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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Refer for abdominal and pelvic ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA125 level

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      85.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the...

    Correct

    • A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage

      The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

      Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.

      Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.

      Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      76.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. During the US examination, ascites is detected. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hb: 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - WBC: 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Na+: 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+: 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - CRP: 8 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Haematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48; normal range for males: 0.4-0.54)

      What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?

      Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy

      Explanation:

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a possible adverse effect of ovulation induction. The symptoms of this syndrome, such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit, are typical. There are various medications used for ovulation induction, and the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is higher with gonadotropin therapy than with clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. Therefore, it is probable that the patient received gonadotropin therapy.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      215.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man with a history of diabetes is three days post-open umbilical...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of diabetes is three days post-open umbilical hernia repair. He is experiencing mild central abdominal pain and feeling generally unwell. Upon examination of the wound, the area surrounding it appears red and inflamed with localized tenderness. Although there is pus coming from the wound, there is no separation of the incision.
      Vital signs:
      Blood pressure 130/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 110 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Temperature 38.2 °C
      What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Broad-spectrum antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Surgical Site Infections: Early Initiation of Antibiotics is Key

      Surgical site infections (SSIs) are a common complication of surgery, occurring three to seven days postoperatively. They can lead to increased morbidity and prolonged hospital stay, and may present with symptoms such as erythema, localised tenderness, and purulent discharge from the wound. To reduce the risk of complications such as abscess formation and wound dehiscence, it is important to initiate empirical antibiotics early. While IV fluids and analgesia may be supportive measures, they should not be the primary focus of treatment. In cases of full dehiscence, surgical closure using deep retention sutures may be necessary. However, in cases where the wound has not dehisced, taking a wound swab and simply re-dressing the wound would not be sufficient. Surgical debridement would also not be appropriate in this scenario. Overall, early initiation of antibiotics is key in the management of SSIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
      Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?

      Your Answer: Low-birthweight infants should receive daily vitamin D, calcium and phosphorus supplementation

      Correct Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk

      Explanation:

      Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants

      Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen

      The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.

      Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
      Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladder

      The fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.

      Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleen

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      The origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
      Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases

      Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.

      Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old man has recently come back from a bachelor party in Latvia....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man has recently come back from a bachelor party in Latvia. He is experiencing pain while urinating and a white discharge from the tip of his penis. Additionally, he is suffering from a swollen and painful left knee. During the examination, the doctor observes a white discharge from his penis and an erythematosus, tender, and swollen left knee. The man is also running a fever of 38.1 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Differentiating gonorrhoeae from Other Infections

      gonorrhoeae is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause urethritis and arthritis. When someone returns from an area with a high prevalence of gonorrhoeae, they may experience symptoms such as a purulent discharge, fever, and joint pain. This is not a reactive arthritis because the patient has both urethritis and arthritis at the same time, and is pyrexial during the current illness.

      The acute monoarthritis is a manifestation of disseminated gonococcal infection, which can be confirmed through a Gram stain that shows intracellular Gram negative diplococci. While reactive arthritis can occur after gonorrhoeae, it typically presents as a polyarthritis and has a lag of one to three weeks from the time of the initial disease.

