What is the most probable cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease

      Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a viral illness caused by Coxsackie virus A type 16. It presents as a vesicular eruption in the mouth and can also involve the hands, feet, buttocks, and/or genitalia. Macular lesions on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and/or hard palate rapidly progress to vesicles that erode and become surrounded by an erythematous halo. Skin lesions, which present as tender macules or vesicles on an erythematous base, develop in approximately 75% of patients. Treatment is supportive, and there is no antiviral agent specific for the aetiological agents. Adequate fluid intake, preferably with cold drinks, is essential to prevent dehydration.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema multiforme, herpes simplex infection, gonorrhoea, and pemphigus erythematosus. However, the clinical presentation and causative agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease distinguish it from these other conditions.

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  • Question 67 - As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old intravenous drug user who complains of pyrexia and malaise. Upon examination, the patient appears cachectic, pale, and is coughing. A soft murmur is detected, and mild erythematous macular lesions are observed on both palms. Although the patient is experiencing general aches, there is no specific tenderness reported. Can you identify the probable diagnosis and explain the significance of the lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Janeway lesions

      Explanation:

      Janeway lesions are painless, red, and bloody lesions that appear on the palms and soles. They are typically associated with infective endocarditis.

      Based on the patient’s history of intravenous drug use, fever, and heart murmur, it is likely that he has infective endocarditis. Both janeway lesions (caused by septic emboli) and osler nodes (caused by immune complex deposition) can be present in endocarditis. However, in this case, the lesions are more likely to be janeway lesions as they are not painful.

      Roth spots are retinal hemorrhages that can also be seen in endocarditis, but they would be detected during a fundoscopy exam.

      If the patient had meningitis, the rash would not be limited to the palms and would not disappear when pressed.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old woman started treatment for tuberculosis infection 3 months ago and now...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman started treatment for tuberculosis infection 3 months ago and now complains of a burning sensation at the base of her feet. Which medication could be responsible for this new symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid treatment may lead to a deficiency of vitamin B6, which can result in peripheral neuropathy. This is a well-known side effect of TB medications that is often tested in medical school exams. The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of peripheral neuropathy caused by a lack of vitamin B6 due to Isoniazid therapy. Typically, pyridoxine hydrochloride is prescribed concurrently with Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy.

      The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body

      Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.

      One of the primary causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is a medication used to treat tuberculosis. When the body lacks vitamin B6, it can lead to peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord. It can also cause sideroblastic anemia, which is a type of anemia that affects the production of red blood cells.

      Overall, vitamin B6 plays a crucial role in the body, and its deficiency can have severe consequences. It is essential to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of this vitamin through a balanced diet or supplements.

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  • Question 69 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of vaginal discharge. She describes the discharge as having a fishy smell and a white colour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms and she denies pregnancy. She is sexually active with one regular partner of three years and has the Mirena coil in situ.
      On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. The bimanual examination is unremarkable with no adnexal tenderness elicited. Her vaginal pH is 5.
      What is the next best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal swab for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis and Urinary Tract Infections

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is based on Amsel’s criteria, which includes thin, white-colored vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy. A vaginal swab for microscopy and culture is needed to confirm the diagnosis, especially if the patient meets two of the four criteria.

      On the other hand, urine microscopy and culture are used to diagnose urinary tract infections, which share some symptoms with sexually transmitted infections. However, the presence of vaginal discharge makes a sexually transmitted infection more likely, and alternative investigations are more specific.

      Blood culture and hysteroscopy and culture are not indicated in the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Blood culture is not usually necessary, while hysteroscopy and biopsy are invasive procedures used to diagnose endometrial disorders.

      Lastly, nucleic acid amplification testing is used to diagnose chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Although chlamydia may cause symptoms similar to bacterial vaginosis, the presence of increased vaginal pH makes bacterial vaginosis more likely.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 70 - A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.

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  • Question 71 - Which one of the following is true regarding anti-tuberculous therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding anti-tuberculous therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual acuity should be checked before starting ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin has a strong ability to induce liver enzymes. During the initial two months of treatment, Pyrazinamide should be administered, but it may cause hepatitis and gout as side effects. Isoniazid may cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.

      In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.

