00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What condition(s) increase the likelihood of developing a neoplasm? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition(s) increase the likelihood of developing a neoplasm?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's disease

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Associated Risks

      Polycystic kidney disease is a condition that can lead to renal failure and is strongly linked to berry aneurysm. However, Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) doesn’t increase the risk of renal carcinoma, nor does the rarer recessive type. On the other hand, patients on dialysis who develop cystic kidneys have a higher incidence of RCC, and Von-Hippel-Lindau disease also carries an increased risk.

      Neurofibromatosis may be associated with phaeochromocytoma, while polycystic ovary disease carries a higher risk of endometrial cancer. However, psoriasis doesn’t predispose to skin cancer, and De Quervain’s thyroiditis doesn’t lead to malignancy. Finally, Gilbert’s disease is a benign familial abnormality of bilirubin metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - John is a 40-year-old man who is looking after his mother who has...

    Correct

    • John is a 40-year-old man who is looking after his mother who has been diagnosed with dementia. He visits you seeking guidance on financial benefits available to him, having heard about 'carer's credit' in the media.

      What is the accurate definition of 'carer's credit'?

      Your Answer: National insurance credits towards the state pension for a carer

      Explanation:

      Carer’s Credit: A National Insurance Record Boost for Carers

      Carer’s credit is a program that provides credits to carers who may have gaps in their national insurance record due to caring for their loved ones. This program ensures that carers will not be affected in claiming their state pension later in life. To be eligible for the carer’s credit, the carer must be at least 16 years old, under the State Pension age, and must be looking after one or more people for at least 20 hours a week. The person being cared for must receive one of the following: Disability Living Allowance care component at the middle or highest rate, Attendance Allowance, Constant Attendance Allowance, Personal Independence Payment – daily living component, at the standard or enhanced rate, or Armed Forces Independence Payment. The carer’s credit program is a helpful way to support carers who dedicate their time and effort to care for their loved ones.

      Reference:
      Carer’s Credit – https://www.gov.uk/carers-credit/overview. Department of Work and Pensions
      Carer’s Credit – http://www.macmillan.org.uk/information-and-support/organising/benefits-and-financial-support/looking-after-someone-with-cancer/carers-credit.html. Macmillan Cancer Support

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - According to NICE guidelines, if a patient with diabetes has a 5 year...

    Incorrect

    • According to NICE guidelines, if a patient with diabetes has a 5 year coronary event risk of >10% but no microalbuminuria, at what threshold level of BP (stage 2 hypertension) should you offer treatment?

      Your Answer: 145/85 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 140/80 mmHg

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Management

      NICE guidelines for hypertension management were updated in 2019, with a key point to note being the use of the word offer versus discuss. It’s important to pay attention to this difference in wording when answering questions about hypertension management.

      Under the updated guidelines, there are no longer separate guidelines for managing hypertension in diabetes. For individuals with stage 1 hypertension (135/85 to 149/94), lifestyle advice should be offered and treatment should be discussed. However, for those with stage 2 hypertension (150/95 or more), treatment should be offered.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective hypertension management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Samantha is a 40-year-old woman who is curious about her eligibility for universal...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 40-year-old woman who is curious about her eligibility for universal credit. She used to work as a teacher but has been unemployed for the past year.

      What is the maximum amount of savings she can have and still qualify for universal credit?

      Your Answer: £6,000

      Correct Answer: £16,000

      Explanation:

      To be eligible for universal credit, your savings must not exceed £16,000.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements regarding the DS1600 form is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the DS1600 form is correct?

      Your Answer: Should be completed when a patient has less than 12 months to live

      Correct Answer: Contains a question about whether the patient is aware of their diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      224.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old male is undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer. He is suffering from...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male is undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer. He is suffering from severe vomiting that has not responded to domperidone. What should be the next course of action for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Add a dopamine receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: Add a 5HT3 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Nausea and Vomiting as Side-Effects of Chemotherapy

      Chemotherapy is a common treatment for cancer, but it often comes with side-effects such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms can be triggered by various factors, including anxiety, age, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy used. Patients who are at low-risk of developing these symptoms may be prescribed drugs like metoclopramide as a first-line treatment. However, for high-risk patients, 5HT3 receptor antagonists like ondansetron are often more effective, especially when combined with dexamethasone.

      To manage nausea and vomiting, it is important to identify the risk factors and choose the appropriate medication. Patients should also be advised to eat small, frequent meals and avoid foods that trigger their symptoms. Additionally, relaxation techniques such as deep breathing and meditation may help reduce anxiety and prevent nausea and vomiting. With proper management, patients can minimize the impact of these side-effects and focus on their recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      487
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses worry about her likelihood of developing cancer since her father had a history of bladder cancer.