      Chlamydial infection, on the other hand, does not usually cause a purulent discharge and symptoms usually occur slightly longer after exposure than with gonorrhoeae. Pyelonephritis presents with fever and pain in the renal angles, while trichomoniasis is much less common than gonorrhoeae and does not usually present with arthritis. By the differences between these infections, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female complains of pain on the radial side of her wrist...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female complains of pain on the radial side of her wrist and tenderness over the radial styloid process. During examination, she experiences pain when she abducts her thumb against resistance. Additionally, when she flexes her thumb across the palm of her hand, pain is reproduced by movement of the wrist into flexion and ulnar deviation. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      The described test is the Finkelstein test, which is used to diagnose De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid process due to inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. Option 1 is incorrect as the test is not Tinel’s sign, which is used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Option 3 is incorrect as polymyalgia rheumatica typically presents with pain in the shoulder and pelvic muscle girdles but with normal power. Option 4 is incorrect as rheumatoid arthritis usually presents with pain in the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCP) and the proximal interphalangeal joints (PIP). Option 5 is also incorrect.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A mother brings her four-month-old baby to the GP, concerned about episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her four-month-old baby to the GP, concerned about episodes of vomiting and crying which she believes may be due to a tummy ache. The mother reports that her baby vomits after most feeds and cries constantly, even when laid down. The vomiting is non-projectile and non-bilious. The baby was born at 39 weeks via vaginal delivery, and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. The baby lives with both parents. On examination, the baby's weight is appropriate for their growth chart. Their heart rate is 140 bpm, O2 saturation is 97%, respiratory rate is 42/min, and temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for an infant under 8 weeks old who is experiencing milky vomits after feeds, especially when laid flat, and excessive crying is gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD). This is because the symptoms are typical of GORD, with non-projectile and non-bilious vomits and normal observations. Cow’s milk protein intolerance is a possible differential, but there is no history of stool changes or rashes, and it usually presents earlier in life. Duodenal atresia is unlikely as it typically presents with projectile and bilious vomiting and earlier in life. Gastroenteritis is also less likely as it is commonly caused by a viral infection with associated fever and tachycardia, and there is no mention of stool changes in the history.

      Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been occurring for the past 5 months. He has been feeling fatigued lately and occasionally experiences mild itching on his arms. He denies any pain or weight loss. The patient has a history of ulcerative colitis, which was diagnosed 13 years ago and has been managed with mesalazine, anti-diarrhoeals, and steroids. The GP orders liver function tests, which reveal the following results:
      total bilirubin 38 mmol/l
      aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 32 iu/l
      alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 iu/l
      alkaline phosphatase 310 u/l.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Cholestatic Jaundice in a Patient with UC

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that should be considered in a patient with UC who presents with a raised alkaline phosphatase level. This is because approximately two-thirds of patients with PSC also have coexisting UC, and between 3% and 8% of UC sufferers will develop PSC. Chronic cholecystitis would present with pain, which is not present in this patient, making PSC the more likely diagnosis. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain and obstructive liver function tests, which are not present in this case. Primary biliary cholangitis is more likely to affect women aged 30-60, and given the patient’s history of UC, PSC is more likely. Pancreatic carcinoma would be associated with weight loss and obstructive liver function tests. Therefore, in a patient with UC presenting with cholestatic jaundice, PSC should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden and severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden and severe pain in his groin while playing basketball. He has no significant medical history and denies any trauma to the area. During the exam, he experiences persistent pain in his right testicle when it is raised. An ultrasound with Doppler reveals reduced blood flow in the right testicle. Which artery is most likely occluded in this patient?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Directly from the aorta

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Arteries Involved in Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a condition that causes extreme pain in the groin due to the rotation of the testicle within the scrotum, which occludes flow through the testicular artery. This condition is common in male teenagers during exercise and requires immediate medical attention. In this article, we will discuss the arteries involved in testicular torsion and their functions.

      The testicular artery (both left and right) arises from the aorta at the level of L2. Torsion can be diagnosed through colour Doppler ultrasound of the testicle, which shows decreased blood flow. Surgery is required within 6 hours of onset of symptoms to re-establish blood flow and prevent recurrent torsion (orchidopexy). If >6 hours elapse, there is an increased risk for permanent ischaemic damage.

      The right and left renal arteries provide branches to the adrenal gland, not the testicles. Both the left and right renal arteries arise from the aorta at the level of L1/2. The internal iliac artery gives off branches to the perineum, but not the testicles. The internal iliac artery branches from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1. The external iliac artery gives off the inferior epigastric artery and becomes the femoral artery when it crosses deep to the inguinal ligament. The external iliac artery bifurcates from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1.