      While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 72 - A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh....

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh. He also complains of joint discomfort and fatigue. Lyme disease is suspected.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test to confirm this diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate laboratory test from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Borrelia burgdorferi titre

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Lyme Disease: Understanding the Results

      Lyme disease is a common illness caused by the spirochaete B. burgdorferi, transmitted to humans via tick bites. Serologic testing is the most frequently used diagnostic tool, but false positives and negatives are common. The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the first step, followed by a western blot if necessary. However, serologic results cannot distinguish active from inactive disease. Antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factor test results are negative in B. burgdorferi infection. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated but is not specific to detect infection. Culture of joint fluids can rule out gout and pseudogout, but detection of B. burgdorferi DNA in synovial fluid is not reliable. Blood cultures are impractical. Understanding the limitations of these tests is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of Lyme disease.

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  • Question 73 - Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the vaccine used to routinely immunise adults against influenza is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine

      Explanation:

      Influenza Vaccination: Who Should Get It and What to Expect

      Seasonal influenza remains a significant health concern in the UK, with the flu season typically starting in November. To prevent the spread of the virus, it is recommended that individuals receive the influenza vaccine between September and early November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B causing the majority of clinical disease.

      Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013. The children’s vaccine is given intranasally, with the first dose administered at 2-3 years and subsequent doses given annually. It is a live vaccine and is more effective than the injectable vaccine.

      Adults and at-risk groups are also recommended to receive the influenza vaccine annually. This includes individuals over 65 years old, those with chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic kidney or liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, pregnant women, and those with a body mass index of 40 kg/m² or higher. Health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person may also be eligible for the vaccine.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine and cannot cause influenza. It is around 75% effective in adults, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels. The vaccine should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light. Contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. While a minority of patients may experience fever and malaise after receiving the vaccine, it is generally well-tolerated.

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  • Question 74 - A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day-old infant delivered via caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation presents with limb hypoplasia, rudimentary digits, and microcephaly. What is the probable prenatal infection that the baby was exposed to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, if a woman shows signs of primary infection with varicella zoster, it is considered a classical indication. The risk to the fetus is highest before 20 weeks of gestation and can lead to skin scarring, limb underdevelopment, microcephaly, and eye defects. If there is any uncertainty about a pregnant woman’s history of chickenpox, she should be tested for varicella antibodies and given varicella zoster immunoglobulins if she is not immune. Cytomegalovirus infection during pregnancy can result in cerebral calcification, microcephaly, and sensorineural deafness. HIV does not pose any physical risk to the developing fetus, but there is a risk of perinatal transmission. Rubella infections during pregnancy are linked to deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac complications.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 75 - An epidemic of diarrhoea and vomiting has broken out on one of the...

    Incorrect

    • An epidemic of diarrhoea and vomiting has broken out on one of the elderly care wards. The catering suppliers assure you that their food is unlikely to be responsible because they follow the strictest hygiene procedures. A total of 15 elderly patients on the ward have become unwell with a sudden onset of diarrhoea and vomiting. Those infected earlier have recovered with rehydration therapy after about 48 hours. Examination of faeces by electron microscopy has revealed circular virus particles with radiating spokes.
      Which virus is most likely to be responsible for this outbreak?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Common Viruses that Cause Gastroenteritis

      Gastroenteritis is a self-limiting illness caused by several viruses, including rotavirus, enteric adenovirus, small round-structured virus (SRSV), norovirus, and astrovirus. Among these, rotavirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 years of age, while norovirus affects people of all ages. Rotavirus causes infant deaths worldwide, but acquired immunity develops after one episode. Norovirus is usually transmitted through contaminated food or water, while adenovirus is endemic throughout the year and commonly affects children in daycare settings. SRSV is another name for norovirus, and astrovirus is associated with contaminated food and water. Symptoms of gastroenteritis include anorexia, low-grade fever, vomiting, and watery diarrhea, but most cases do not require medication and can be managed with supportive treatment. Death from dehydration remains common in developing countries.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 76 - A child is admitted for assessment on the Infectious Diseases Ward and is...