      What is the most significant factor that increases a person's chances of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Alcohol consumption of >21 units a week

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer Risk Factors

      Understanding the risk factors associated with bladder cancer is crucial for early detection and prevention. While family history may be a concern for some, lifestyle and environmental factors play a more significant role in the majority of cases. Smoking, for instance, is responsible for 37% of bladder cancers, with smokers being 3.8 times more likely to develop the disease than non-smokers. A family history of bladder cancer in a first-degree relative increases the risk by 1.8 times, while HPV infection is associated with a 2.8 times higher risk. Obesity, with a body mass index of 30 or more, can cause a 9% higher risk of developing bladder cancer than in someone of healthy weight. However, alcohol consumption has not been shown to be a risk factor. Additionally, occupational and environmental factors can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. For more information on these factors, Cancer Research UK provides a useful resource on bladder cancer risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - As you assess the delivery of cancer care by the practice, what is...

    Incorrect

    • As you assess the delivery of cancer care by the practice, what is the most prevalent form of cancer in the UK, disregarding non-melanoma skin cancers?

      Your Answer: Lung

      Correct Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Cancer in the UK: Common Types and Causes of Death

      Cancer is a major health concern in the UK, with several types of cancer affecting a significant number of people. The most common types of cancer in the UK are breast, lung, colorectal, prostate, bladder, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, melanoma, stomach, oesophagus, and pancreas. However, when it comes to causes of death from cancer, lung cancer tops the list, followed by colorectal, breast, prostate, and pancreatic cancer. Other types of cancer that contribute to cancer-related deaths in the UK include oesophageal, stomach, bladder, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and ovarian cancer. It is important to note that non-melanoma skin cancer is not included in these statistics. Despite the prevalence of cancer in the UK, there are various treatments and support available for those affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      432.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You operate a clinic for smoking cessation and respiratory disease intervention at your...

    Incorrect

    • You operate a clinic for smoking cessation and respiratory disease intervention at your practice in northern England. Concerning inequalities, what is accurate regarding the emergence of bronchial carcinoma and related risk factors?

      Your Answer: Quit rates for stopping smoking are higher in lower socio-economic groups

      Correct Answer: The incidence is higher in patients from higher socio-economic groups

      Explanation:

      Inequalities in Lung Cancer Rates in the UK

      Unfortunately, there are significant inequalities in lung cancer rates across the UK. Scotland, Northern Ireland, and Wales have higher rates compared to England, with the north of England having higher rates than the south. These disparities are concerning and require attention to ensure that all individuals have access to the same level of care and resources.

      Furthermore, patients from lower socio-economic groups have lower survival rates from bronchial carcinoma than those from higher socio-economic backgrounds. This highlights the need for additional resources in areas with substantial deprivation, particularly in terms of smoking cessation services and management of associated respiratory diseases. By addressing these inequalities, we can work towards improving outcomes for all individuals affected by lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding retirement contracts is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding retirement contracts is true?

      Your Answer: PMS practices receive a Minimum Practice Income Guarantee (MPIG)

      Correct Answer: PMS practices may take part in the QOF scheme

      Explanation:

      Comparison of GP Contracts

      The General Medical Services (GMS), Personal Medical Services (PMS), and Alternative Provider Medical Services (APMS) contracts differ in several ways. The GMS contract is nationally negotiated and allows GPs or qualifying health professionals to provide essential services, with optional additional services and enhanced services. The PMS contract is locally negotiated with mandatory terms and includes core and additional services similar to GMS. The APMS contract has no restriction on providers and the scope of services depends on the individual contract.

      The payment structure also varies between the contracts. GMS has a global sum with a Minimum Practice Income Guarantee (MPIG), Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF), enhanced services, premises, and IT. PMS has a baseline set nationally and QOF, while APMS is locally negotiated.

      The type of contract also differs. GMS is open-ended and cannot be terminated unless fault is proven. PMS is usually for five years, and the contract may be terminated. APMS is usually for three years, and the contract may also be terminated.

      It is worth noting that the majority of practices are under the GMS contract, while GPs in PMS tend to have higher incomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      253.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the accurate statement about the utilization of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement about the utilization of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in individuals suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

      Your Answer: Patients receiving LTOT should breathe supplemental oxygen for at least 15 hours a day

      Explanation:

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      72.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with chest pain and is found to have a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). She has a history of poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and has had a previous NSTEMI. Prior to admission, her regular medications included metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol and amlodipine, but admits that she has not been taking her medicines consistently for a number of months, as she has felt well and doesn't think she needs to be on so many tablets. A medication review is carried out with the patient prior to her discharge.
      Which of the following is most likely to result in improved adherence to a prescribed regimen of medication?