      In conclusion, understanding the arteries involved in testicular torsion is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment. The testicular artery arising from the aorta at the level of L2 is the primary artery involved in this condition, and surgery within 6 hours of onset of symptoms is necessary to prevent permanent damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of worsening menstrual pain that starts...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of worsening menstrual pain that starts a few days before her period. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, the pain persists. She also experiences discomfort during penetrative sex. During a digital vaginal examination, the GP notes nodularity and tenderness in the posterior fornix of the cervix. A bimanual examination reveals a retroverted uterus that is fixed in position. What is the gold standard investigation for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a condition that affects women of reproductive age and is diagnosed through laparoscopy, which can identify areas of ectopic endometrial tissue, adhesions, peritoneal deposits, and chocolate cysts on the ovaries. Hysteroscopy is not relevant as it only investigates the womb, while MRI pelvis may be used but its accuracy depends on the location of the disease. Transabdominal ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing endometriosis, while transvaginal ultrasound is often used but not accurate enough for diagnosis.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man is in a car crash and experiences a flail chest...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man is in a car crash and experiences a flail chest injury. He arrives at the emergency department with hypotension and an elevated jugular venous pulse. Upon examination, his heart sounds are faint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Beck’s Triad is indicative of the presence of a cardiac tamponade and includes hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and an elevated jugular venous pressure.

      Thoracic Trauma: Common Conditions and Treatment

      Thoracic trauma can result in various conditions that require prompt medical attention. Tension pneumothorax, for instance, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration to the lung parenchyma with a flap. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Symptoms of tension pneumothorax overlap with cardiac tamponade, but hyper-resonant percussion note is more likely. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.

      Pneumothorax is another common condition resulting from lung laceration with air leakage. Traumatic pneumothoraces should have a chest drain, and patients should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothorax, which is most commonly due to laceration of the lung, intercostal vessel, or internal mammary artery, is treated with a large bore chest drain if it is large enough to appear on CXR. Surgical exploration is warranted if more than 1500 ml blood is drained immediately.

      Cardiac tamponade is characterized by elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, and reduced heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus may also occur with as little as 100 ml blood. Pulmonary contusion is the most common potentially lethal chest injury, and arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry are important. Early intubation within an hour is necessary if significant hypoxia is present. Blunt cardiac injury usually occurs secondary to chest wall injury, and ECG may show features of myocardial infarction. Aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds are other conditions that require prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision that started 1 day ago. He reports no pain when touching his scalp or eating and chewing food. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which he manages with metformin. He also mentions that his uncle died of brain cancer, and he is worried that he may have the same condition.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Dilated fundoscopy reveals some arterioles narrower than others, with venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes, with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. Additionally, there are some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.

      His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 221/119 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, respiratory rate 14 per minute, and temperature 37 °C.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Giant-cell arthritis (GCA)

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hypertensive Retinopathy: A Case Study

      The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed typical features of hypertensive retinopathy, including bilateral optic disc swelling. Although the patient had a family history of intracranial space-occupying lesions, there were no accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss, making this diagnosis unlikely. Additionally, there was no evidence of drusen or choroidal neovascularisation, ruling out age-related macular degeneration. The absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication made giant-cell arthritis an unlikely diagnosis as well. Finally, the lack of new vessels at the disc and elsewhere ruled out proliferative diabetic retinopathy. In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings point towards a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first scan at 20 weeks. During the ultrasound, a 'snow-storm' appearance is observed without visible foetal parts. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incomplete hydatidiform mole

      Correct Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole

      Explanation:

      A snowstorm appearance on ultrasound scan is indicative of a complete hydatidiform mole, which occurs when all genetic material comes from the father and no foetal parts are present. Vaginal bleeding is often the first symptom. In contrast, an incomplete hydatidiform mole results from two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes, and may have foetal parts present without a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Gestational diabetes can cause foetal structural abnormalities and macrosomia, but not a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. An incomplete miscarriage may cause vaginal bleeding, but it would not result in a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound.

      Characteristics of Complete Hydatidiform Mole

      A complete hydatidiform mole is a rare type of pregnancy where the fertilized egg develops into a mass of abnormal cells instead of a fetus. This condition is characterized by several features, including vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus size that is greater than expected for gestational age, and abnormally high levels of serum hCG. Additionally, an ultrasound may reveal a snowstorm appearance of mixed echogenicity.