    Incorrect

    • A child is admitted for assessment on the Infectious Diseases Ward and is identified to have a notifiable disease. The nurses suggest that you should inform the Consultant in Communicable Disease Control (CCDC).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis (recognised as a notifiable disease)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Notifiable Diseases in England

      In England, Public Health England is responsible for detecting possible outbreaks of disease and epidemics as quickly as possible. The accuracy of diagnosis is not the primary concern, and since 1968, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is all that is required. Malaria, caused by various species of Plasmodium, is a notifiable disease. However, Mycoplasma pneumonia, HIV, necrotising fasciitis, and acute rheumatic fever are not notifiable diseases in England.

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  • Question 77 - A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology ward with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology ward with a 4-day history of profuse, foul-smelling diarrhoea. Stool cultures are taken and reveal a positive Clostridium difficile toxin. She is treated with oral vancomycin for 10 days and discharged home. However, she returns to the hospital 4 days later with ongoing diarrhoea. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.2ºC, heart rate of 99 beats/min, and blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg. Her abdomen is tender but soft with no guarding. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If the initial treatment with vancomycin fails to treat Clostridioides difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening. In such cases, other treatment options should be considered. Faecal transplant is not typically used until after second and third-line treatments have been attempted. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole is not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as cephalosporins can increase the risk of infection. Intravenous vancomycin is also not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as it is not as effective as oral vancomycin.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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  • Question 78 - A 25-year-old hiker comes to you with complaints of fever, joint pain, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old hiker comes to you with complaints of fever, joint pain, and a red rash after being bitten by a tick during a recent hike. Upon examination, you find that his neurological and cardiovascular functions are normal. You suspect that he may have contracted Lyme disease and have ordered serology for Borrelia burgdorferi. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 day course of doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for early Lyme disease is a 14-21 day regimen of oral doxycycline. For non-disseminated Lyme disease, the first line treatment is a 14-day course of oral doxycycline, making option 2 the correct answer. Amoxicillin may be used if doxycycline is contraindicated, such as during pregnancy. Ceftriaxone is reserved for disseminated disease. Treatment should be initiated based on clinical suspicion, as serology may take several weeks to become positive.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

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  • Question 79 - A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her legs. Her CD4 count is 96 cells/mm3 (normal range: > 600 mm3) and her viral load measures greater than 500 000 copies/ml.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Raised Nodular Lesion: Common Skin Conditions in HIV-1 Patients

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a prevalent tumour in HIV-1-positive individuals and a leading cause of death in these patients. It is an AIDS-defining illness in 15% of patients and commonly occurs with a CD4 count of fewer than 200 cells/mm3. Other common tumours in HIV-1 include non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and those caused by human papillomavirus. Basal cell carcinoma, the most common non-melanoma skin cancer, typically presents with a single, shiny, pearlised nodule and may ulcerate, but does not match the description in this scenario. Cryoglobulinaemia, a condition associated with hepatitis C infection, causes a vasculitic rash and does not match this scenario’s description. Fixed drug eruption describes the development of one or more annular or oval erythematous plaques resulting from systemic exposure to a drug and does not tend to cause raised nodular lesions. Melanoma is typically black/darkly pigmented and usually a single lesion, therefore it does not match the description in this scenario.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 80 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody stool and pain during defecation. She denies any recent travel and has not experienced any vomiting episodes.

      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differential Diagnosis

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common cause of morbidity worldwide. When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of an STI, it is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis. Here are some common STIs and their clinical presentations:

      Gonorrhoea: This is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A diagnosis can be made by identifying typical Gram-negative intracellular diplococci after a Gram stain.

      Crohn’s disease: This is an inflammatory bowel disease that presents with prolonged diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and weight loss. It is not consistent with a typical STI presentation.

      Candidiasis: This is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida. It is associated with balanitis, presenting with penile pruritus and whitish patches on the penis.

      Salmonella infection: This is often transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages. Symptoms include a severe non-specific febrile illness, which can be confused with typhoid fever. There is nothing in this clinical scenario to suggest Salmonella infection.