      Your Answer: A life-threatening illness

      Correct Answer: Patient involvement in treatment decision

      Explanation:

      Improving Medication Adherence: The Importance of Patient Involvement in Treatment Decisions

      Adherence to medication is a common issue across various chronic diseases, including coronary heart disease, mental health, diabetes, and cancer. Despite the severity of some illnesses, patients often struggle to adhere to their medication regimen. However, actively involving patients in their treatment decisions can improve their adherence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends a non-judgemental discussion that explores the patient’s perceptions and preferences about medication.

      Even after a life-threatening event, adherence to medication remains poor. For instance, only half of the patients hospitalised for acute myocardial infarction were still taking their medication two years after starting therapy. Poor health literacy may also contribute to a lack of understanding of treatment instructions, leading to non-adherence. Additionally, the elderly face challenges such as multiple medications with frequent dosing and potentially decreased dexterity and cognitive functioning. Communication between hospitals and General Practitioners could also be poor, leading to medication lists that are not up to date and conflicting messages for patients.

      In conclusion, involving patients in their treatment decisions can improve medication adherence, which is crucial for managing chronic diseases. Healthcare providers should strive to communicate effectively with patients, especially those with low health literacy and the elderly, to ensure they understand their treatment instructions and can manage their medications effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are investigating an elderly patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result...

    Correct

    • You are investigating an elderly patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 1300 ng/litre.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Repeat test in 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      NT-proBNP Levels and Referral Guidelines for Heart Failure

      An NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2000 ng/litre should prompt a referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 6 weeks. However, if the NT-proBNP level is above 2000 ng/litre, urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks is necessary due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels. On the other hand, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use (diuretics, ACE-I, beta blockers, and spironolactone) can reduce the NT-proBNP reading and may affect the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      76.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss of 1 stone and generalised fatigue. He has smoked 15 cigarettes per day for 45 years. He had a chest x ray done a week ago which reports a suspicious mass in the left lung with hilar enlargement ? lung cancer. The radiologist recommends urgent referral.

      You explain the findings to the patient and his wife and discuss the need for referral. The patient states that he has private medical insurance to cover out-patient appointments and he also has a close friend who is a general physician. He requests private referral to him as he knows he will be seen within a few days.

      There are other options for referral in your area. You have a district general hospital nearby where a respiratory physician does a clinic once a month, however the last clinic has only just been held. You have a community hospital nearby with a general physician visiting every two weeks. The tertiary referral hospital is some distance away but this is where the specialist lung cancer multi-disciplinary team are based and the patient will be seen within two weeks.

      The patient would rather be seen as near to home as possible.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NHS referral to multi-disciplinary lung cancer team at the tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      Referral for Cancer Symptoms

      NICE guidance recommends that patients with symptoms suggestive of cancer should be referred to a team specializing in the management of that particular type of cancer. Referral to a private physician or a general physician at a community hospital doesn’t fulfill this requirement for specialized care. While a respiratory physician at a district general hospital may be an option, the potential delay of more than four weeks is not ideal. Therefore, despite the greater distance to travel, the best course of action is to refer the patient to a specialist team for optimal management of their cancer symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old male patient has recently registered with your practice, having moved from...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient has recently registered with your practice, having moved from another area. He had a radical prostatectomy three years ago for early prostate cancer. He remains clinically well and has been undergoing follow-up in primary care.

      You have no previous PSA (prostate specific antigen) readings for comparison but have checked his PSA at his first visit with you. Which of the following would be a reason for an urgent re-referral to the local urology department, bearing in mind that the normal age related range is <4.5 ng/ml?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A PSA reading of >0.2 ng/ml

      Explanation:

      PSA Levels After Prostatectomy

      After undergoing a radical prostatectomy, it is expected that the PSA levels become undetectable. Therefore, any measurable level of PSA is of potential significance as it may indicate local or systemic recurrence. The general consensus among medical professionals is that two consecutive readings of more than 0.2 ng/ml are likely to be suspicious of recurrent disease. It is important to monitor PSA levels regularly after prostatectomy to detect any potential recurrence early on and to ensure prompt treatment. Proper monitoring and management of PSA levels can significantly improve the chances of successful treatment and long-term survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old woman seeks your advice on reducing her risk of pancreatic cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman seeks your advice on reducing her risk of pancreatic cancer after her sister was recently diagnosed with the disease. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day, doesn't drink alcohol, and has lost weight through dieting. She consumes a lot of low calorie sweetened drinks and drinks four to five cups of strong coffee daily. She has been taking hormone replacement therapy for the past four years and regularly takes over-the-counter omega 3 capsules. What factor is linked to an increased risk of pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      Chronic pancreatitis, smoking, and obesity are the three biggest risk factors for pancreatic cancer. The longer chronic pancreatitis is present, the higher the risk of developing pancreatic cancer, with some sources quoting a 26 times increased risk. Obese individuals are also about 20% more likely to develop pancreatic cancer. Other risk factors include alcohol consumption, family history of pancreatic cancer, and possibly diabetes.