      In simpler terms, a complete hydatidiform mole is a type of pregnancy that does not develop normally and can cause abnormal bleeding and an enlarged uterus. Doctors can detect this condition through blood tests and ultrasounds, which show a unique appearance of mixed echogenicity. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old G2P1 woman arrives at the emergency department in the second stage...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G2P1 woman arrives at the emergency department in the second stage of labour with the foetal head visible at the vaginal introitus. She has a history of a previous elective lower-segment Caesarean section, but no other significant medical history. Antenatal imaging revealed chorionic villi invasion into the myometrium, but not the perimetrium. Following delivery of the foetus, the patient experiences post-partum haemorrhage. What is the most probable cause of her post-partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Placenta percreta

      Correct Answer: Placenta increta

      Explanation:

      Placenta increta is a condition where the chorionic villi, which are normally found in the endometrium, invade the myometrium. This can lead to significant bleeding during vaginal delivery. Placenta increta is more serious than placenta accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium but do not invade it, but less severe than placenta percreta, where the chorionic villi invade the perimetrium.

      Understanding Placenta Accreta

      Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.

      There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - At 1700 h, you are tasked with seeing a 15-year-old girl who has...

    Incorrect

    • At 1700 h, you are tasked with seeing a 15-year-old girl who has recently been diagnosed with leukaemia and admitted to a major hospital in England. The patient's current vital signs include a heart rate of 120 per minute, a gallop rhythm, and a soft murmur. Additionally, her Hb level is at 6.5. However, the patient's parents are refusing a blood transfusion due to their religious beliefs. What course of action do you take?

      Your Answer: Start chemotherapy but do not give transfusion

      Correct Answer: Ask for a court order

      Explanation:

      Legal and Medical Considerations in the Case of a Child Refusing Blood Transfusion

      In the case of a child with leukaemia who requires a blood transfusion but whose parents refuse due to religious beliefs, there are legal and medical considerations to take into account. While parental rights are recognized, they are not absolute and must be balanced with the duty to ensure the child’s health, safety, and wellbeing. If treatment refusal results in a child’s suffering, parents may be criminally liable, and the courts may exercise their power under the doctrine of parens patriae to protect the child’s welfare.

      One option is to obtain a Section 8 (Children Act 1989) specific issue order, which allows the court to exercise its power over a specific issue of parental responsibility, such as the issue of blood transfusion. In urgent cases, such an order can be obtained over the phone from a High Court judge in as little as 30 minutes. Judges may visit sick children to ascertain their wishes and preferences and assess their decision-making competence. An independent arbitration system can also help defuse conflict and provide all parties with the opportunity to give their views.

      If there is not enough time to obtain a court order and an independent clinician deems that the child will die without a blood transfusion, then blood must be given to save the child’s life. However, if chemotherapy is given without transfusion, the child is likely to become more anaemic and be placed at significant risk.

      Obtaining a Police Protection Order does not transfer parental authority and would not give the police the power to make a decision regarding blood transfusion. Instead, a psychiatric assessment can be helpful in determining the child’s decision-making capacity, but legal review may still be necessary if the family persists in refusing treatment. Ultimately, the best interests of the child must be the guiding principle in making any decisions regarding their medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old postal worker presents with a two-day history of increasing right-sided flank...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old postal worker presents with a two-day history of increasing right-sided flank pain that extends to the groin. The patient also reports experiencing frank haematuria. The patient has had a similar episode before and was previously diagnosed with a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan confirms the presence of a renal calculi on the right side. What is the most probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Renal Stones

      Renal stones are a common medical condition that can cause significant discomfort and pain. Understanding the risk factors associated with renal stones can help in their prevention and management. Hyperparathyroidism is a known cause of renal stones, and patients presenting with urinary stones should have their calcium, phosphate, and urate levels measured to exclude common medical risk factors. A low sodium diet is recommended as high sodium intake can lead to hypercalcemia and stone formation. Bisoprolol use may cause renal impairment but is less likely to be associated with recurrent renal calculi. Contrary to popular belief, vitamin D excess rather than deficiency is associated with the formation of kidney stones. Finally, gout, rather than osteoarthritis, is a risk factor for renal stones due to the excess uric acid that can be deposited in the kidneys. By understanding these risk factors, patients and healthcare providers can work together to prevent and manage renal stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in his right knee after sustaining an injury while playing football. According to him, he was tackled from behind and felt a sudden 'pop' in his knee, followed by rapid swelling. During the examination, a knee effusion is observed on the right side, and the Lachman test is positive. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) rupture

      Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture

      Explanation:

      If there is rapid swelling in a joint, it could indicate haemoarthrosis caused by a rupture of the ACL or PCL. The injury mechanism suggests an ACL rupture, and a positive Lachman test further supports this.