      Chancroid: This is a bacterial STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, a thorough differential diagnosis is important when evaluating patients with symptoms suggestive of an STI.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 81 - A 20-year-old male returns from Ghana and presents with a fever of 40°C....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male returns from Ghana and presents with a fever of 40°C. He reports having bloody stools prior to this. Upon examination, he displays abdominal distension, hepatosplenomegaly, and rose spots on his abdomen. Unfortunately, he passes away before receiving empirical treatment due to bowel perforation, leading to severe sepsis. What is the causative organism responsible for this type of pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi

      Explanation:

      Infections caused by Salmonella typhi can result in the development of rose spots on the abdomen. While these spots are also associated with C.psittaci infections, they are more commonly seen in cases of typhoid fever. Giardiasis typically does not cause such severe and sudden symptoms, while syphilis is characterized by the presence of painless chancres. Staphylococcus aureus infections, on the other hand, typically result in rapid onset of symptoms, including violent vomiting.

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 82 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of abdominal cramps and watery diarrhoea. Her symptoms started two days after she ate a salad from a restaurant.
      Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter jejuni is a prevalent cause of bacterial food poisoning in the UK, typically transmitted through contaminated food or drink. Symptoms usually appear 2-5 days after exposure and may include abdominal cramps, diarrhea (which may or may not be bloody), nausea, vomiting, and fever. While symptoms are usually mild and self-limiting, severe cases or immunocompromised patients may require antibiotic treatment. Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens are less likely causes of food poisoning due to their short incubation periods and milder symptoms. Rotavirus is a common cause of viral gastroenteritis in children, but adults are rarely affected due to immunity. Staphylococcus aureus can also cause food poisoning, with symptoms appearing 2-6 hours after ingestion and including nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 83 - A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of dysuria and lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of dysuria and lower abdominal pain for the past three days. She has also noticed an unusual vaginal discharge since yesterday. She has been in a committed relationship for the past year and is sexually active. The urine dipstick is normal and her pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most suitable investigation to be performed next, given the most probable diagnosis?
      Choose the SINGLE most appropriate investigation from the options below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Sexually Transmitted Infection in Women

      When a woman presents with lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and vaginal discharge, it is important to consider the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection (STI), particularly if she is under 25 years old, has had a new sexual partner or multiple partners in the past year, or has a history of STIs. A high vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is the investigation of choice in women suspected of having an STI, such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea. If the NAAT is positive for gonorrhoea, swabs are collected for culture to test for antibiotic susceptibility. Blood tests for inflammatory markers may be useful if an acute abdomen is suspected. HIV serology is not the next investigation in this case, but those diagnosed with STIs are offered screening for HIV. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis may be done if a complicated pelvic inflammatory disease is suspected, but it is unlikely to be helpful in this case. Urine culture would not be useful in the absence of urinary symptoms.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 84 - Which one of the following is not a notifiable disease in the United...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a notifiable disease in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      Notifying authorities about HIV is not required.

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. The Proper Officer at the team will then inform the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, legionnaires disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK, and in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases. The purpose of notifiable diseases is to monitor and control the spread of infectious diseases in the population. By requiring healthcare professionals to report cases, public health officials can track outbreaks and take appropriate measures to prevent further transmission.

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  • Question 85 - A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB)...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB) for himself and his two children. His wife has recently been diagnosed with active TB and started on treatment following release from hospital. He and the children are all completely asymptomatic.
      Which of the following screening options would be appropriate for the family?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mantoux test

      Explanation:

      Screening and Diagnosis of Tuberculosis: Methods and Recommendations

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that can be fatal if left untreated. Screening and diagnosis of TB are crucial for early detection and treatment. In this article, we will discuss the recommended methods and guidelines for screening and diagnosis of TB.

      Mantoux Test
      The Mantoux test is a recommended screening method for latent TB in at-risk groups, such as close contacts of patients with active pulmonary or laryngeal TB, patients with human immunodeficiency virus, or immigrants from high-risk countries. The test involves injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing a reaction 2-3 days later. A positive result is indicated by an induration of greater than 6 mm at the injection site. Further investigations are warranted to diagnose or exclude active TB infection.

      Chest X-Ray
      Screening for latent TB is advised for all household members and close contacts of patients diagnosed with active pulmonary TB. If screening is positive, investigations for active TB are indicated, which would include a chest X-ray. Typical features of pulmonary TB on an X-ray include a cavitating lesion, upper-lobe parenchymal infiltrates, pleural effusion, or mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy.