      Up to 10% of cases may have a genetic cause, with germ-line mutations in the BRCA2 gene being involved in a significant number of familial pancreatic cancer cases. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome sufferers have a more than 100-fold increased lifetime risk, and patients with cystic fibrosis living into adulthood are also at increased cancer risk. Inflammatory bowel disease, periodontal disease, and peptic ulcer disease are also associated with an increased risk.

      However, fish or omega 3 fatty acid supplements, HRT, and sweetened carbonated drinks are not risk factors for pancreatic cancer. While there was concern over caffeine intake, coffee consumption is no longer considered a risk factor. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals make informed decisions about their lifestyle choices and medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man who is a non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man who is a non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. His initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. There are no abnormalities found during physical examination.
      Which tumor marker test would be the most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Uses in Cancer Diagnosis and Monitoring

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood or other bodily fluids. While they are not always reliable for screening or diagnosis, they can be useful in monitoring the progression of cancer and evaluating the effectiveness of treatment. Here are some common tumor markers and their uses:

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): PSA can be used to screen for prostate cancer and detect recurrence of the malignancy. It is also useful in investigating adenocarcinoma of unknown primary.

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP): AFP, along with beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG), is important in evaluating and treating non-seminomatous germ-cell tumors and monitoring response to therapy. It can also be useful in evaluating potential origins of poorly differentiated metastatic cancer. AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG): β-hCG, along with AFP, is important in evaluating and treating non-seminomatous germ-cell tumors and monitoring response to therapy. It can also be useful in evaluating potential origins of poorly differentiated metastatic cancer.

      CA 19-9: CA 19-9 may be helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.

      While tumor markers can provide valuable information in cancer diagnosis and monitoring, they should always be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents to you with a complaint of a change in...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents to you with a complaint of a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last 1-2 months he has gone from having firm stools passed once a day to looser stools passed 3-4 times a day. He has noticed some vague lower abdominal pains and has lost 2-3 kilograms in weight, he denies any blood loss per rectum or black stools. He says he otherwise feels OK. He was seen about 2 weeks ago by a colleague who sent a stool sample to the lab and ordered some initial investigations.

      On examination, you note pale conjunctiva and angular stomatitis, you cannot elicit any focal abdominal signs and rectal examination is normal.

      The stool sample was negative and the bloods have revealed a haemoglobin of 94 g/L (normal range 125-165). Thyroid function, renal function, liver function and coeliac screen are all normal. ESR is 68 (normal <20). You are expecting the ferritin to be low, but it returns as 568 (normal range 15-300). On further review of the full blood count you note an MCV of 72.6 (normal range 76-96). The remainder of the full blood count including white blood cell count and platelet count are within normal limits.

      You refer the patient urgently for colorectal investigation.

      Which of the following further blood investigations will most likely help determine the underlying cause of this patient's anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune screen

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Blood Results in a Patient with Suspected Colorectal Malignancy

      In this case, a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of a colorectal malignancy and iron deficiency, with a microcytic anaemia. Urgent referral for lower GI investigation is necessary.

      Upon examination of the blood results, an elevated ESR and ferritin are present, indicating an underlying systemic condition causing inflammation or infection. However, the GI malignancy is the likely cause of these elevations. It is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase respondent and may not necessarily rule out iron deficiency. Therefore, serum iron and total iron binding capacity tests are necessary to confirm iron deficiency.

      B12 deficiency and haemolytic anaemia can cause elevated MCV measurements, but they are not the most likely underlying diagnoses in this case. A haemoglobinopathy, such as thalassaemia, could also cause microcytic anaemia, but it is not the most probable option based on the patient’s presentation. Vasculitis or other autoimmune conditions are also unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of severe back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of severe back pain that has been bothering her for the past five days. She has a history of breast cancer and osteoarthritis. The pain is located in the lower thoracic area and spreads to the front of her chest. Coughing and sneezing exacerbate the pain. She has not experienced any changes in her bowel or urinary habits. During the examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. The peri-anal sensation is normal, and the lower limb reflexes are brisk. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone + immediate oncological assessment

      Explanation:

      Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Betty is a 78-year-old woman on multiple medications who is seeing her general...

    Incorrect

    • Betty is a 78-year-old woman on multiple medications who is seeing her general practitioner for a medication review.

      Which of the following tools is most helpful in aiding this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: STOPP/START

      Explanation:

      MED/REC – Medical Record – a comprehensive documentation of a patient’s medical history, including diagnoses, treatments, medications, and test results. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to provide quality care and ensure continuity of care.

      Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management

      Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.

      Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.

      Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (6/13) 46%
Passmed