      Direct blows to the medial aspect of the leg are the most common cause of LCL injuries, which can result in gradual joint effusion and tenderness along the lateral joint line.

      Likewise, MCL injuries typically occur from direct blows to the lateral aspect of the leg, causing strain on the MCL ligament. This can lead to gradual joint effusion and tenderness along the medial joint line.

      Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.

      Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.

      Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.

      Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.

      Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing non displaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening programme and is found to be hrHPV positive. However, her cytological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test is hrHPV positive but cytologically normal, the recommended course of action is to repeat the test in 12 months. This is in contrast to negative hrHPV results, which are returned to normal recall. Abnormal cytology results require colposcopy, but normal cytology results do not. It is important to note that returning to normal recall is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s higher risk status warrants a repeat test sooner than the standard 3-year interval. Repeating the test within 3 or 6 months is also not recommended.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 41-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pain in...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pain in his left leg. The pain has been constant for the past 2 hours. He has been experiencing calf pain when walking for the past few months, which improves with rest. He has no significant medical history and is asymptomatic otherwise.

      Upon examination, his left leg appears pale and cool. The anterior tibialis pulse on the left cannot be palpated, but the popliteal pulse is normal. Both pulses on his right leg are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Doppler examination of pulses

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with acute limb pain and a history of intermittent claudication, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be performed to confirm suspected acute limb ischaemia. This is because manual palpation of pulses can be operator-dependent and the Doppler examination can quickly and easily quantify the extent of the loss. Other symptoms of acute limb ischaemia include pallor, loss of distal pulse, and feeling of coldness.

      Compartment pressure monitoring can aid in the diagnosis of compartment syndrome, which presents with pain and possibly pallor in the lower leg, but not cold temperature. However, compartment syndrome is usually diagnosed clinically, and compartment pressure monitoring is only used in cases of diagnostic uncertainty.

      Compression ultrasonography is useful when a deep vein thrombosis is suspected, which presents with swelling, redness, and a hot leg – the opposite of the symptoms described in acute limb ischaemia. It also does not affect the pulses or explain the intermittent claudication.

      Immediate anticoagulation is not appropriate before further investigations and confirmation of diagnosis by a specialist. While anticoagulation is used in the treatment of acute limb ischaemia, it is important to have a more detailed assessment before initiating treatment.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe lower back pain. He reports that the pain started after he lifted a heavy box at work. The pain is radiating to his right buttock and thigh, but he has not experienced any urinary symptoms.

      During the examination, the patient was able to straight leg raise to 90 degrees on the left side, but only to 30 degrees on the right. The sciatic stretch test was positive. He had difficulty plantarflexing his right ankle and reported abnormal sensation on the plantar aspect of the foot. Additionally, his right ankle reflex was absent, but all other reflexes were normal. There were no other sensory disturbances noted.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: L4/L5 disc prolapse

      Correct Answer: L5/S1 disc prolapse

      Explanation:

      Cauda equina syndrome causes more severe symptoms such as bladder/bowel dysfunction and bilateral weakness.
      L3/4 disc prolapse affects the L4 nerve root causing pain in the anterior thigh and quadriceps weakness.
      L4/5 disc prolapse affects the L5 nerve root causing pain over the lateral aspect of the leg and foot drop.
      Scheuermann’s disease is a form of kyphosis that affects three adjacent anterior vertebral bodies and typically begins during teenage years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?

      Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction

      Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).

      If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.

      Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, without changes to their vision or fever symptoms. They wear contact lenses but have not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient's right eye shows injected conjunctiva, but there is no noticeable swelling or redness around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein does not reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Advise to use warm compresses at least twice daily to the affected eye

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn. In this case, the 15-year-old is likely experiencing viral conjunctivitis and should refrain from wearing contact lenses until symptoms have subsided. It is important to note that not having seen an optician recently may affect the patient’s lens prescription, but it does not increase their susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions.