      Heaf Test
      The Heaf test was previously used to diagnose latent TB but has since been replaced by the Mantoux test. Both tests involve injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing for a reaction. The Heaf test was performed using a Heaf gun, which had six needles in a circular formation. The more severe the reaction, the more likely it is that the patient has an active infection, but previous BCG vaccine exposure can also give a reaction.

      Screening and Diagnosis Recommendations
      According to NICE guidance, close contacts of patients with active pulmonary TB should be screened for latent TB infection with a Mantoux test. Three sputum samples (including an early morning sample) for TB microscopy and culture are indicated to diagnose active pulmonary TB infection. This investigation is not indicated for screening for latent TB but should be performed if latent screening tests are positive.

      In conclusion, early detection and treatment of TB are crucial for preventing the spread of the disease and improving patient outcomes. The recommended screening and diagnosis methods should be followed to ensure accurate and timely detection of TB.

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  • Question 86 - A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive swelling of the left side of her face, which began with an itchy scab on her left cheek 24 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, and she is unable to open her left eye because of the swelling.
      Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Skin Infections: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Erysipelas, a bacterial skin infection, is characterized by a tender, intensely erythematous, indurated plaque with a sharply demarcated border. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which is often sourced from the host’s nasopharynx. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, chills, and high fever often precede the onset of skin lesions. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause cellulitis, but the skin lesion described in erysipelas is more consistent with this condition. Herpes simplex viruses cause a wide variety of disease states, including oropharyngeal infections and cold sores. Meningococcaemia, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, presents with a characteristic petechial skin rash on the trunk and legs. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these bacterial skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 87 - A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He engages in sexual activity with men and practices unprotected anal intercourse as both the insertive and receptive partner. He has never undergone any HIV testing and desires a prompt result. What is the most suitable test to request for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody test

      Explanation:

      The current standard for HIV diagnosis and screening involves a combination of p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests. This is because the HIV antibody may not be detectable until 4-6 weeks after infection, while the p24 antigen can show up as early as 1 week after infection. By using both tests, a more accurate assessment of infectious status can be made, allowing for discussions about pre-exposure prophylaxis and safe sexual practices. HIV viral load levels are not used for diagnosis, but can be helpful in assessing treatment efficacy after diagnosis has been confirmed. It is important to note that viral load testing should not be used alone, but rather in conjunction with the antibody and antigen tests.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

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  • Question 88 - A 28-year-old female visited her doctor complaining of a 3-week history of excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female visited her doctor complaining of a 3-week history of excessive malodorous vaginal discharge. Microscopy revealed the presence of clue cells, and she was diagnosed with Gardnerella vaginalis-induced bacterial vaginosis.
      What would be the appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Common Antibiotics and Antifungals: Uses and Dosages

      Metronidazole, Azithromycin, Co-amoxiclav, Fluconazole, and Nystatin are common antibiotics and antifungals used to treat various infections. Metronidazole is recommended for bacterial vaginosis and can be taken orally or applied topically. Azithromycin is used for Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and chancroid. Co-amoxiclav is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used for respiratory and urinary tract infections, among others. Fluconazole is an oral antifungal used for severe oral and vaginal candidiasis. Nystatin is an antifungal used for oral candidiasis. Dosages and treatment durations vary depending on the specific infection being treated.

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  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old farm worker is admitted to hospital with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old farm worker is admitted to hospital with a 5-day history of headache, fever, severe myalgia and a petechial rash. He is jaundiced, febrile, has tachycardia and has not passed urine for over 14 hours. His urea level is raised and liver function tests indicate hepatocellular damage.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weil’s disease

      Explanation:

      Comparing Zoonotic Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Weil’s Disease, Brucellosis, Lyme Disease, Orf, and Rat-bite Fever are all zoonotic infections that can be transmitted from animals to humans. However, each infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics.

      Weil’s Disease is a severe form of leptospirosis caused by Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae. It is transmitted via direct or indirect contact with animals, especially rodents. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, severe headache, petechial or purpuric rashes, epistaxis, jaundice, renal failure, meningism, and multiorgan failure.

      Brucellosis is caused by the bacterial genus Brucella and is transmitted from animals to humans by ingestion of infected food products, direct contact with an infected animal, or inhalation of aerosols. Symptoms include fever, myalgia, weight loss, coughing, vomiting, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Males may develop epididymo-orchitis.

      Lyme Disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans via tick bites from infected ticks. Symptoms include isolated erythema migrans, the characteristic skin rash which has the appearance of a ‘bull’s eye’ and a febrile illness. Untreated patients may go on to develop cardiac, neurological or rheumatological symptoms months after the initial bite.

      Orf is a zoonotic mucocutaneous lesion caused by a pox virus and is most commonly seen in workers who handle sheep. Symptoms include firm red papules that develop, enlarge, and become painful before spontaneously resolving. Systemic illness is rare with orf.

      Rat-bite Fever is an acute, febrile illness caused by bacteria transmitted by rodents. Symptoms include fever, a rash, and polyarthritis. The rash is usually widespread and may be maculopapular, petechial, or purpuric.

      In summary, each zoonotic infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics, making it important to accurately diagnose and treat each infection accordingly.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 90 - A 56-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of bloody diarrhoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of bloody diarrhoea, accompanied by fever and abdominal pain for the past week. She is on methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis, which is usually well-controlled. Upon testing her stool sample, Campylobacter jejuni is detected. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluids + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK

      Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.

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  • Question 91 - Before his initial occupational health visit, the clinic physician reviews the results of...

    Incorrect

    • Before his initial occupational health visit, the clinic physician reviews the results of a blood test taken by a 23-year-old medical student for hepatitis B serology.
      What is the significance of the following blood test results?
      - Positive anti-HBc IgG
      - Negative anti-HBc IgM
      - Negative anti-HBs
      - Positive HBsAg

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic infection with hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      If a person has a positive anti-HBc IgG, negative anti-HBc IgM, and negative anti-HBc in the presence of HBsAg, it indicates that they have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In acute hepatitis B infection, HBsAg is usually the first positive marker, and if it remains positive for over 6 months, the patient has a chronic hepatitis B infection. The presence of HBsAg in this patient indicates either acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B. In response to infection, the body produces antibodies to the hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc), which remain indefinitely. In acute infection, IgM antibodies are produced, which are gradually replaced with IgG antibodies. This patient has negative anti-HBc IgM and positive anti-HBc IgG, indicating no acute infection. The absence of anti-HBs confirms chronic infection. In acute infection, anti-HBc IgM would also be positive, indicating exposure to the virus within the last 6 months. Over time, this is replaced with anti-HBc IgG, indicating resolved or chronic infection. Immunity following previous infection would be positive for anti-HBc IgG and anti-HBs, while previous vaccination would show positive anti-HBs only.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

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  • Question 92 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth ulcers. He had a painless penile ulcer two months ago. What is the most probable causative organism for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this individual suggest the presence of secondary syphilis.

      Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.

      During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.

      The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.

      In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.

      Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

      Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.

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  • Question 93 - A 23-year-old female with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the emergency department with a fever and productive cough. Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a pulse rate of 121 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation of 93% on air. Crackles are heard at the base of the left lung and wheezing is present throughout. A chest x-ray reveals a patchy opacity at the left base with minor blunting of the left costophrenic angle, enlarged airways in both lung fields, and fluid levels. Which organism is most likely responsible for this patient's clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant cause of lower respiratory tract infections (LRTI) in patients with cystic fibrosis. These patients develop bronchiectasis early in life, leading to frequent hospitalizations due to LRTI. Bronchiectasis causes sputum accumulation in the larger airways, leading to bacterial and fungal colonization. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common bacteria found in these patients, and should be considered when providing empirical treatment. If the patient is stable, antibiotic sensitivities should be obtained from a culture sample before starting treatment. However, an anti-pseudomonal agent such as piperacillin with tazobactam or ciprofloxacin should be used as part of empirical treatment for sepsis in cystic fibrosis patients. Staphylococcus aureus is less common in cystic fibrosis patients and is more associated with pre-existing influenza infection. Haemophilus pneumoniae is also an important pathogen in cystic fibrosis, but not as common as Pseudomonas. Haemophilus is the most common pathogen in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Legionella is more likely to cause infections in cystic fibrosis patients than in the general population, but is still less common than Pseudomonas. Klebsiella infection is rare and is usually associated with malnourished alcoholics rather than cystic fibrosis.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections in Humans

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the most common infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa include chest infections, skin infections (such as burns and wound infections), otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.