      While warm compresses can be helpful for styes or chalazion, they are not as effective for viral conjunctivitis. In this case, the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, indicating that the patient does not require a referral to ophthalmology. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had corneal staining, they would need to visit eye casualty as this would suggest a corneal injury.

      Although topical antihistamine eye drops may be appropriate for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the patient’s symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge in this case suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      88.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history of pain under her right rib cage and 2 days history of yellow skin and pale stools. She has also experienced a weight loss of 2 stone over the last 6 months. What would be the appropriate tumour marker investigation for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CEA

      Correct Answer: CA 19–9

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Associated Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring certain types of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and the cancers they are associated with:

      – CA 19-9: This marker is associated with cholangiocarcinoma, but can also be positive in pancreatic and colorectal cancer.
      – CA 15-3: This marker is associated with breast cancer.
      – AFP: This marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and teratomas.
      – CEA: This marker is associated with colorectal cancer.
      – CA 125: This marker is associated with ovarian, uterine, and breast cancer.

      It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal behaviour in a police cell. He claimed that there was a conspiracy against him and started acting irrationally. After 36 hours of admission, the patient complains of visual hallucinations and experiences a grand-mal seizure. What is the probable reason behind the seizure?

      Your Answer: LSD withdrawal

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Fits in a Patient with a History of Substance Abuse

      There are several possible causes of fits in a patient with a history of substance abuse. LSD withdrawal and amphetamine withdrawal are not known to cause seizures, but amphetamine withdrawal may lead to depression, intense hunger, and lethargy. Hypercalcaemia is not likely to be the cause of fits in this patient, but hyponatraemia due to water intoxication following ecstasy abuse is a possibility. Alcohol withdrawal is a well-known cause of fits in habitual abusers, along with altered behavior. Although idiopathic epilepsy is a differential diagnosis, it is unlikely given the patient’s history of substance abuse. Overall, there are several potential causes of fits in this patient, and further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
      Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?

      Your Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of tonsillectomy referral. She has experienced four instances of acute tonsillitis annually for the past five years. Some of these have necessitated antibiotics while others have been treated conservatively. As a graduate student, each of these occurrences has been debilitating, causing her to miss multiple days of classes. What is an indication for referral for tonsillectomy for tonsillitis?

      Your Answer: Five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year

      Correct Answer: Episodes of tonsillitis are disabling and prevent normal functioning

      Explanation:

      When to Consider Tonsillectomy for Recurrent Tonsillitis

      Recurrent tonsillitis can be a debilitating condition that affects daily functioning. However, before considering tonsillectomy as a treatment option, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of recurrent tonsillitis through history and clinical examination. Additionally, it should be noted that tonsillectomy may only prevent recurrent acute attacks of tonsillitis and not sore throats due to other causes.

      The national clinical guidelines suggest different criteria for referral for tonsillectomy based on the frequency and severity of tonsillitis episodes. One severe episode may not be enough to warrant surgery, while five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year may be an indication for referral. However, it is important to consider whether the frequency of episodes is increasing or decreasing, as the natural history of tonsillitis is for episodes to become less frequent over time.

      For those with three or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in each of the preceding two or three years, referral for surgery may also be considered. However, it is important to keep in mind that tonsillectomy requires a short hospital admission, general anaesthetic, and can be painful. Recovery time can also result in a loss of time from education or work.

      Overall, the decision to consider tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the frequency and severity of episodes, as well as the potential risks and benefits of surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A mental state examination is conducted on a 32-year-old individual. When asked about...

    Incorrect

    • A mental state examination is conducted on a 32-year-old individual. When asked about their breakfast, they start by describing their morning routine, then talk about their favourite recipes, followed by a story about a cooking competition they participated in, and finally mention having cereal for breakfast. Their speech is at a regular pace and flow.

      What type of thought process is demonstrated in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Circumstantiality refers to the tendency to provide excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, ultimately reaching the intended goal but taking a circuitous route. This is different from tangentiality, where the patient wanders away from the topic without returning, derailment of thoughts, where there are illogical jumps between topics, and flight of ideas, where the patient quickly moves from one related topic to another.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (2/3) 67%
Surgery (3/3) 100%
Obstetrics (0/3) 0%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Passmed