      In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. It produces both an endotoxin and exotoxin A, which can cause fever, shock, and inhibit protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.

      Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a significant pathogen that can cause a range of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins and resist antibiotics makes it a challenging organism to treat. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa promptly and appropriately.

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  • Question 94 - A 45-year-old construction worker complains of headache, fever and muscle pains. Initially, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old construction worker complains of headache, fever and muscle pains. Initially, he thought it was just a common cold but his symptoms have worsened over the past week. He also reports feeling nauseous and having decreased urine output. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.2ºC, pulse is 102 / min and his chest is clear. There are subconjunctival haemorrhages present but no signs of jaundice. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Flu-Like Symptoms

      Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the spirochaete Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in sewage, farming, veterinary, or abattoir settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.

      Leptospirosis is a tropical disease that presents with flu-like symptoms and is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in certain settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.

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  • Question 95 - An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP)...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain

      A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.

      Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.

      Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.

      Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 96 - A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches on...

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    • A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches on his mouth and legs. During examination, his doctor observes violaceous, purple papular lesions on his calves and feet, leading to a suspicion of Kaposi's sarcoma. What is the cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 8

      Explanation:

      HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8) is the cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is commonly found in HIV patients. Parvovirus B19 causes fifths disease or slapped cheek syndrome in children and can also lead to foetal hydrops. The human papilloma virus is linked to genital warts and cervical cancer. Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) and is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, gastric cancer, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

      Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.

      Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 97 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history of a change in her vaginal discharge. She says it has a thin and white consistency with a fishy odour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms. She is sexually active with one regular partner and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill regularly.
      On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. Bimanual examination is unremarkable, with no adnexal tenderness elicited.
      Microscopic examination reveals the presence of clue cells.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE likely diagnosis from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differentiating Bacterial Vaginosis from Other Common STIs

      Bacterial vaginosis is a non-sexually transmitted infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. It is characterized by a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge and a raised vaginal pH due to reduced lactobacilli. Clue cells on microscopy aid in diagnosis.

      Chlamydia is the most contagious sexually transmitted infection, but the absence of clue cells makes it an unlikely diagnosis. Gonorrhoea, the second most common STI, presents with urethral or vaginal discharge and dysuria, but does not involve clue cells.

      Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, has three stages of infection, but the primary and secondary stages involve symptoms not present in this patient. Trichomoniasis, caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, presents with an offensive discharge, raised vaginal pH, and a strawberry cervix, but the presence of clue cells makes it an unlikely diagnosis.

      It is important to differentiate between these common STIs and bacterial vaginosis to ensure appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 98 - A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test vaginal pH

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:

      1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.

      2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.

      3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.

      4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.

      5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.

      In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.

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  • Question 99 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of malaise and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of malaise and diarrhoea. She reports feeling shivery and achy for the past 3 days and has had 4 watery stools in the past 24 hours. The patient has a history of breast cancer and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. Her last dose of doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide was administered 10 days ago. She has no known allergies and takes no other medications. On examination, her heart rate is 103/min, respiratory rate is 20/min with saturations of 100% in room air, blood pressure is 100/79 mmHg, and temperature is 39.1ºC.

      What is the initial management approach for this patient while awaiting the results of her blood culture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Piperacillin with tazobactam (tazocin)

      Explanation:

      The recommended empirical antibiotic for managing neutropenic sepsis is Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin). This is because the patient is displaying symptoms such as malaise, diarrhoea, flu-like aching, mild tachycardia, and a temperature >38ºC, and has a history of chemotherapy within the past 7-14 days. As the patient has no allergies, Tazocin should be administered until blood cultures show a specific sensitivity. Amoxicillin is not effective in treating neutropenic sepsis as it is not broad-spectrum enough. Meropenem is only indicated in patients with previous or suspected ESBL, acute leukaemia, or allogeneic stem cell transplants, and is not recommended as first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. Teicoplanin is recommended for patients with penicillin or beta-lactam allergies and evidence of neutropenic sepsis, but should be used in combination with another non-penicillin antibiotic as per local guidelines. Vancomycin is an alternative for penicillin-allergic patients, and should be administered with gentamicin, ciprofloxacin, or amikacin depending on local guidelines and the severity of the patient’s presentation.

      Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy

      Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.

      To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.

      According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.

      If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.

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  • Question 100 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with a 1-week history of lower abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia. She has also noticed a creamy foul-smelling vaginal discharge. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medications.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.1 °C. The remainder of her observations are within normal limits. There is palpable lower abdominal tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bimanual examination elicits bilateral adnexal tenderness. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the causative organism?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that can cause deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal and adnexal tenderness. The most common cause of PID is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be diagnosed through nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT). This involves taking a urine sample and a swab from the vagina or cervix to test for the organism. While a blood culture may be considered for a febrile patient, it is not routinely used for diagnosing C. trachomatis. Vaginal microscopy and culture used to be the preferred method for diagnosis, but NAAT is now recommended. Testing vaginal pH is commonly used for vaginal infections, but is not useful for PID. Urine microscopy and culture is used for UTIs, but the presence of vaginal discharge and deep dyspareunia suggests PID instead.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 101 - A 42-year-old man was seen by his General Practitioner and diagnosed with community-acquired...

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    • A 42-year-old man was seen by his General Practitioner and diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia. He has completed a 7-day course of antibiotics but continues to have a fever and productive cough. He is not confused, and his observations are all normal apart from a fever of 39 °C. His chest X-ray has signs of atypical pneumonia. He has no drug allergies.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Different Types of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia can be caused by various types of bacteria and viruses, and different antibiotics are used to treat them. Atypical pneumonia, caused by organisms such as chlamydia pneumoniae and mycoplasma pneumoniae, does not respond to amoxicillin and requires a 10-14 day course of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin. On the other hand, severe hospital-acquired infections with multidrug-resistant Gram-negative bacteria are treated with aminoglycoside antibiotics like amikacin. Amoxicillin is recommended as first-line treatment for mild community-acquired pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and other bacteria, but it is not effective against atypical pneumonia. Imipenem, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, is used for a range of bacterial infections but not for atypical pneumonia. Cefuroxime, a second-generation cephalosporin antibiotic, is effective against certain bacteria but not indicated for atypical pneumonia. Knowing which antibiotics to use for different types of pneumonia is crucial for effective treatment.

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      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 102 - A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent genital lesion. The patient reports experiencing severe pain and first noticed the lesion one week ago. He admits to engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners within the past three months. Upon examination, a deep ulcer with a ragged border is observed on the penis shaft, accompanied by tenderness and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      The man’s ulcer appears to be caused by chancroid, which is known for causing deep and painful genital ulcers accompanied by inguinal lymphadenopathy. Gonorrhoea is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with penile discharge and no ulceration. Herpes simplex can also cause painful genital ulcers, but they are usually multiple and superficial, and inguinal lymphadenopathy is not as common as with chancroid. Lymphogranuloma venereum causes painless ulceration that heals quickly, while primary syphilis causes a painless ulcer called a chancre.

      Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.

      Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.

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  • Question 103 - A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for the past week. She reports experiencing headaches and mild abdominal discomfort. She denies having any diarrhea but mentions severe constipation. Recently, she returned from a 3-week trip to India. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC, and she appears bloated. Additionally, a sparse macular rash is observed on her chest. What is the probable causative agent for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi

      Explanation:

      While salmonella can cause diarrhoea, typhoid fever is more likely to result in constipation. This is a typical symptom of typhoid fever, along with the appearance of rose spots. It’s important to note that constipation can be a significant indicator of this illness. In contrast, Campylobacter jejuni infection usually causes bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. E. coli is a common cause of watery diarrhoea, but certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 can lead to severe abdominal cramping, vomiting, and bloody diarrhoea. Giardiasis can cause similar symptoms such as bloating and abdominal pain, but it usually results in chronic diarrhoea. Shigellosis typically causes abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which may or may not be bloody.

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.

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  • Question 104 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash...

    Incorrect